{"id":15989,"date":"2026-08-24T11:34:14","date_gmt":"2026-08-24T11:34:14","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/promotionexams.com\/?page_id=15989"},"modified":"2026-08-25T12:13:06","modified_gmt":"2026-08-25T12:13:06","slug":"combined-mcqs-pyq-chapterwise-right-to-information-rti-act-2005","status":"publish","type":"page","link":"https:\/\/promotionexams.com\/?page_id=15989","title":{"rendered":"Combined (PYQ + Chapterwise) MCQs- Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005"},"content":{"rendered":"\t\t<div data-elementor-type=\"wp-page\" data-elementor-id=\"15989\" class=\"elementor elementor-15989\">\n\t\t\t\t<div class=\"elementor-element elementor-element-b788b41 e-con-full e-flex e-con e-parent\" data-id=\"b788b41\" data-element_type=\"container\" data-e-type=\"container\">\n\t\t\t\t<div class=\"elementor-element elementor-element-888eb1c elementor-widget elementor-widget-html\" data-id=\"888eb1c\" data-element_type=\"widget\" data-e-type=\"widget\" data-widget_type=\"html.default\">\n\t\t\t\t\t<!--\r\n=====================================================================\r\nCSS ADDA \u00b7 PromotionExams.com\r\nPYQ + CHAPTER-WISE AI TEST SERIES   \u2014   two banks on one page\r\n=====================================================================\r\n\r\nHOW THIS DIFFERS FROM THE PLAIN CHAPTER-WISE PAGE\r\n  Two banks sit side by side: previous year questions, and concept MCQs\r\n  written chapter by chapter. Both are drilled from the same screen and\r\n  scored separately, so you always know whether a chapter is weak on the\r\n  real paper or only on practice questions.\r\n\r\n  You do NOT rate chapters by hand here. Exam weight is COUNTED from the\r\n  PYQ bank: a chapter holding 79 of 168 previous year questions is 47% of\r\n  the paper, and the page says so and shows the count behind the figure.\r\n  Add a year of papers and every weight, priority and plan re-computes\r\n  on its own.\r\n\r\nSETTING UP A NEW SUBJECT \u2014 three edits, all at the top of the script\r\n  1. CFG.quizId   unique per page. Progress is stored under this key, so\r\n                  two subjects on the same site never mix. Change it.\r\n     CFG.topic    subject name for the header.\r\n     CFG.sourceUrl  page on your site carrying the full text; shown as a\r\n                  \"Read the source\" card. Blank switches it off.\r\n  2. pyqQuestions      every previous year question you have, each with\r\n                       its year. This bank decides the exam weights.\r\n  3. conceptQuestions  your chapter-wise practice bank.\r\n\r\n  Both use the usual schema:\r\n      { id, chapter, question, options[], correct, explanation }\r\n  PYQ entries take one extra field:  year: 2023\r\n  Chapter strings must be written the same way in both banks \u2014 matching\r\n  is loose (case, spacing and 'Ch \/ Chapter \/ CH-2' are all read alike),\r\n  but the chapter NUMBER has to agree.\r\n\r\nSTEM LAYOUT \u2014 nothing to mark up\r\n  Plain stems, numbered statement stems and List-I \/ List-II stems are\r\n  each laid out automatically, all inside the same sheet.\r\n\r\nRESETS\r\n  \"Reset session\"        clears only this sitting's answers.\r\n  \"Reset my performance\" wipes lifetime mastery, weak areas and flags.\r\n\r\n=====================================================================\r\n-->\r\n\r\n<meta charset=\"utf-8\">\r\n<meta name=\"viewport\" 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0}\r\n@media(max-width:760px){.cdrill .lists{grid-template-columns:1fr;gap:22px}}\r\n.cdrill .lcol h5{margin:0 0 10px;padding:0 0 9px;border-bottom:1px solid #DCD3BE;font-size:12px;font-weight:800;color:var(--ink)}\r\n.cdrill .lcol ul{list-style:none;margin:0;padding:0;display:grid;gap:12px}\r\n.cdrill .lcol li{display:grid;grid-template-columns:28px 1fr;align-items:baseline;\r\n  font-family:var(--serif) !important;font-size:17.5px;font-weight:600;line-height:1.6;color:#161b26}\r\n.cdrill .lcol li b{font-family:var(--serif);font-weight:600;font-size:17.3px;color:#8A6206}\r\n\r\n\/* options as bordered cards, matching the other pages *\/\r\n.cdrill .opts{display:flex;flex-direction:column;gap:9px}\r\n.cdrill .opt{font-family:var(--serif) !important;padding:12px 16px;border:1.5px solid var(--line);\r\n  border-radius:12px;cursor:pointer;display:flex;align-items:flex-start;gap:12px;transition:all .25s;\r\n  background:#fff;text-align:left;width:100%;-webkit-user-select:none;user-select:none}\r\n.cdrill .opt .txt{font-family:var(--serif) !important;font-size:18.5px !important;line-height:1.6;\r\n  color:#161b26;flex:1;min-width:0}\r\n.cdrill .opt:hover:not(:disabled){border-color:#5F86F0;background:#F6F9FF;transform:translateX(4px)}\r\n.cdrill .opt:disabled{cursor:default;opacity:1;transform:none}\r\n.cdrill .key{min-width:34px;font-family:var(--serif) !important;font-weight:600;font-size:17.3px !important;\r\n  color:#161b26;flex-shrink:0;line-height:1.6}\r\n.cdrill .opt.sel{border-color:var(--blue-700);background:#EFF5FF;box-shadow:0 0 0 1px var(--blue-700)}\r\n.cdrill .opt.sel::after{content:\"Selected\";font-family:'Plus Jakarta Sans',sans-serif;font-weight:800;\r\n  font-size:10.5px;letter-spacing:.08em;text-transform:uppercase;color:var(--blue-800);align-self:center;white-space:nowrap}\r\n.cdrill .opt.right{border-color:var(--ok);background:#F0FDF6;box-shadow:0 0 0 1px var(--ok)}\r\n.cdrill .opt.right .key{color:#086945}\r\n.cdrill .opt.wrong{border-color:var(--bad);background:#FEF4F4;box-shadow:0 0 0 1px var(--bad)}\r\n.cdrill .opt.wrong .key{color:#A81F2B}\r\n.cdrill .mark{margin-left:auto;font-family:'Plus Jakarta Sans',sans-serif;font-weight:800;font-size:10.5px;\r\n  letter-spacing:.08em;text-transform:uppercase;white-space:nowrap;align-self:center}\r\n.cdrill .mark.r{color:var(--ok)} .cdrill .mark.w{color:var(--bad)}\r\n@media(prefers-reduced-motion:reduce){.cdrill .opt:hover:not(:disabled){transform:none}}\r\n.cdrill .hint{margin:12px 0 0;font-size:13.5px;font-weight:600;color:#8A6206;background:var(--gold-bg);\r\n  border:1px solid #F2DFAE;border-radius:10px;padding:10px 14px}\r\n.cdrill .actions{display:flex;gap:9px;flex-wrap:wrap;margin-top:18px;align-items:center}\r\n.cdrill .btn{padding:11px 20px;border-radius:11px;font-weight:700;font-size:14px;background:var(--blue-700);color:#fff;transition:.15s}\r\n.cdrill .btn:hover{background:var(--blue-800)}\r\n.cdrill .btn:disabled{opacity:.4;cursor:not-allowed}\r\n.cdrill .btn.ghost{background:var(--paper);border:1.5px solid var(--line);color:var(--ink)}\r\n.cdrill .btn.ghost:hover{border-color:var(--blue-700);color:var(--blue-800);background:var(--blue-50)}\r\n.cdrill .flagbtn{display:flex;align-items:center;gap:7px;padding:11px 18px;border-radius:11px;font-weight:700;font-size:14px;\r\n  border:1.5px solid var(--line);background:var(--paper);color:var(--slate);margin-left:auto;transition:.15s}\r\n.cdrill .flagbtn:hover{border-color:var(--gold);color:#8A6206;background:var(--gold-bg)}\r\n.cdrill .flagbtn[aria-pressed=true]{border-color:var(--gold);background:linear-gradient(180deg,var(--gold-lt),var(--gold));color:#3A2A02}\r\n.cdrill .kbd{display:inline-block;font-family:ui-monospace,Menlo,monospace;font-size:10.5px;padding:3px 6px;background:#fff;\r\n  border:1px solid var(--line);border-bottom-width:2px;border-radius:4px;font-weight:700}\r\n.cdrill .keys{margin-top:14px;padding-top:12px;border-top:1px dashed var(--line);font-size:11.5px;color:var(--slate);\r\n  display:flex;gap:14px;flex-wrap:wrap;font-weight:600}\r\n@media(max-width:700px){.cdrill .keys{display:none}}\r\n\r\n.cdrill .verdict{display:flex;align-items:center;gap:10px;font-weight:800;font-size:14px;margin:20px 0 0}\r\n.cdrill .verdict.r{color:var(--ok)} .cdrill .verdict.w{color:var(--bad)}\r\n.cdrill .expl{margin-top:12px;border:1px solid var(--line);border-left:4px solid var(--gold);border-radius:0 12px 12px 0;\r\n  background:#FCFDFF;padding:16px 18px;font-size:14.2px;line-height:1.68}\r\n.cdrill .expl .body{font-family:'Newsreader',Georgia,serif;font-size:16px;line-height:1.7}\r\n.cdrill .expl b{color:var(--blue-800)}\r\n.cdrill .expl-h{font-size:11px;letter-spacing:.14em;text-transform:uppercase;color:var(--slate);font-weight:800;margin-bottom:8px}\r\n\r\n  font-weight:600;font-size:13px;color:var(--blue-800);transition:.14s}\r\n.cdrill .chip:hover:not(:disabled){background:var(--blue-700);border-color:var(--blue-700);color:#fff}\r\n.cdrill .ai-out{margin-top:12px;background:var(--paper);border:1px solid var(--line);border-radius:10px;padding:14px 16px;\r\n  font-size:14px;line-height:1.65}\r\n.cdrill .ai-out b{color:var(--blue-800)}\r\n.cdrill .offline{margin-top:12px;padding-top:10px;border-top:1px dashed #CBD8F6;font-size:11.5px;color:var(--slate);line-height:1.5}\r\n.cdrill .dots span{display:inline-block;width:6px;height:6px;border-radius:99px;background:var(--blue-700);margin-right:4px;animation:cdb 1.1s infinite}\r\n.cdrill .dots span:nth-child(2){animation-delay:.16s} .cdrill .dots span:nth-child(3){animation-delay:.32s}\r\n@keyframes cdb{0%,80%{opacity:.25;transform:translateY(0)}40%{opacity:1;transform:translateY(-3px)}}\r\n\r\n\/* ---------- rail ---------- *\/\r\n.cdrill .rail{display:grid;gap:16px;align-content:start}\r\n.cdrill .rail .card{padding:16px}\r\n.cdrill .rail h3{margin:0;font-size:11px;letter-spacing:.14em;text-transform:uppercase;color:var(--slate);font-weight:800}\r\n.cdrill .score{display:flex;align-items:baseline;gap:8px;margin:10px 0 4px}\r\n.cdrill .score b{font-size:32px;font-weight:800;letter-spacing:-.03em}\r\n.cdrill .score i{font-style:normal;color:var(--slate);font-size:13px;font-weight:600}\r\n.cdrill .bar{height:7px;border-radius:99px;background:var(--wash);overflow:hidden;margin-top:10px}\r\n.cdrill .bar>i{display:block;height:100%;background:linear-gradient(90deg,var(--ok),#37B37E);border-radius:99px;transition:width .4s}\r\n.cdrill .mini{display:flex;justify-content:space-between;font-size:12.5px;color:var(--slate);margin-top:8px;font-weight:600}\r\n.cdrill .streak{display:flex;gap:4px;margin-top:12px}\r\n.cdrill .streak i{flex:1;height:26px;border-radius:5px;background:var(--wash);border:1px solid var(--line)}\r\n.cdrill .streak i.r{background:var(--ok-bg);border-color:#A9DEC6}\r\n.cdrill .streak i.w{background:var(--bad-bg);border-color:#F3C2C6}\r\n.cdrill .nav-head{display:flex;align-items:center;justify-content:space-between;gap:10px;padding:13px 16px;\r\n  border-bottom:1px solid var(--line);flex-wrap:nowrap}\r\n.cdrill .nav-head b{font-size:11px;letter-spacing:.14em;text-transform:uppercase;color:var(--slate);font-weight:800}\r\n.cdrill .navtoggle{flex:none;white-space:nowrap;min-width:56px;text-align:center;\r\n  font-size:12px;font-weight:800;color:var(--blue-800);padding:5px 12px;border-radius:7px;\r\n  border:1px solid var(--line);background:var(--paper);letter-spacing:.02em;transition:.14s}\r\n.cdrill .nav-head b{min-width:0;overflow:hidden;text-overflow:ellipsis;white-space:nowrap}\r\n.cdrill .navtoggle:hover{border-color:var(--blue-700);background:var(--blue-50)}\r\n.cdrill .navgrid{display:grid;grid-template-columns:repeat(6,minmax(0,1fr));gap:6px;\r\n  padding:14px 16px 12px;max-height:238px;overflow-y:auto;overflow-x:hidden}\r\n.cdrill .navgrid::-webkit-scrollbar{width:6px}\r\n.cdrill .navgrid::-webkit-scrollbar-thumb{background:#CBD5E1;border-radius:99px}\r\n.cdrill .navgrid::-webkit-scrollbar-track{background:transparent}\r\n.cdrill .nq{position:relative;box-sizing:border-box;width:100%;min-width:0;height:34px;padding:0;margin:0;\r\n  border-radius:8px;border:1px solid var(--line);background:var(--paper);\r\n  font-family:'Plus Jakarta Sans',system-ui,sans-serif;font-weight:700;font-size:11.5px;line-height:1;\r\n  color:var(--slate);display:flex;align-items:center;justify-content:center;overflow:visible;\r\n  transition:background .12s,border-color .12s,color .12s;font-variant-numeric:tabular-nums;letter-spacing:-.02em}\r\n.cdrill .nq:hover{border-color:var(--blue-700);color:var(--blue-800);background:var(--blue-50)}\r\n@media(max-width:960px){.cdrill .navgrid{grid-template-columns:repeat(10,minmax(0,1fr))}}\r\n@media(max-width:520px){.cdrill .navgrid{grid-template-columns:repeat(7,minmax(0,1fr))}}\r\n.cdrill .nq.r{background:var(--ok-bg);border-color:#8FD3B6;color:#086945}\r\n.cdrill .nq.w{background:var(--bad-bg);border-color:#F0AEB4;color:#A81F2B}\r\n.cdrill .nq.cur{border-color:var(--blue-700);background:var(--blue-700);color:#fff}\r\n.cdrill .nq .fl{position:absolute;top:-5px;right:-4px;font-size:9.5px;line-height:1;\r\n  filter:drop-shadow(0 0 2px #fff)}\r\n.cdrill .nq.mastered::after{content:\"\";position:absolute;bottom:3px;left:50%;transform:translateX(-50%);\r\n  width:4px;height:4px;border-radius:99px;background:var(--ok)}\r\n.cdrill .legend{display:flex;gap:12px;flex-wrap:wrap;font-size:10.5px;color:var(--slate);font-weight:600;\r\n  padding:10px 16px 14px;border-top:1px solid var(--line);margin-top:4px}\r\n.cdrill .legend i{display:inline-block;width:9px;height:9px;border-radius:3px;margin-right:5px;vertical-align:-1px}\r\n\r\n\/* ---------- performance ---------- *\/\r\n.cdrill .perf{padding:24px 24px 32px;display:grid;gap:34px}\r\n.cdrill .ph{margin:0 0 10px;font-size:11px;letter-spacing:.14em;text-transform:uppercase;color:var(--slate);font-weight:800}\r\n.cdrill .ph .secno{color:var(--gold);font-size:12px;letter-spacing:0}\r\n\r\n\/* ---------- performance blocks ---------- *\/\r\n.cdrill .pblock{border:1px solid var(--line);border-radius:16px;background:var(--paper);overflow:hidden}\r\n.cdrill .pbh{display:flex;align-items:flex-start;gap:16px;padding:20px 24px 18px;\r\n  background:linear-gradient(180deg,#FBFCFF,#F6F9FF);border-bottom:1px solid var(--line)}\r\n.cdrill .pbh .txt{flex:1;min-width:0}\r\n.cdrill .pbh h4{font-size:17px;font-weight:800;letter-spacing:-.015em;color:var(--ink);margin:0 0 7px;\r\n  display:flex;align-items:center;gap:9px}\r\n.cdrill .pbh h4 .dot{width:7px;height:7px;border-radius:99px;background:var(--gold);flex:none}\r\n.cdrill .pbh p{font-size:13px;color:var(--slate);line-height:1.6;margin:0}\r\n.cdrill .pbh .pbtag{flex:none;font-size:10.5px;font-weight:800;letter-spacing:.07em;text-transform:uppercase;\r\n  color:var(--blue-800);background:var(--blue-100);border-radius:99px;padding:6px 13px;white-space:nowrap}\r\n.cdrill .bars{padding:8px 24px 18px}\r\n.cdrill .subhead{display:flex;align-items:baseline;gap:10px;flex-wrap:wrap;padding:18px 24px 2px;\r\n  border-top:1px solid #EEF2F9;margin-top:6px}\r\n.cdrill .subhead:first-of-type{border-top:0;margin-top:0}\r\n.cdrill .subhead h5{font-size:12.5px;font-weight:800;color:var(--ink);letter-spacing:.01em;margin:0}\r\n.cdrill .subhead span{font-size:11.8px;color:var(--slate);font-weight:600}\r\n.cdrill .hero2{display:grid;grid-template-columns:260px 1fr;gap:18px}\r\n@media(max-width:860px){.cdrill .hero2{grid-template-columns:1fr}}\r\n.cdrill .ring-card{background:linear-gradient(150deg,var(--blue-900),var(--blue-800) 70%,var(--blue-700));border-radius:var(--r);\r\n  padding:24px 20px;color:#fff;text-align:center;display:flex;flex-direction:column;align-items:center;justify-content:center}\r\n.cdrill .ring{position:relative;width:150px;height:150px}\r\n.cdrill .ring svg{transform:rotate(-90deg)}\r\n.cdrill .ring .bg{fill:none;stroke:rgba(255,255,255,.14);stroke-width:11}\r\n.cdrill .ring .fg{fill:none;stroke:var(--gold-lt);stroke-width:11;stroke-linecap:round;transition:stroke-dashoffset 1s ease}\r\n.cdrill .ring-txt{position:absolute;inset:0;display:flex;flex-direction:column;align-items:center;justify-content:center}\r\n.cdrill .ring-txt b{font-size:40px;font-weight:800;color:var(--gold-lt);letter-spacing:-.03em;line-height:1}\r\n.cdrill .ring-txt span{font-size:9.5px;letter-spacing:.12em;text-transform:uppercase;color:#BFDBFE;margin-top:5px;font-weight:700}\r\n.cdrill .verdict2{margin-top:14px;font-size:13.4px;color:#DBEAFE;line-height:1.55}\r\n.cdrill .verdict2 b{color:#fff}\r\n.cdrill .coach{border:1px solid var(--line);border-radius:var(--r);padding:18px 20px;background:var(--paper)}\r\n.cdrill .coach h4{font-size:14.5px;font-weight:800;margin-bottom:12px;display:flex;gap:8px;align-items:center}\r\n.cdrill .reco{display:flex;gap:12px;padding:11px 0;border-bottom:1px dashed var(--line);align-items:flex-start}\r\n.cdrill .reco:last-child{border-bottom:0}\r\n.cdrill .reco .ic{width:30px;height:30px;border-radius:8px;display:grid;place-items:center;font-size:13px;flex:none;margin-top:1px}\r\n.cdrill .reco .ic.hot{background:var(--bad-bg);color:var(--bad)}\r\n.cdrill .reco .ic.warm{background:var(--gold-bg);color:#8A6206}\r\n.cdrill .reco .ic.cool{background:var(--blue-100);color:var(--blue-800)}\r\n.cdrill .reco .ic.good{background:var(--ok-bg);color:var(--ok)}\r\n.cdrill .reco p{font-size:13.8px;line-height:1.55}\r\n.cdrill .reco .go{margin-left:auto;flex:none;background:var(--blue-50);color:var(--blue-800);border:1px solid #D4E2FB;\r\n  border-radius:8px;padding:6px 12px;font-size:11.5px;font-weight:800;white-space:nowrap;transition:.15s}\r\n.cdrill .reco .go:hover{background:var(--blue-700);color:#fff}\r\n.cdrill .planner{background:linear-gradient(135deg,#FFFDF6,#FFF8E8);border:1px solid #EADFC2;border-left:4px solid var(--gold);\r\n  border-radius:0 var(--r) var(--r) 0;padding:18px 20px;display:flex;align-items:center;justify-content:space-between;gap:18px;flex-wrap:wrap}\r\n.cdrill .planner h4{font-size:17px;font-weight:800;margin-bottom:5px;letter-spacing:-.01em;\r\n  display:flex;align-items:center;gap:9px}\r\n.cdrill .planner p{font-size:13px;color:var(--slate);line-height:1.55;max-width:62ch}\r\n.cdrill .pbtns{display:flex;gap:10px;flex-wrap:wrap}\r\n.cdrill .pbtn{padding:11px 18px;border:1.5px solid var(--gold);border-radius:11px;background:#fff;color:#8A6206;\r\n  font-weight:800;font-size:13.5px;display:flex;gap:7px;align-items:center;white-space:nowrap;transition:.15s}\r\n.cdrill .pbtn:hover{background:var(--gold-bg)}\r\n.cdrill .pbtn.primary{background:linear-gradient(180deg,var(--gold-lt),var(--gold));color:#3A2A02;border-color:var(--gold)}\r\n.cdrill .pbtn.navy{background:var(--blue-900);border-color:var(--blue-900);color:#fff}\r\n.cdrill .pbtn.navy:hover{background:var(--blue-800);border-color:var(--blue-800)}\r\n.cdrill .kpis{display:grid;grid-template-columns:repeat(auto-fit,minmax(150px,1fr));gap:12px}\r\n.cdrill .kpi{border:1px solid var(--line);border-radius:12px;padding:15px;background:linear-gradient(180deg,#fff,var(--blue-50))}\r\n.cdrill .kpi b{display:block;font-size:26px;font-weight:800;letter-spacing:-.03em}\r\n.cdrill .kpi span{font-size:11.5px;color:var(--slate);font-weight:700;text-transform:uppercase;letter-spacing:.06em}\r\n.cdrill .tblwrap{overflow-x:auto;border:1px solid var(--line);border-radius:12px;background:#fff}\r\n\/* nested two-tier header, PYQ and concept side by side *\/\r\n.cdrill table.nested{min-width:880px}\r\n.cdrill table.nested thead th{background:var(--blue-700);border-bottom:0;padding:11px 10px;\r\n  font-size:10.6px;letter-spacing:.06em;vertical-align:middle}\r\n.cdrill table.nested thead th.grp{background:var(--blue-900);border-left:1px solid rgba(255,255,255,.16);\r\n  border-right:1px solid rgba(255,255,255,.16);font-size:11.4px;letter-spacing:.04em}\r\n.cdrill table.nested thead th.sub2{background:#2F62EA;font-size:10.2px;font-weight:600;padding:8px 10px}\r\n.cdrill table.nested thead th.lft{text-align:left;padding-left:14px}\r\n.cdrill table.nested td{padding:12px 10px;font-size:12.6px}\r\n.cdrill table.nested td.lft{text-align:left;padding-left:14px;font-weight:700;max-width:270px;\r\n  line-height:1.4;background:#FBFCFE;font-size:12.8px}\r\n.cdrill .wt{font-size:15px;font-weight:800;color:var(--blue-900)}\r\n.cdrill .wsub{font-size:10.6px;color:var(--slate);font-weight:700;margin-left:5px}\r\n.cdrill .nil{color:#B6C2D6;font-weight:700}\r\n.cdrill .minibar{height:6px;width:62px;margin:0 auto 4px;border-radius:99px;background:#EEF2F9;overflow:hidden}\r\n.cdrill .minibar>i{display:block;height:100%;border-radius:99px}\r\n.cdrill .miniv{font-size:11.4px;font-weight:800}\r\n.cdrill td.prac{white-space:nowrap}\r\n.cdrill td.prac .mini-go+.mini-go{margin-left:5px}\r\n.cdrill .mini-go.pyq{color:#fff;background:var(--blue-900);border-color:var(--blue-900)}\r\n.cdrill .mini-go.pyq:hover{background:var(--blue-800);border-color:var(--blue-800)}\r\n\/* numbered section headings *\/\r\n.cdrill .pbh h4 .secno{font-size:15px;font-weight:800;color:var(--gold);letter-spacing:0;\r\n  font-variant-numeric:tabular-nums;margin-right:2px}\r\n.cdrill .pbh .sechint{flex:none;font-family:'Newsreader',Georgia,serif;font-style:italic;font-size:12.8px;\r\n  color:var(--slate);white-space:nowrap;align-self:center}\r\n@media(max-width:760px){.cdrill .pbh .sechint{display:none}}\r\n.cdrill table.perf-t{border-collapse:collapse;width:100%;font-size:13px;min-width:760px}\r\n.cdrill table.perf-t th,.cdrill table.perf-t td{padding:10px;border-bottom:1px solid #EEF2F9;text-align:center;vertical-align:middle}\r\n.cdrill table.perf-t thead th{background:var(--blue-900);color:#fff;font-weight:700;font-size:11px;letter-spacing:.05em;text-transform:uppercase}\r\n.cdrill table.perf-t th:first-child,.cdrill table.perf-t td:first-child{text-align:left;padding-left:14px}\r\n.cdrill table.perf-t td:first-child{font-weight:700;max-width:280px;line-height:1.35;background:#FBFCFE}\r\n.cdrill .sub{display:block;font-size:10.6px;color:var(--slate);font-weight:600;margin-top:3px}\r\n.cdrill .tbar{height:6px;border-radius:99px;background:var(--wash);overflow:hidden;min-width:80px}\r\n.cdrill .tbar>i{display:block;height:100%;border-radius:99px}\r\n.cdrill .tag{display:inline-block;font-size:10.4px;font-weight:800;padding:3px 9px;border-radius:99px;text-transform:uppercase;letter-spacing:.04em}\r\n.cdrill .tag.hot{background:var(--bad-bg);color:var(--bad)}\r\n.cdrill .tag.warm{background:var(--gold-bg);color:#8A6206}\r\n.cdrill .tag.ok{background:var(--blue-100);color:var(--blue-800)}\r\n.cdrill .tag.good{background:var(--ok-bg);color:var(--ok)}\r\n.cdrill .tag.na{background:#F1F5F9;color:var(--slate)}\r\n.cdrill .mini-go{border:1px solid var(--line);border-radius:8px;padding:5px 10px;font-size:11.2px;font-weight:800;color:var(--blue-800);transition:.15s}\r\n.cdrill .mini-go:hover{background:var(--blue-700);color:#fff;border-color:var(--blue-700)}\r\n.cdrill .lrow{display:grid;grid-template-columns:minmax(150px,1.2fr) 2.4fr 96px;gap:18px;align-items:center;\r\n  padding:12px 10px;border-radius:9px;transition:background .13s;margin:0 -10px}\r\n.cdrill .lrow:hover{background:#FAFCFF}\r\n.cdrill .lrow+.lrow{border-top:1px solid #F1F5FB}\r\n@media(max-width:620px){.cdrill .lrow{grid-template-columns:1fr auto;row-gap:6px}.cdrill .lrow .ltrack{grid-column:1\/-1}}\r\n.cdrill .lname{font-size:13.4px;font-weight:700;line-height:1.35}\r\n.cdrill .lsub{display:block;font-size:10.8px;font-weight:600;color:var(--slate);margin-top:4px}\r\n.cdrill .ltrack{background:#EEF2F9;border-radius:99px;height:11px;overflow:hidden;\r\n  box-shadow:inset 0 1px 2px rgba(16,32,74,.05)}\r\n.cdrill .lfill{height:100%;border-radius:99px;transition:width .8s cubic-bezier(.22,.9,.28,1)}\r\n.cdrill .lval{text-align:right;font-size:16px;font-weight:800;letter-spacing:-.02em}\r\n.cdrill .lval small{display:block;font-size:10px;font-weight:700;color:var(--slate);text-transform:uppercase;letter-spacing:.05em;margin-top:2px}\r\n.cdrill .split{display:grid;grid-template-columns:1fr 1fr;gap:16px}\r\n@media(max-width:860px){.cdrill .split{grid-template-columns:1fr}}\r\n.cdrill .panel{border:1px solid var(--line);border-radius:12px;padding:16px 18px}\r\n.cdrill .rev{display:flex;align-items:center;gap:10px;width:100%;text-align:left;background:#FAFBFE;border-left:3px solid var(--gold);\r\n  border-radius:8px;padding:10px 12px;margin-bottom:8px;font-size:12.6px;transition:.15s}\r\n.cdrill .rev:hover{background:var(--gold-bg);transform:translateX(3px)}\r\n.cdrill .rev .n{font-weight:800;color:#8A6206;flex:none}\r\n.cdrill .rev .t{flex:1;color:var(--slate);white-space:nowrap;overflow:hidden;text-overflow:ellipsis}\r\n.cdrill .rev .d{background:var(--gold);color:#3A2A02;padding:2px 8px;border-radius:99px;font-size:10.2px;font-weight:800;white-space:nowrap}\r\n.cdrill .danger{border:1px dashed #F3C2C6;border-radius:12px;background:#FFFAFA;padding:16px 18px;\r\n  display:flex;align-items:center;justify-content:space-between;gap:14px;flex-wrap:wrap}\r\n.cdrill .danger p{font-size:13px;color:var(--slate);flex:1;min-width:220px;line-height:1.6}\r\n.cdrill .danger b{color:var(--bad)}\r\n.cdrill .dbtn{padding:11px 20px;background:#fff;border:1.5px solid #F3C2C6;border-radius:11px;color:var(--bad);\r\n  font-size:13px;font-weight:800;white-space:nowrap;transition:.15s}\r\n.cdrill .dbtn:hover{background:var(--bad);border-color:var(--bad);color:#fff}\r\n\/* ---------- exam analytics ---------- *\/\r\n.cdrill .rankrow{display:grid;grid-template-columns:26px minmax(120px,1.25fr) 2.2fr 42px 46px;gap:14px;\r\n  align-items:center;padding:9px 10px;margin:0 -10px;border-radius:9px;transition:background .13s}\r\n.cdrill .rankrow:hover{background:#FAFCFF}\r\n.cdrill .rankrow+.rankrow{border-top:1px dashed #EEF2F9}\r\n.cdrill .rankrow .rk{font-size:11.5px;font-weight:800;color:#B6C2D6;text-align:right;font-variant-numeric:tabular-nums}\r\n.cdrill .rankrow .rname{font-size:12.4px;font-weight:600;color:var(--blue-800);line-height:1.35;\r\n  overflow:hidden;text-overflow:ellipsis;white-space:nowrap}\r\n.cdrill .rankrow .rname.gold{color:#8A6206;font-weight:800}\r\n.cdrill .rankrow .rtrack{height:15px;border-radius:5px;background:#EEF2F9;overflow:hidden}\r\n.cdrill .rankrow .rtrack>i{display:block;height:100%;border-radius:5px;transition:width .8s cubic-bezier(.22,.9,.28,1)}\r\n.cdrill .rankrow .rv{font-size:15px;font-weight:800;text-align:right;font-variant-numeric:tabular-nums;letter-spacing:-.02em}\r\n.cdrill .rankrow .rp{font-size:11px;font-weight:700;color:var(--slate);text-align:right;font-variant-numeric:tabular-nums}\r\n@media(max-width:700px){.cdrill .rankrow{grid-template-columns:22px minmax(0,1fr) 34px 42px}\r\n  .cdrill .rankrow .rtrack{grid-column:1\/-1;order:9}}\r\n\r\n.cdrill table.hm{min-width:760px;font-size:12px}\r\n.cdrill table.hm thead th{background:var(--blue-700);padding:9px 6px;font-size:10.4px}\r\n.cdrill table.hm thead th.lft{text-align:left;padding-left:14px;min-width:230px}\r\n.cdrill table.hm thead th.tot{background:var(--blue-900)}\r\n.cdrill table.hm td{padding:7px 6px;font-size:11.8px;border-bottom:1px solid #F1F5FB;font-variant-numeric:tabular-nums}\r\n.cdrill table.hm td.lft{text-align:left;padding-left:14px;font-weight:600;font-size:11.8px;line-height:1.35;\r\n  background:#FBFCFE;max-width:250px}\r\n.cdrill table.hm td.tot{font-weight:800;background:#F4F7FD;color:var(--blue-900)}\r\n.cdrill table.hm tfoot td{background:var(--blue-700);color:#fff;font-weight:800;font-size:11.6px;padding:9px 6px;border:0}\r\n.cdrill table.hm tfoot td.lft{background:var(--blue-700);color:#fff;text-align:left;padding-left:14px}\r\n.cdrill .hmlegend{display:flex;align-items:center;gap:5px;padding:12px 24px 16px;font-size:10.8px;\r\n  color:var(--slate);font-weight:700}\r\n.cdrill .hmlegend i{width:26px;height:11px;border-radius:3px;display:inline-block;border:1px solid rgba(0,0,0,.05)}\r\n.cdrill .hmlegend span:last-child{margin-left:3px}\r\n\r\n.cdrill .cyc{display:flex;align-items:flex-end;gap:12px;padding:26px 24px 18px;overflow-x:auto}\r\n.cdrill .cycbar{display:flex;flex-direction:column;align-items:center;gap:7px;flex:1;min-width:52px}\r\n.cdrill .cycbar .cn{font-size:12.5px;font-weight:800;color:var(--blue-800);font-variant-numeric:tabular-nums}\r\n.cdrill .cycbar .cbar{width:100%;max-width:46px;border-radius:6px 6px 0 0;\r\n  background:linear-gradient(180deg,var(--gold-lt),var(--gold));transition:height .8s cubic-bezier(.22,.9,.28,1)}\r\n.cdrill .cycbar .cy{font-size:10.4px;font-weight:700;color:var(--slate);white-space:nowrap}\r\n\r\n.cdrill .empty{text-align:center;padding:40px 20px;color:var(--slate)}\r\n.cdrill .empty b{display:block;color:var(--ink);font-size:16px;margin-bottom:6px}\r\n.cdrill .toast{position:fixed;bottom:26px;left:50%;transform:translateX(-50%);background:var(--blue-900);color:#fff;\r\n  padding:12px 22px;border-radius:11px;font-weight:700;font-size:13.5px;z-index:9999;display:none;box-shadow:var(--shadow)}\r\n.cdrill .toast.show{display:block}\r\n.cdrill .toast.ok{background:var(--ok)}\r\n\r\n\/* ---------- content protection ---------- *\/\r\n.cdrill{-webkit-user-select:none;-moz-user-select:none;-ms-user-select:none;user-select:none;\r\n  -webkit-touch-callout:none;-webkit-tap-highlight-color:transparent}\r\n\/* inputs must stay usable, or the search box cannot be edited *\/\r\n.cdrill input,.cdrill textarea,.cdrill select{-webkit-user-select:text;user-select:text}\r\n.cdrill.allow-select{-webkit-user-select:text;user-select:text}\r\n.cdrill img,.cdrill svg{-webkit-user-drag:none;user-drag:none;pointer-events:none}\r\n.cdrill .navtoggle,.cdrill .tab,.cdrill button{-webkit-user-drag:none}\r\n\/* screen obscured while the window is not in front *\/\r\n.cdrill.veiled .qbody,.cdrill.veiled .perf,.cdrill.veiled .chaplist,.cdrill.veiled .yearlist{\r\n  filter:blur(9px);transition:filter .12s}\r\n.cdrill .veilmsg{position:absolute;inset:0;display:none;align-items:center;justify-content:center;\r\n  background:rgba(244,247,253,.72);z-index:40;font-weight:800;font-size:13.5px;color:var(--blue-900);\r\n  text-align:center;padding:20px;border-radius:var(--r)}\r\n.cdrill.veiled .veilmsg{display:flex}\r\n.cdrill{position:relative}\r\n\/* what a print or PDF export gets instead of the paper *\/\r\n.cdrill-printblock{display:none}\r\n@media print{\r\n  .cdrill{display:none!important}\r\n  .cdrill-printblock{display:block!important;padding:60px 40px;text-align:center;\r\n    font-family:'Plus Jakarta Sans',system-ui,sans-serif;color:#12246E}\r\n  .cdrill-printblock h2{font-size:20px;font-weight:800;margin:0 0 10px}\r\n  .cdrill-printblock p{font-size:13.5px;color:#5B6B85;line-height:1.7;max-width:60ch;margin:0 auto}\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* ---------- mobile ---------- *\/\r\n@media(max-width:640px){\r\n  .cdrill .wrap{padding:0 14px}\r\n\r\n  \/* hero: tighter, and the stat tiles share the row evenly *\/\r\n  .cdrill .hero{padding-top:18px}\r\n  .cdrill .hero h1{font-size:19px}\r\n  .cdrill .hero p{font-size:12.6px;margin-bottom:14px}\r\n  .cdrill .hstats{gap:7px}\r\n  .cdrill .hstat{flex:1 1 0;min-width:0;padding:8px 10px;text-align:center}\r\n  .cdrill .hstat b{font-size:17px}\r\n  .cdrill .hstat span{font-size:8.8px;letter-spacing:.06em}\r\n\r\n  \/* tabs scroll sideways instead of wrapping onto two lines *\/\r\n  .cdrill .tabs{margin-top:16px;gap:5px;flex-wrap:nowrap;overflow-x:auto;scrollbar-width:none;\r\n    -webkit-overflow-scrolling:touch}\r\n  .cdrill .tabs::-webkit-scrollbar{display:none}\r\n  .cdrill .tab{flex:none;padding:10px 15px;font-size:12.6px;gap:6px;white-space:nowrap}\r\n  .cdrill .tab[aria-selected=true]{padding-bottom:13px}\r\n\r\n  \/* THE FIX: pills were shrinking to fit instead of scrolling, which cut\r\n     every label in half. flex:none makes the row scroll as intended. *\/\r\n  .cdrill .filters .wrap{padding-top:11px;padding-bottom:11px;gap:8px;\r\n    -webkit-overflow-scrolling:touch}\r\n  .cdrill .pill-f{flex:none;padding:8px 14px;font-size:12.6px;gap:6px}\r\n  .cdrill .pill-f .n{font-size:10.5px;padding:2px 7px}\r\n\r\n  \/* toolbar stacks *\/\r\n  .cdrill .grid{padding:14px 0 40px;gap:14px}\r\n  .cdrill .toolbar{gap:8px;padding-bottom:12px}\r\n  .cdrill .search{flex:1 1 100%;min-width:0}\r\n  .cdrill .tgl{flex:1;justify-content:center;padding:9px 12px;font-size:12.6px}\r\n\r\n  \/* question card *\/\r\n  .cdrill .qhead{padding:11px 14px;gap:8px}\r\n  .cdrill .qcount{font-size:15px;width:100%}\r\n  .cdrill .qmeta{gap:6px}\r\n  .cdrill .badge-ch{max-width:100%;font-size:11px;padding:5px 11px}\r\n  .cdrill .badge-m,.cdrill .badge-src,.cdrill .qtag{font-size:10.6px;padding:4px 10px}\r\n  .cdrill .qbody{padding:16px 14px 18px}\r\n  .cdrill .qsheet{padding:15px 15px 16px;border-radius:0 9px 9px 0}\r\n  .cdrill .stem,.cdrill .qsheet .lead,.cdrill .qsheet .intro,.cdrill .qsheet .close,\r\n  .cdrill .stmts li,.cdrill .opt .txt{font-size:16.6px !important;line-height:1.6}\r\n  .cdrill .lists{grid-template-columns:1fr;gap:18px}\r\n  .cdrill .opt{padding:11px 13px;gap:9px}\r\n  .cdrill .key{min-width:28px;font-size:16px !important}\r\n  .cdrill .opt.sel::after{display:none}\r\n  .cdrill .actions{gap:7px}\r\n  .cdrill .btn{flex:1;padding:11px 14px;font-size:13.4px;text-align:center}\r\n  .cdrill .flagbtn{margin-left:0;flex:1 1 100%;justify-content:center;padding:11px 14px}\r\n  .cdrill .expl{padding:14px 15px}\r\n  .cdrill .expl .body{font-size:15.4px}\r\n\r\n  \/* chapter list and navigator *\/\r\n  .cdrill .chaphead{padding:10px 14px;gap:8px}\r\n  .cdrill .chaphead .meta{margin-left:0;flex:1 1 100%;white-space:normal}\r\n  .cdrill .chapchip{padding:10px 14px;gap:7px}\r\n  .cdrill .chapchip .cn{font-size:12.2px}\r\n  .cdrill .yearlist{padding:14px;gap:8px}\r\n  .cdrill .ychip{flex:1 1 calc(33.333% - 6px);min-width:0;padding:10px 8px}\r\n  .cdrill .navgrid{grid-template-columns:repeat(8,minmax(0,1fr));max-height:none}\r\n  .cdrill .rail .card{padding:14px}\r\n\r\n  \/* performance and analytics *\/\r\n  .cdrill .perf{padding:16px 14px 24px;gap:22px}\r\n  .cdrill .pbh{padding:16px 15px 14px;gap:10px}\r\n  .cdrill .pbh h4{font-size:15.4px}\r\n  .cdrill .pbh p{font-size:12.4px}\r\n  .cdrill .bars{padding:6px 15px 14px}\r\n  .cdrill .hero2{gap:14px}\r\n  .cdrill .ring-card{padding:20px 16px}\r\n  .cdrill .coach{padding:15px}\r\n  .cdrill .reco{gap:10px}\r\n  .cdrill .reco p{font-size:13px}\r\n  .cdrill .reco .go{margin-left:0;flex:1 1 100%;margin-top:6px}\r\n  .cdrill .planner{padding:15px;gap:12px}\r\n  .cdrill .pbtns{width:100%;gap:8px}\r\n  .cdrill .pbtn{flex:1 1 100%;justify-content:center;padding:12px 14px}\r\n  .cdrill .kpis{grid-template-columns:repeat(2,minmax(0,1fr));gap:9px}\r\n  .cdrill .kpi{padding:12px}\r\n  .cdrill .kpi b{font-size:22px}\r\n  .cdrill .kpi span{font-size:10.4px}\r\n  .cdrill .panel{padding:14px}\r\n  .cdrill .danger{padding:14px}\r\n  .cdrill .dbtn{width:100%}\r\n  .cdrill .cyc{padding:20px 14px 14px;gap:8px}\r\n  .cdrill .cycbar{min-width:42px}\r\n  .cdrill .toast{left:14px;right:14px;transform:none;text-align:center;bottom:16px}\r\n}\r\n@media(max-width:380px){\r\n  .cdrill .hstat b{font-size:15.5px}\r\n  .cdrill .navgrid{grid-template-columns:repeat(6,minmax(0,1fr))}\r\n  .cdrill .ychip{flex:1 1 calc(50% - 5px)}\r\n  .cdrill .kpis{grid-template-columns:1fr}\r\n}\r\n<\/style>\r\n\r\n<div class=\"cdrill\" id=\"cdRoot\">\r\n\r\n  <header class=\"hero\">\r\n    <div class=\"wrap\">\r\n      <div class=\"eyebrow\" id=\"cdEyebrow\">CSS ADDA \u00b7 PromotionExams.com<\/div>\r\n      <h1 id=\"cdTopic\">Chapter-wise Test Series<\/h1>\r\n      <p id=\"cdSub\">Chapter drills with a planner that builds your next sitting for you.<\/p>\r\n      <div class=\"hstats\">\r\n        <div class=\"hstat\"><b class=\"tnum\" id=\"hQ\">0<\/b><span>Questions<\/span><\/div>\r\n        <div class=\"hstat\"><b class=\"tnum\" id=\"hCh\">0<\/b><span>Chapters<\/span><\/div>\r\n        <div class=\"hstat\"><b class=\"tnum\" id=\"hMastered\">0%<\/b><span>Mastered<\/span><\/div>\r\n        <div class=\"hstat\"><b class=\"tnum\" id=\"hReady\">\u2014<\/b><span>Readiness<\/span><\/div>\r\n      <\/div>\r\n      <div class=\"tabs\" role=\"tablist\">\r\n        <button class=\"tab\" role=\"tab\" aria-selected=\"true\" data-tab=\"quiz\">\u270f\ufe0f Practice<\/button>\r\n        <button class=\"tab\" role=\"tab\" aria-selected=\"false\" data-tab=\"perf\">\ud83d\udcca My Performance <span class=\"pill hide\" id=\"perfPill\">!<\/span><\/button>\r\n        <button class=\"tab hide\" role=\"tab\" aria-selected=\"false\" data-tab=\"exam\" id=\"tabExam\">\ud83d\udcdc Exam Analytics<\/button>\r\n      <\/div>\r\n    <\/div>\r\n  <\/header>\r\n  <div class=\"goldrule\"><\/div>\r\n\r\n  <div class=\"filters\" id=\"cdFilters\">\r\n    <div class=\"wrap\" role=\"group\" aria-label=\"Filter questions\">\r\n      <button class=\"pill-f\" data-f=\"all\" aria-pressed=\"true\">\ud83d\udccb All questions<span class=\"n tnum\" id=\"fAll\">0<\/span><\/button>\r\n      <button class=\"pill-f navy\" data-f=\"pyq\">\ud83d\udcdc PYQs only<span class=\"n tnum\" id=\"fPyq\">0<\/span><\/button>\r\n      <button class=\"pill-f\" data-f=\"concept\">\ud83e\udde0 Concept MCQs<span class=\"n tnum\" id=\"fCon\">0<\/span><\/button>\r\n      <button class=\"pill-f\" data-f=\"chapter\">\ud83d\udcda By chapter<\/button>\r\n      <button class=\"pill-f gold hide\" data-f=\"session\" id=\"pillSession\">\ud83e\udde9 <span id=\"sessLabel\">My session<\/span><span class=\"n tnum\" id=\"fSess\">0<\/span><\/button>\r\n      <button class=\"pill-f warn\" data-f=\"weak\">\u26a0\ufe0f Weak areas<span class=\"n tnum\" id=\"fWeak\">0<\/span><\/button>\r\n      <button class=\"pill-f\" data-f=\"flagged\">\ud83d\udd16 Flagged<span class=\"n tnum\" id=\"fFlag\">0<\/span><\/button>\r\n    <\/div>\r\n  <\/div>\r\n\r\n  <div class=\"wrap\">\r\n    <!-- ============ PRACTICE ============ -->\r\n    <div class=\"grid\" id=\"viewQuiz\">\r\n      <div>\r\n        <div class=\"toolbar\">\r\n          <div class=\"search\">\r\n            <svg viewBox=\"0 0 24 24\" fill=\"none\" stroke=\"currentColor\" stroke-width=\"2.2\"><circle cx=\"11\" cy=\"11\" r=\"7\"\/><path d=\"M20 20l-3.5-3.5\"\/><\/svg>\r\n            <input id=\"cdSearch\" placeholder=\"Search a phrase or a rule number\" aria-label=\"Search questions\">\r\n          <\/div>\r\n          <button class=\"tgl\" id=\"tglUn\" aria-pressed=\"false\">\u25fb Unattempted only<\/button>\r\n          <button class=\"tgl\" id=\"tglReset\">\u21ba Reset session<\/button>\r\n        <\/div>\r\n\r\n        <section class=\"card chapcard hide\" id=\"chapPanel\">\r\n          <div class=\"chaphead\">\r\n            <b>\ud83d\udcda Filter by chapter<\/b><i id=\"chapHint\"><\/i>\r\n            <span class=\"bankseg\" role=\"group\" aria-label=\"Which bank\">\r\n              <button data-bank=\"all\" aria-pressed=\"true\">Both<\/button>\r\n              <button data-bank=\"pyq\" aria-pressed=\"false\">PYQs<\/button>\r\n              <button data-bank=\"concept\" aria-pressed=\"false\">Concept<\/button>\r\n            <\/span>\r\n            <span class=\"meta\" id=\"ctxMeta\"><\/span>\r\n          <\/div>\r\n          <div class=\"chaplist\" id=\"chapList\" role=\"group\" aria-label=\"Choose chapter\"><\/div>\r\n        <\/section>\r\n\r\n        <section class=\"card hide\" id=\"emptyCard\">\r\n          <div class=\"qhead\"><span class=\"qcount\">Nothing to show<\/span><\/div>\r\n          <div class=\"empty\" id=\"emptyBody\"><\/div>\r\n        <\/section>\r\n\r\n        <section class=\"card\" id=\"qCard\">\r\n          <div class=\"qhead\">\r\n            <span class=\"qcount\" id=\"qCount\">Question 1 of 1<\/span>\r\n            <span class=\"qmeta\">\r\n              <span class=\"badge-src\" id=\"qSrc\">Concept<\/span>\r\n              <span class=\"badge-m\" id=\"qMastery\">Not seen yet<\/span>\r\n              <span class=\"badge-ch\"><span id=\"qChap\">Chapter<\/span><\/span>\r\n              <span id=\"qTags\" class=\"qtags\"><\/span>\r\n            <\/span>\r\n          <\/div>\r\n          <div class=\"qbody\">\r\n            <p class=\"stem\" id=\"qStem\"><\/p>\r\n            <div class=\"opts\" id=\"qOpts\"><\/div>\r\n            <div class=\"actions\">\r\n              <button class=\"btn\" id=\"btnCheck\">Check answer<\/button>\r\n              <button class=\"btn ghost\" id=\"btnPrev\">\u2190 Previous<\/button>\r\n              <button class=\"btn ghost\" id=\"btnNext\">Next \u2192<\/button>\r\n              <button class=\"flagbtn\" id=\"btnFlag\" aria-pressed=\"false\"><span id=\"flagIco\">\ud83c\udff3\ufe0f<\/span><span id=\"flagTxt\">Flag for review<\/span><\/button>\r\n            <\/div>\r\n            <p class=\"hint hide\" id=\"pickHint\">Choose an option above, then check your answer.<\/p>\r\n\r\n            <div id=\"result\" class=\"hide\">\r\n              <div class=\"verdict\" id=\"verdict\"><\/div>\r\n              <div class=\"expl\">\r\n                <div class=\"expl-h\">Source &amp; reasoning<\/div>\r\n                <div id=\"explBody\" class=\"body\"><\/div>\r\n              <\/div>\r\n            <\/div>\r\n          <\/div>\r\n        <\/section>\r\n      <\/div>\r\n\r\n      <aside class=\"rail\">\r\n        <section class=\"card\" id=\"navCard\" style=\"padding:0\">\r\n          <div class=\"nav-head\"><b id=\"navTitle\">Navigator<\/b><button class=\"navtoggle\" id=\"navToggle\">Hide<\/button><\/div>\r\n          <div class=\"navgrid\" id=\"navGrid\"><\/div>\r\n          <div class=\"legend\">\r\n            <span><i style=\"background:var(--ok-bg);border:1.5px solid #8FD3B6\"><\/i>Correct<\/span>\r\n            <span><i style=\"background:var(--bad-bg);border:1.5px solid #F0AEB4\"><\/i>Wrong<\/span>\r\n            <span><i style=\"background:var(--ok)\"><\/i>Mastered<\/span>\r\n          <\/div>\r\n        <\/section>\r\n        <div class=\"card\">\r\n          <h3>This session<\/h3>\r\n          <div class=\"score\"><b id=\"sPct\">\u2014<\/b><i id=\"sFrac\">0 of 0 correct<\/i><\/div>\r\n          <div class=\"bar\"><i id=\"sBar\" style=\"width:0\"><\/i><\/div>\r\n          <div class=\"mini\"><span id=\"sSeen\">0 attempted<\/span><span id=\"sLeft\">0 left here<\/span><\/div>\r\n          <div class=\"streak\" id=\"streak\"><\/div>\r\n        <\/div>\r\n        <div class=\"card\">\r\n          <h3 id=\"wHead\">Share on screen<\/h3>\r\n          <div class=\"score\"><b id=\"wPct\" style=\"color:#8A6206\">\u2014<\/b><i id=\"wUnit\">of this bank<\/i><\/div>\r\n          <p style=\"margin:8px 0 0;font-size:12.8px;color:var(--slate);line-height:1.55\" id=\"wNote\"><\/p>\r\n        <\/div>\r\n        <div class=\"card hide\" id=\"srcCard\">\r\n          <h3>Source text<\/h3>\r\n          <p style=\"margin:9px 0 12px;font-size:12.8px;color:var(--slate);line-height:1.55\">Every explanation here is drawn from the full text of the subject. Open it when a citation needs checking.<\/p>\r\n          <a class=\"btn\" id=\"srcLink\" href=\"#\" target=\"_blank\" rel=\"noopener\" style=\"display:block;text-align:center;text-decoration:none\">\ud83d\udcd6 Read the source<\/a>\r\n        <\/div>\r\n      <\/aside>\r\n    <\/div>\r\n\r\n    <!-- ============ EXAM ANALYTICS ============ -->\r\n    <div class=\"hide\" id=\"viewExam\">\r\n      <section class=\"card\" style=\"margin:20px 0 60px\">\r\n        <div class=\"qhead\"><span class=\"qcount\">Exam Analytics<\/span><span class=\"badge-w\" id=\"examCount\">0 PYQs<\/span><\/div>\r\n        <div class=\"perf\" id=\"examBody\"><\/div>\r\n      <\/section>\r\n    <\/div>\r\n\r\n    <!-- ============ PERFORMANCE ============ -->\r\n    <div class=\"hide\" id=\"viewPerf\">\r\n      <section class=\"card\" style=\"margin:20px 0 60px\">\r\n        <div class=\"qhead\"><span class=\"qcount\">My Performance<\/span><span class=\"badge-w\" id=\"perfCount\">0 attempted<\/span><\/div>\r\n        <div class=\"perf\" id=\"perfBody\"><\/div>\r\n      <\/section>\r\n    <\/div>\r\n  <\/div>\r\n\r\n  <div class=\"veilmsg\" id=\"veilMsg\">Paused \u2014 bring this window back to the front to continue<\/div>\r\n  <div class=\"toast\" id=\"toast\"><\/div>\r\n<\/div>\r\n\r\n<div class=\"cdrill-printblock\">\r\n  <h2>This test series is not available in print<\/h2>\r\n  <p>The questions, explanations and your progress are licensed for use on\r\n     PromotionExams.com and cannot be printed or saved as a PDF. Please\r\n     work through them on screen.<\/p>\r\n<\/div>\r\n\r\n<script>\r\n(function(){\r\n\"use strict\";\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   1. CONFIGURATION  \u2190 EDIT PER SUBJECT\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nconst CFG = {\r\n  quizId : 'subject-pyq-chapterwise',  \/\/ unique per page \u2014 this is the progress key\r\n  topic  : 'Right to Information Act, 2006 - PYQs + Chapterwise',             \/\/ e.g. 'Right to Information Act, 2005'\r\n  eyebrow: '',                         \/\/ e.g. 'UPSC SO \/ Steno LDCE \u00b7 Paper II'\r\n  sub    : 'Previous year questions and chapter drills, weighted by what the paper actually asks.',\r\n\r\n  \/* --- SOURCE PAGE --------------------------------------------------- *\/\r\n  sourceUrl   : '',                 \/\/ e.g. 'https:\/\/promotionexams.com\/your-source-page\/'\r\n  sourceLabel : 'full source text',\r\n\r\n  masteryThreshold : 3,     \/\/ clean correct answers before a question counts as mastered\r\n  weakThreshold    : 1,     \/\/ wrong attempts before a question is flagged weak\r\n\r\n  priorAccuracy : 0.30,     \/\/ expected-score model: shrink raw accuracy toward this\r\n  priorStrength : 6,\r\n  retention     : { baseDays:3, growth:2.5, riskBelow:0.70 },\r\n\r\n  highYield   : 15,         \/\/ a chapter with this many PYQs is called high-yield\r\n\r\n  sessionSize : 25,         \/\/ Focused set\r\n  mockSize    : 50,         \/\/ Mock paper\r\n  pyqSize     : 30          \/\/ PYQ paper\r\n};\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   2. THE TWO BANKS  \u2190 PASTE YOUR QUESTIONS HERE\r\n   Same schema in both:\r\n      { id, chapter, question, options[], correct, explanation }\r\n   PYQ entries take one extra field:  year: 2023\r\n   Exam weight is COUNTED from pyqQuestions \u2014 you do not set it by hand.\r\n   The samples below are only so the page renders. Delete them.\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nconst pyqQuestions = [\r\n{\r\n    id: 1,\r\n    year: '2009-11',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Under the provisions of the Right to Information Act 2005, the obligation of a public authority does not include\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"supply of information immediately on receiving application.\",\r\n      \"publish the procedure to be followed in the decision making process.\",\r\n      \"publish a directory of its officers and employees.\",\r\n      \"publish the particulars of recipients of concessions and permits.\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 7(1) \u2013 30 Days, Not Immediate Supply<\/b><br>Section 7(1) requires information to be supplied 'as expeditiously as possible, and in any case within thirty days' of receipt of the request \u2014 there is no obligation of 'immediate' supply upon receiving the application. By contrast, publishing the decision-making procedure (Section 4(1)(b)(iii)), a directory of officers\/employees (Section 4(1)(b)(ix)), and particulars of recipients of concessions, permits, or authorisations (Section 4(1)(b)(xii)) are all genuine, express obligations.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2,\r\n    year: '2009-11',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"'A' was arrested by the police on the ground of suspicion that he had committed theft on a particular day. 'A' claimed that he was not at the relevant place as he was hospitalized in a government hospital for a serious ailment in a different town at the time of alleged theft. 'A' sought information under the RTI Act from the concerned hospital which did not supply the information for ten days and the applicant had to remain in judicial custody for not being able to satisfy the court about his hospitalization. The action of the Public Information Officer of the hospital will result in which of the following consequence\/consequences?\\n1. The Officer shall be deemed to have refused information.\\n2. The Officer is not guilty as it had supplied information after ten days.\\n3. The Officer is liable to be punished with fine for denial of information to the applicant within time.\\n\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 3\",\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"3 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Sections 7(1) proviso & 20(1) \u2013 Life-and-Liberty Information Within 48 Hours<\/b><br>Since 'A's' liberty was directly at stake (he was seeking to establish an alibi to avoid judicial custody), the proviso to Section 7(1) required the hospital's PIO to supply the information within 48 hours of receipt of the request. Supplying it only after ten days amounts to a failure to meet this specified time limit, so under Section 7(2) it is deemed that the request has been refused (Statement 1) \u2705, and the PIO is liable to a penalty under Section 20(1) for this default without reasonable cause (Statement 3) \u2705. Statement 2, claiming no fault since information was eventually supplied, ignores this life-and-liberty timeline and is incorrect.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3,\r\n    year: '2009-11',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Information under the Right to Information Act, 2005 can be sought by every\\n1. Person.\\n2. Citizen.\\n3. Registered society.\\n4. Company.\\n\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4\",\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 3 \u2013 Right Confined to Citizens<\/b><br>Section 3 confers the right to information on 'all citizens' of India specifically \u2014 not on 'any person' generally, nor directly on juristic entities such as registered societies or companies (which may act only through an authorised individual citizen). Hence, of the four options, only 'Citizen' correctly captures who holds this statutory right.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4,\r\n    year: '2009-11',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Which of the following statements with regard to Right to Information Act, 2005 is\/are correct?\\n1. A public authority, which does not possess information, is under an obligation to transfer the application to the concerned public authority within five days of receipt of the application.\\n2. An applicant seeking information must disclose the reasons for which he wants the information.\\n3. A sensorily disabled person has a right to be assisted by the Public Information Officer while seeking access to the record.\\n\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Sections 6(3) & 7(4)<\/b><br>Section 6(3) requires transfer of the application 'as soon as practicable but not later than five days' from receipt (Statement 1) \u2705. Section 7(4) provides that where access to a record is required to be given to a sensorily disabled person, the PIO shall provide such assistance as may be appropriate for inspecting the records or providing extracts, including through the use of appropriate technology (Statement 3) \u2705. Section 6(2), however, explicitly states that an applicant need NOT disclose the reasons for seeking information, making Statement 2 incorrect. Hence, Statements 1 and 3 are correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5,\r\n    year: '2009-11',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"The Right to Information Act, 2005 does not prescribe which one of the following requirements?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Recording and communication of reasons to the applicant for refusal to provide information\",\r\n      \"Communication of the period within which an appeal can be filed against refusal of information\",\r\n      \"Providing the particulars of the appellate authority\",\r\n      \"Providing the reasons for taking a particular decision in any matter to which the information relates\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 7(8) vs. a General 'Reasons for Every Decision' Requirement<\/b><br>Section 7(8) specifically requires the PIO, on rejecting a request, to communicate the reasons for rejection (option a), the appeal period (option b), and the particulars of the appellate authority (option c). However, the Act does not impose a free-standing, general requirement to 'provide reasons for taking a particular decision in any matter to which the information relates' beyond this rejection-notice context \u2014 that broader obligation (Section 4(1)(d)) applies specifically to a public authority's own administrative\/quasi-judicial decisions affecting the person concerned, not to every matter an RTI request might touch upon.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6,\r\n    year: '2009-11',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following information cannot be supplied under the Right to Information Act, 2005?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Notings of the files\",\r\n      \"Inspection of answer scripts of an examination\",\r\n      \"Information relating to religious belief and faith of an individual holding a public office\",\r\n      \"Income tax returns of an employee of private limited company\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8(1)(j) \u2013 Personal Information\/Privacy<\/b><br>The religious belief and faith of an individual, even one holding public office, ordinarily has no relationship to their public activity and its disclosure would amount to an unwarranted invasion of privacy, exempting it under Section 8(1)(j), unless larger public interest is shown. By contrast, file notings, inspection of answer scripts, and income tax returns have all been held disclosable in various contexts (subject to case-specific exemptions), as they relate more directly to accountability and public functions.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7,\r\n    year: '2009-11',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Which of the following statements regarding third party information under the provisions of the Right to Information Act, 2005 are correct?\\n1. The third party must be given a notice within five days of receipt of the application seeking information.\\n2. The third party has a right to make a written or oral submission against disclosure.\\n3. The Public Information Officer while deciding the matter must keep in view the objections of the third party.\\n4. The above procedure applies in all cases where third party information is sought.\\n\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 11 \u2013 Third Party Information Procedure<\/b><br>Section 11(1) requires the PIO to give written notice to the third party within five days of receipt of the request, inviting the third party to make a submission (Statement 1) \u2705, which may be made in writing or orally, and to be recorded (Statement 2) \u2705. Section 11(1) requires the PIO to take the third party's representation into account while deciding on disclosure (Statement 3) \u2705. However, this special procedure applies only where the information relates to or has been supplied by the third party AND has been treated as confidential by that third party \u2014 it does not apply 'in all cases' where third-party information is sought, making Statement 4 incorrect.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8,\r\n    year: '2009-11',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 3: CENTRAL INFORMATION COMMISSION',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following is not a member of the committee for the selection of the Chief Information Commissioner?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Prime Minister\",\r\n      \"Speaker of Lok Sabha\",\r\n      \"Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha\",\r\n      \"A Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 12(3) \u2013 Selection Committee<\/b><br>Section 12(3) provides for a three-member selection committee comprising the Prime Minister (Chairperson), the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has no role in this committee.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 9,\r\n    year: '2009-11',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 5: POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES',\r\n    question: \"Which one among the following statements about the powers of the Central and State Information Commission is not correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The Central and State Information Commission can enquire into complaint pertaining to excessive amount of fee charged for supplying any information.\",\r\n      \"The Central and State Information Commission have the powers of a civil court as provided under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 in respect of specified matters.\",\r\n      \"The Central and State Information Commission have power to punish a guilty person with imprisonment not exceeding three months.\",\r\n      \"The Central and State Information Commission have power to secure publication of certain information required under the Right to Information Act, 2005.\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Sections 18(1)(d), 18(3), 19(8) \u2013 No Imprisonment Power<\/b><br>The Commission may inquire into complaints about unreasonable fees (Section 18(1)(d)) \u2705, has civil-court powers under Section 18(3) for specified purposes \u2705, and can require publication of certain information under Section 19(8)(a)(iii) \u2705. However, neither the Central nor a State Information Commission has any power to impose imprisonment on a guilty person \u2014 its only sanction under the Act against a defaulting PIO is the monetary penalty under Section 20.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 10,\r\n    year: '2009-11',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 6: MISCELLANEOUS',\r\n    question: \"Which of the following organizational departments is not exempted from providing information under the Right to Information Act, 2005?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"National Security Council Secretariat\",\r\n      \"National Technical Research Organisation\",\r\n      \"Aviation Research Centre\",\r\n      \"Central Information Commission\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Second Schedule (via Section 24) \u2013 Exempted Organisations<\/b><br>The National Security Council Secretariat, the National Technical Research Organisation, and the Aviation Research Centre are all listed among the intelligence\/security organisations in the Second Schedule and are therefore excluded from the Act's application under Section 24. The Central Information Commission itself, being the very body responsible for implementing and enforcing the Act, is not one of these exempted organisations and remains fully subject to the RTI Act's obligations (including regarding its own records).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 11,\r\n    year: '2009-11',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 6: MISCELLANEOUS',\r\n    question: \"Raman, an employee in the Intelligence Bureau leaks out relevant documents pertaining to certain purchases made by the Bureau involving corruption. During the course of disciplinary proceedings initiated against him for disclosing official papers of sensitive organization like Intelligence Bureau, Raman made an application seeking information from the Intelligence Bureau which was refused by virtue of Section 24 of the Right to Information Act, 2005. Which of the following statements is correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The denial of information is valid as the matter relates to an Organisation exempted under the Right to Information Act, 2005.\",\r\n      \"The denial of information is valid as an employee cannot disclose confidential papers without proper authority of the higher officials.\",\r\n      \"The denial of information is not valid as the matter relates to corruption in a government organization.\",\r\n      \"The denial of information is not valid as every employee has the freedom of speech and expression which he can enjoy in public interest by disclosing documents pertaining to corruption.\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Proviso to Section 24 \u2013 Corruption Exception Overrides Exemption<\/b><br>Although the Intelligence Bureau is listed in the Second Schedule and is generally exempt from the Act under Section 24(1), the proviso to Section 24 expressly carves out an exception: information pertaining to allegations of corruption shall not be excluded, even for these otherwise-exempt organisations. Since the matter relates to alleged corruption in purchases made by the Bureau, the blanket denial of information solely by invoking Section 24 is not valid.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 12,\r\n    year: '2009-11',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 3: CENTRAL INFORMATION COMMISSION',\r\n    question: \"Which of the following statements are correct?\\n1. An Information Commissioner can be removed from office by the President on the ground of physical or mental infirmity.\\n2. The salary and allowances payable and other terms and conditions of service of the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners shall be the same as that of the Chief Election Commissioner.\\n3. The Chief Information Commissioner and other Information Commissioners may resign from their office by sending in their resignation to the President.\\n\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 13(5) \u2013 Differentiated Salary Structure (as originally enacted)<\/b><br>As originally enacted, Section 13(5) provided that the salary, allowances and conditions of service of the Chief Information Commissioner shall be similar to that of the CHIEF Election Commissioner, while those of an Information Commissioner shall be similar to that of an (ordinary) Election Commissioner \u2014 a different, lower rank. Statement 2, which claims BOTH the CIC and Information Commissioners draw salary equal to the Chief Election Commissioner, therefore misstates the position and is incorrect. Statement 1 (removal by the President on grounds of physical or mental infirmity, per Section 14) and Statement 3 (resignation by writing to the President, per Section 13(5)) are both correct. <i>[Note: the RTI (Amendment) Act, 2019 later removed this direct linkage to Election Commission status and empowered the Central Government to prescribe these terms by rules instead.]<\/i>\"\r\n  },\r\n{\r\n    id: 13,\r\n    year: '2012-13',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 5: POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following statements is incorrect?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The Information Commissions have been given very wide discretionary powers under the RTI Act, 2005 to ensure that information is available to the applicants from public authorities\",\r\n      \"These Commissions have powers like those exercised by the civil courts in many matters\",\r\n      \"The powers have, however, to be exercised in accordance with the rules of natural justice\",\r\n      \"The proceedings pending before the Central Information Commission do not abate on the death of the appellant\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Effect of the Appellant's Death on Pending RTI Proceedings<\/b><br>Unlike certain matters of larger public interest that some Information Commissions have chosen to continue examining even after an appellant's death, the general legal position is that proceedings before the Commission ordinarily abate on the death of the appellant, since the personal right to seek information does not automatically survive to legal heirs absent specific dispensation by the Commission. The blanket claim that proceedings 'do not abate' overstates this position and is the incorrect statement. The other statements \u2014 regarding the wide discretionary powers of Information Commissions under Sections 18-19, their civil-court-like powers under Section 18(3), and their obligation to observe natural justice \u2014 correctly describe the framework of the Act.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 14,\r\n    year: '2012-13',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 6: MISCELLANEOUS',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following statements is incorrect?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"No order passed under the RTI Act, 2005 shall be called in question before any High Court\",\r\n      \"Information regarding corruption in Research and Analysis Wing of the Cabinet Secretariat can be made available under the RTI Act, 2005\",\r\n      \"Any information regarding allegations of violation of human rights by any security organization of the Central Government can be provided under the RTI Act, 2005 in a limited manner\",\r\n      \"The Central Government has power to include or exclude any intelligence organization from the application of the RTI Act, 2005\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 23 \u2013 Bar Is Not Absolute Against Writ Jurisdiction<\/b><br>Section 23 bars the jurisdiction of ordinary CIVIL courts from entertaining suits or proceedings regarding orders made under the Act, and bars such orders from being questioned 'otherwise than by way of an appeal under this Act.' However, this statutory bar cannot oust the constitutional writ jurisdiction of the High Courts (Article 226) or the Supreme Court (Article 32) \u2014 such orders remain amenable to judicial review by writ. The blanket assertion that no order 'shall be called in question before any High Court' therefore overstates Section 23 and is incorrect. The remaining statements \u2014 regarding disclosure of corruption information in RAW and limited disclosure of human-rights-violation information in security organisations (both under the proviso to Section 24), and the Central Government's power to amend the Second Schedule (Section 24(2)) \u2014 are correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 15,\r\n    year: '2012-13',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"According to the provisions of the RTI Act, 2005, which one among the following pairs is correctly matched?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Physically challenged persons - No fee is required to be paid for supplying information\",\r\n      \"Persons below poverty line - No fee is required to be paid for supplying information\",\r\n      \"An application seeking information which is available with another public authority - Must be transferred within 15 days to that other public authority\",\r\n      \"An appeal before the Central Information Commission - Must be decided within 30 days\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 7(5) proviso \u2013 BPL Fee Exemption<\/b><br>The proviso to Section 7(5) exempts persons belonging to the Below Poverty Line category from paying any fee for obtaining information \u2014 this is the correctly matched pair. The RTI Act does not provide a general fee waiver specifically for 'physically challenged persons' as a category (though Section 7(4) does provide assistance for sensorily disabled persons in accessing records); transfer of an application under Section 6(3) must occur within five days, not fifteen; and the Act does not prescribe a rigid 30-day deadline for the Information Commission to decide a second appeal.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 16,\r\n    year: '2012-13',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 6: MISCELLANEOUS',\r\n    question: \"Which of the following statements is\/are incorrect?\\n1. The disclosure of information under the RTI Act, 2005 is a rule and its refusal is an exception.\\n2. The RTI Act, 2005 overrides the provisions of other laws.\\n3. Reasons for seeking information need not be disclosed.\\n4. A State Information Commission has no power to inspect a record held by a Central Government Organization even if the subject matter of the application seeking information relates to that record.\\n\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below.\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 2\",\r\n      \"3 and 4\",\r\n      \"4 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Sections 22, 6(2) and Distinguishing Statement 4<\/b><br>Statements 1 (disclosure is the rule, refusal the exception \u2014 the guiding philosophy of the Act), 2 (the Act's overriding effect under Section 22), and 3 (no obligation to disclose reasons for seeking information, under Section 6(2)) are all well-established and correct propositions under the RTI Act. Statement 4, framed as an absolute, unqualified bar on a State Information Commission's power over Central Government records regardless of the application's subject matter, overstates the jurisdictional position \u2014 where information relates closely to a Central Government record, the applicable mechanism is transfer of the application under Section 6(3) to the appropriate authority\/Commission, rather than a blanket inspection bar. Statement 4 is therefore the incorrect one.\"\r\n  },\r\n{\r\n    id: 17,\r\n    year: '2014',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following information cannot be disclosed under the RTI Act, 2005?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Advice given by a lawyer to his client\",\r\n      \"Trade secrets involving use of smuggled goods in the manufacturing process\",\r\n      \"Decisions of the Union Cabinet and all related papers after the Cabinet meeting\",\r\n      \"Records of an incident that had happened 25 years earlier\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8(1)(e) \u2013 Fiduciary Relationship<\/b><br>Information available to a person in his fiduciary relationship is exempt from disclosure under Section 8(1)(e), unless the competent authority is satisfied that larger public interest warrants disclosure. Legal advice given by a lawyer to a client is a classic fiduciary\/privileged communication and is protected \u2014 unlike trade secrets involving illegal activity (where larger public interest in exposing illegality outweighs confidentiality), Cabinet decisions (which Section 8(1)(i) requires be disclosed once the decision is taken and the matter is complete, subject to certain exceptions), or old records (Section 8(3) lifts most Section 8(1) restrictions for records over 20 years old).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 18,\r\n    year: '2014',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 5: POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES',\r\n    question: \"Under the RTI Act, 2005, fine cannot be imposed in which one of the following cases?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Refusal to receive an application for information\",\r\n      \"Giving incorrect information\",\r\n      \"Destroying information\",\r\n      \"Refusing information on the ground that the same was exempt under Section 8(1)(j)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 20(1) \u2013 'Without Reasonable Cause'<\/b><br>Section 20(1) imposes a penalty only where the PIO acts 'without any reasonable cause' \u2014 such as refusing to receive an application, giving incorrect information, or destroying information without justification. Where a PIO correctly refuses information on a genuinely applicable exemption ground such as Section 8(1)(j) (personal information\/privacy), this constitutes a reasonable cause for refusal and does not attract penalty under Section 20.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 19,\r\n    year: '2014',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 5: POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES',\r\n    question: \"While exercising powers under Section 20 of the RTI Act, 2005, the Central Information Commission is not bound by which one of the following requirements?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"To pass a speaking order\",\r\n      \"To give personal hearing to the person concerned\",\r\n      \"Not to receive a complaint regarding denial of information\",\r\n      \"To follow the principles of evidence\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Nature of Penalty Proceedings under Section 20<\/b><br>While imposing a penalty, the Commission must pass a reasoned\/speaking order and grant a personal hearing to the concerned PIO (principles of natural justice). However, being a quasi-judicial body, the Commission is not bound by the strict, technical rules of evidence applicable in a regular court of law \u2014 it may adopt its own procedure while exercising its civil-court-like powers of inquiry under Section 18(3).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 20,\r\n    year: '2014',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to the RTI Act, 2005?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"An application for information can be made by any person\",\r\n      \"Information regarding the arrest of a person must be supplied within one week\",\r\n      \"Information to persons belonging to BPL category can be supplied without payment of fee\",\r\n      \"Refusal to provide information may lead to the sentence of imprisonment\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 7(5) proviso \u2013 BPL Fee Exemption<\/b><br>The proviso to Section 7(5) exempts persons belonging to the Below Poverty Line (BPL) category from paying any fee for obtaining information. In contrast: only citizens (not 'any person') can seek information under Section 3; life\/liberty-related information must be supplied within 48 hours, not one week, under Section 7(1); and refusal of information can attract only a monetary penalty under Section 20 \u2014 the Act does not provide for imprisonment.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 21,\r\n    year: '2014',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. The RTI Act, 2005 prohibits disclosure of information regarding infringement of copyright subsisting in the State.\\n2. Information regarding trade secrets can be provided in larger public interest.\\n3. An Information Commissioner cannot be removed from his office on the ground of incompetence.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above is\/are Incorrect?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 9 & Section 14 \u2013 Correcting Common Misconceptions<\/b><br>Statement 1 is incorrect: Section 9 exempts information from disclosure only where it would involve infringement of copyright subsisting in a person OTHER than the State \u2014 copyright vesting in the State itself is not a ground for exemption, so the claim of a blanket prohibition is a misstatement. Statement 2 is correct: the trade-secrets exemption under Section 8(1)(d) is itself subject to disclosure where larger public interest warrants it. Statement 3 is also correct: Section 14 lists specific removal grounds (insolvency, conviction for an offence involving moral turpitude, infirmity of mind\/body, unsoundness of mind, prejudicial financial\/other interest, or misbehaviour) \u2014 'incompetence' is not among the enumerated grounds. Hence, only Statement 1 is incorrect.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 22,\r\n    year: '2014',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following statements is incorrect?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The power to expand the scope of the Second Schedule to the RTI Act, 2005 vests in the Central Government\",\r\n      \"The RTI Act, 2005 does not apply to intelligence and security organizations established by the State Governments and notified in the State Official Gazette\",\r\n      \"The RTI Act, 2005 applies to intelligence and security organizations established by the State Governments with regard to corruption matters\",\r\n      \"The RTI Act, 2005 has overriding effect over some legislations\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 24(4) \u2013 A Qualified, Not Absolute, Exemption<\/b><br>Section 24(2) vests the power to amend the Second Schedule (add\/remove Central Government intelligence and security organisations) in the Central Government (option a is correct). Section 24(4) allows a State Government to notify its own intelligence\/security organisations as exempt \u2014 but this is NOT absolute: the proviso preserves applicability for information relating to allegations of corruption and human rights violations (option c is correct, restating this proviso). Option (b), by asserting a blanket, unqualified non-application without mentioning this statutory carve-out, understates\/misstates the legal position and is therefore the incorrect statement. Option (d) correctly restates the overriding effect of the Act under Section 22.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 23,\r\n    year: '2014',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"If an applicant is not supplied information by a Public Information Officer within prescribed time, which of the following consequences follow(s)?\\n1. The concerned Public Information Officer may face disciplinary action.\\n2. An appeal may be filed before the Appellate Authority at any time.\\n3. The Central or State Information Commission, as the case may be, may receive and enquire into the complaint of the applicant.\\n4. It shall be presumed that the information has been refused.\\n\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below.\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4\",\r\n      \"3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2\",\r\n      \"1 and 4 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Sections 7(2), 18 and 20<\/b><br>If information is not supplied within the prescribed time, the PIO may face penalty\/disciplinary action under Section 20 (Statement 1) \u2705; under Section 7(2), it is deemed that the request has been refused (Statement 4) \u2705; and the applicant may lodge a complaint with the Information Commission under Section 18 (Statement 3) \u2705. However, an appeal is NOT open 'at any time' \u2014 Section 19(1) prescribes a specific 30-day limitation period from the expiry of the prescribed time, making Statement 2 incorrect. Hence, Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 24,\r\n    year: '2014',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following information can be disclosed under the RTI Act, 2005?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"An information which can be severed from the information exempted under the RTI Act, 2005\",\r\n      \"An information pertaining to Border Roads Development Organization\",\r\n      \"An information pertaining to Aviation Research Centre of Cabinet Secretariat\",\r\n      \"An information pertaining to the health of a Union Minister\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 10 \u2013 Severability Enables Partial Disclosure<\/b><br>Section 10 allows disclosure of the non-exempt, severable part of a record even where the rest is exempt. By contrast, the Border Roads Development Organisation and the Aviation Research Centre are both listed among the intelligence\/security organisations in the Second Schedule and are generally excluded from the Act's application under Section 24, while the health details of a Union Minister would ordinarily be protected as personal information under Section 8(1)(j).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 25,\r\n    year: '2014',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following statements with regard to the Right to Information Act, 2005 is incorrect?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The disclosure of third party information cannot be made in the same way as all other information\",\r\n      \"The Right to Information Act, 2005 contains specific provisions to protect life of a person\",\r\n      \"The Right to Information Act, 2005 treats equally all information relating to corruption\",\r\n      \"An applicant denied information by a public authority can directly approach a Court for information\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 23 \u2013 No Direct Recourse to Ordinary Courts<\/b><br>Section 23 bars the jurisdiction of civil courts over matters under the Act, and remedies for denial of information must be pursued through the Act's own appellate mechanism \u2014 first appeal to a senior departmental officer, followed by a second appeal to the Information Commission under Section 19 \u2014 not by directly approaching a court. This makes option (d) the incorrect statement. The other statements \u2014 the special procedure for third-party information under Section 11, the 48-hour disposal safeguard for life\/liberty-related information under Section 7(1), and the fact that not all corruption-related information is treated identically (some remains subject to exemptions under Section 8 or the proviso to Section 24) \u2014 are all correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n{\r\n    id: 26,\r\n    year: '2015',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 1: PRELIMINARY',\r\n    question: \"The 'information' which cannot be supplied under the Right to Information Act, 2005 includes\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"information relating to any private body which can be accessed by a public authority under any law\",\r\n      \"opinions\",\r\n      \"information relating to Border Roads Development Board\",\r\n      \"samples\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Second Schedule (via Section 24) \u2013 Border Roads Development Board<\/b><br>The Border Roads Development Board is among the organisations listed in the Second Schedule as an intelligence\/security organisation established by the Central Government, and is therefore excluded from the Act's application under Section 24 (subject to the corruption\/human-rights proviso). The other options \u2014 private-body information accessible under other law, opinions, and samples \u2014 are all expressly included within 'information' under Section 2(f).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 27,\r\n    year: '2015',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 1: PRELIMINARY',\r\n    question: \"'Competent authority' under the provisions of the Right to Information Act, 2005 does not include the\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Vice President of India in case of Council of States\",\r\n      \"Chief Minister in case of National Capital Territory of Delhi\",\r\n      \"President of India in case of Union Public Service Commission\",\r\n      \"Chief Justice of Delhi High Court in case of Delhi High Court\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(e) \u2013 Competent Authority<\/b><br>Under Section 2(e), for the Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi, the 'competent authority' is the Speaker \u2014 not the Chief Minister. The other options are correctly matched: the Vice-President for the Council of States, the President for other constitutional bodies like the UPSC, and the Chief Justice of the concerned High Court.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 28,\r\n    year: '2015',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 3: CENTRAL INFORMATION COMMISSION',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following statements states the correct procedure for appointment of the Chief Information Commissioner?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The Chief Information Commissioner is appointed by the President of India.\",\r\n      \"The Chief Information Commissioner is appointed by the President of India on the recommendations of a committee of three persons which includes Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha.\",\r\n      \"The Chief Information Commissioner is appointed by the President of India on the recommendations of a committee consisting of three persons which includes Leader of Opposition or, if no such leader has been recognized, the leader of the single largest group in opposition in the House of the People.\",\r\n      \"The Chief Information Commissioner is appointed by the President of India on the recommendations of a committee of three persons nominated by the Prime Minister.\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 12(3) and its Explanation<\/b><br>Section 12(3) provides for appointment of the Chief Information Commissioner by the President on the recommendation of a three-member committee comprising the Prime Minister (Chairperson), the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. Where no Leader of Opposition has been recognised as such, the Explanation to Section 12(3) deems the Leader of the single largest opposition group in the House of the People to serve this role instead. Option (c) is the most complete and accurate description.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 29,\r\n    year: '2015',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 1: PRELIMINARY',\r\n    question: \"Under the provisions of the Right to Information Act, 2005, 'public authority' includes\\n1. an institution created by a law and registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860\\n2. a Government company\\n3. an institution in the private sector created by a State Legislation\\n\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below.\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"1 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(h) \u2013 Wide Definition of Public Authority<\/b><br>Section 2(h) covers any authority, body, or institution of self-government established\/constituted by or under the Constitution, by Central\/State law, or by government notification, and extends (via the Explanation) to bodies owned, controlled, or substantially financed by the Government, including many NGOs. An institution created by law and registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 falls under this definition if it owes its existence to that law; a Government company is expressly covered as a body 'owned or controlled' by Government; and an institution with private-sector characteristics is still a public authority if it was created by State legislation, since it would be 'established by any other law made by the State Legislature.' All three examples qualify.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 30,\r\n    year: '2015',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 1: PRELIMINARY',\r\n    question: \"According to the provisions of the Right to Information Act, 2005, 'right to information' does not mean\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"inspection of documents under the control of a public authority\",\r\n      \"taking notes of documents under the control of a public authority\",\r\n      \"taking certified samples of materials under the control of a public authority\",\r\n      \"information which is not under the control of a public authority\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(j) \u2013 Confined to Information Held by a Public Authority<\/b><br>Section 2(j) defines 'right to information' as the right to information 'accessible under this Act which is held by or under the control of any public authority.' Information which is NOT under the control of a public authority falls outside this definition altogether \u2014 the other three options (inspection, taking notes, taking certified samples) are all recognised modes of accessing information that IS under such control.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 31,\r\n    year: '2015',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Who does not have the right to information under the Right to Information Act, 2005?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"A citizen who is not aggrieved from the decision of a public authority\",\r\n      \"An entity affected from the decision of a public authority\",\r\n      \"A permanent resident of Delhi seeking information from the State Government of UP\",\r\n      \"A transgender seeking information on his rights to carry on trade\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 3 \u2013 Right Confined to 'Citizens'<\/b><br>Section 3 confers the right to information on 'all citizens' \u2014 this includes any citizen regardless of personal grievance, any citizen from anywhere in India seeking information from any public authority, and any citizen (including a transgender person) seeking information relevant to their rights. However, an 'entity' (a juristic\/artificial person such as a company or organisation) is not itself a 'citizen', and therefore does not hold the statutory right to information under Section 3 in its own right, though information may be sought by an authorised individual on its behalf.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 32,\r\n    year: '2015',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"According to the provisions of the Right to Information Act, 2005, a public authority is under no obligation to\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"ensure that all records that are appropriate to be computerized are computerized within a reasonable time subject to availability of resources.\",\r\n      \"publish within fixed time a directory of its officers and employees\",\r\n      \"disseminate all materials only in the local language\",\r\n      \"provide reasons for its administrative or quasi-judicial decisions to the affected persons\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Note on this question<\/b><br>Section 4(1)(d) expressly requires a public authority to 'provide reasons for its administrative or quasi-judicial decisions to affected persons' \u2014 this is a clear, express obligation under the Act, which appears to make option (d) an unusual choice for 'no obligation.' Based strictly on the text of the Act, the option that more accurately describes something a public authority is NOT obligated to do is option (c): Section 4(4) requires dissemination to consider the local language ALONGSIDE cost-effectiveness and the most effective method of communication \u2014 it does not require dissemination 'only' in the local language. If cross-checking this item against an official answer key, it would be worth verifying which option was actually intended, since Sections 4(1)(a) [computerisation, subject to resources], 4(1)(b)(ix) [directory of officers\/employees within a fixed time], and 4(1)(d) [reasons for decisions] are all genuine, express obligations under the Act.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 33,\r\n    year: '2015',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"As per the provisions of the Right to Information Act, 2005, in which one of the following languages a request for information cannot be made?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"English\",\r\n      \"Hindi\",\r\n      \"Any language spoken by the applicant\",\r\n      \"The official language of the area\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 6(1) \u2013 Permitted Languages<\/b><br>Section 6(1) permits a request to be made only in English, Hindi, or the official language of the area in which the application is being made. It does not permit a request in 'any language spoken by the applicant' generally \u2014 for instance, a request in a language that is neither English, Hindi, nor the local official language would not comply with Section 6(1).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 34,\r\n    year: '2015',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to the Right to Information Act, 2005?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"An illiterate person cannot seek information.\",\r\n      \"An applicant seeking information must give reasons for making the application.\",\r\n      \"Every applicant must make an application with the prescribed fee except in some cases.\",\r\n      \"An applicant seeking information must give all personal details while making the application.\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 6(1) proviso & Section 7(5) proviso \u2013 Fee Requirement and Exceptions<\/b><br>Every applicant must ordinarily pay the prescribed application fee under Section 6(1), except in cases such as BPL applicants, who are exempt under the proviso to Section 7(5). An illiterate person is not barred from seeking information \u2014 Section 6(1)'s proviso requires the PIO to render reasonable assistance to reduce an oral request to writing. Section 6(2) also makes clear that no reasons or personal details (beyond those necessary for contact) are required.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 35,\r\n    year: '2015',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"According to the provisions of the Right to Information Act, 2005, which one of the following statements is incorrect?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Where an application is made to a public authority requesting for an information which is held by another public authority, the public authority to which the application is made shall transfer that application to that other public authority not later than five days from the date of receipt of the application.\",\r\n      \"The information sought by an applicant must be given within thirty days of receipt of the request unless the request is refused.\",\r\n      \"The information can be refused in certain cases.\",\r\n      \"The information relating to life and liberty must be given within one week of the receipt of request.\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 7(1) proviso \u2013 48 Hours, Not One Week<\/b><br>The proviso to Section 7(1) requires information concerning the life or liberty of a person to be provided within 48 hours of receipt of the request \u2014 not one week. This makes option (d) incorrect. The other statements \u2014 transfer within five days under Section 6(3), the general 30-day disposal timeline under Section 7(1), and permissible refusal in certain cases under Sections 8\/9 \u2014 are all correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 36,\r\n    year: '2015',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following statements is incorrect under the Right to Information Act, 2005?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"If an information is not supplied within specified time, it shall be presumed that the request for information has been refused under Section 7(2) of the Act.\",\r\n      \"If a request for information is deemed to have been refused under Section 7(2) of the Act, it shall be supplied free of cost.\",\r\n      \"If a request for information has been refused under Section 7(1) of the Act, reasons for such rejection need not be communicated.\",\r\n      \"Every communication relating to refusal of request for information under Section 7(1) of the RTI Act, 2005 must be accompanied by the particulars of the appellate authority.\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 7(8) \u2013 Reasons Must Be Communicated<\/b><br>Section 7(8) requires the PIO, when rejecting a request, to communicate the reasons for such rejection, the period within which an appeal may be preferred, and the particulars of the appellate authority. The claim that 'reasons need not be communicated' directly contradicts Section 7(8) and is therefore incorrect. The other statements \u2014 deemed refusal under Section 7(2), free supply of information where the request is deemed refused due to delay (per RTI Rules), and mandatory inclusion of appellate authority particulars \u2014 are correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 37,\r\n    year: '2015',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 3: CENTRAL INFORMATION COMMISSION',\r\n    question: \"Under the Right to Information Act, 2005, an Information Commissioner can be removed from his office, if he\\n1. has been convicted of an offence involving moral turpitude\\n2. is unfit to continue in office by reason of his mental infirmity\\n3. has acquired a financial interest which is likely to prejudicially affect his functions\\n\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below.\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"Any of the above three grounds\",\r\n      \"3 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 14 \u2013 Grounds for Removal<\/b><br>Section 14 provides that an Information Commissioner may be removed from office if he: is adjudged insolvent; has been convicted of an offence involving moral turpitude \u2705; engages during his term in paid employment; is, in the opinion of the President, unfit to continue by reason of infirmity of mind or body \u2705; is of unsound mind; or has acquired such financial or other interest as is likely to affect prejudicially his functions \u2705. Each of the three listed grounds independently justifies removal, so 'any of the above three grounds' is correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 38,\r\n    year: '2015',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 3: CENTRAL INFORMATION COMMISSION',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following statements is correct under the Right to Information Act, 2005?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"An Information Commissioner can carry on his usual profession.\",\r\n      \"An Information Commissioner can be a member of any political party.\",\r\n      \"An Information Commissioner can be a member of Legislative Assembly of a Union Territory.\",\r\n      \"An Information Commissioner can be removed from his office only by the President of India.\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 14 \u2013 Removal Only by the President<\/b><br>Section 14 vests the power to remove a Chief Information Commissioner or an Information Commissioner exclusively in the President of India, following the prescribed procedure (including reference to the Supreme Court for proven misbehaviour or incapacity, or directly for other specified grounds). By contrast, Section 13(6) bars an outgoing Commissioner from being eligible for further employment under the Central\/State Government and generally requires holding no other office of profit, being unconnected with any political party, and not carrying on any business or profession during the term of office.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 39,\r\n    year: '2015',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 5: POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES',\r\n    question: \"Under the Right to Information Act, 2005\\n1. an appeal against the decision of the Public Information Officer can be preferred before the appellate authority within thirty days of receipt of the decision\\n2. second appeal against the decision of the appellate authority lies within ninety days from the date on which the decision was received\\n\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below.\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"Both 1 and 2\",\r\n      \"Neither 1 nor 2\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(1) & 19(3) \u2013 First and Second Appeal Timelines<\/b><br>Section 19(1) requires a first appeal to be preferred within thirty days from receipt of the PIO's decision (or expiry of the prescribed period) \u2705. Section 19(3) provides for a second appeal to the Information Commission within ninety days from the date on which the decision should have been made, or was actually received \u2705. Both statements are correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 40,\r\n    year: '2015',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 5: POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES',\r\n    question: \"Under the Right to Information Act, 2005, the Central Information Commission has power to\\n1. receive and inquire into any complaint from any person regarding refusal to access any information requested under the Act\\n2. require a public authority to compensate the complainant for any loss suffered by him\\n3. impose punishment of not more than three months imprisonment on a Public Information Officer who has unjustifiably refused information\\n\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below.\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"3 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Sections 18(1) & 19(8)(b) \u2013 No Power of Imprisonment<\/b><br>Section 18(1) gives the Commission power to receive and inquire into complaints regarding refusal of access (Statement 1) \u2705, and Section 19(8)(b) empowers it to require the public authority to compensate the complainant for loss suffered (Statement 2) \u2705. However, the Commission has no power to impose imprisonment on a PIO \u2014 its only sanction against a defaulting PIO is the monetary penalty under Section 20, along with a possible recommendation for disciplinary action; imprisonment is not within its powers, making Statement 3 incorrect.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 41,\r\n    year: '2015',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 6: MISCELLANEOUS',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following statements with regard to the Right to Information Act, 2005 is not correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The Act has an overriding effect.\",\r\n      \"The jurisdiction of civil courts is barred in respect of any order made under the Act.\",\r\n      \"No suit, prosecution or other legal proceeding shall lie against any person for anything done by him under the Act.\",\r\n      \"The Act does not apply to Narcotics Control Bureau.\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 21 \u2013 The 'Good Faith' Qualifier<\/b><br>Section 21 protects only action taken 'in good faith' under the Act \u2014 it does not grant blanket immunity for 'anything done' regardless of good faith. Option (c), by omitting this essential qualifier, misstates the law and is the incorrect statement. Options (a) [Section 22, overriding effect], (b) [Section 23, bar of jurisdiction of civil courts] and (d) [the Narcotics Control Bureau being listed in the Second Schedule and thus exempt under Section 24] are all correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 42,\r\n    year: '2015',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 5: POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES',\r\n    question: \"The Central Information Commission has no power\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"of a civil court in receiving evidence on affidavit\",\r\n      \"in entertaining directly an application for information\",\r\n      \"to issue summons for examination of witnesses\",\r\n      \"to decide reasonableness of fee decided by the Public Information Officer for supplying information\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Role of the Commission Is Appellate, Not First-Instance<\/b><br>The Central Information Commission's role begins at the complaint (Section 18) or second-appeal (Section 19(3)) stage \u2014 it has no power to entertain, in the first instance, a direct application for information; such applications must be made to the PIO of the concerned public authority under Section 6. By contrast, under Section 18(3), the Commission has civil-court-like powers to receive evidence on affidavit, issue summons for examining witnesses, and (through the appeal\/complaint process) assess whether the fee charged was reasonable.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 43,\r\n    year: '2015',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 1: PRELIMINARY',\r\n    question: \"The purpose of the Right to Information Act, 2005 is to\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"punish corrupt persons\",\r\n      \"imprison dishonest civil servants\",\r\n      \"promote transparency and accountability\",\r\n      \"protect civil servants\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Preamble to the RTI Act, 2005<\/b><br>The Preamble states that the Act is enacted to provide for a practical regime of right to information for citizens, in order to secure access to information under the control of public authorities to promote transparency and accountability in the working of every public authority, contain corruption, and hold Governments and their instrumentalities accountable to the governed.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 44,\r\n    year: '2015',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 5: POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following statements pertaining to penalty under the Right to Information Act, 2005 is not correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The refusal to receive an application for supplying information without any reasonable cause may entail a fine of Rs 250 per day with a maximum of Rs 25,000.\",\r\n      \"The refusal to supply information without any reasonable cause may entail a fine of Rs. 250 per day with a maximum of Rs. 25,000.\",\r\n      \"Supplying wrong information may entail a fine of Rs 250 per day with a maximum of Rs. 25,000.\",\r\n      \"The refusal to receive an application for supplying information or refusing information may entail a fine of Rs. 25,000.\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 20(1) \u2013 Per-Day Penalty, Not a Flat Fine<\/b><br>Section 20(1) prescribes a penalty of Rs. 250 for EACH DAY of delay\/default (subject to a maximum ceiling of Rs. 25,000) \u2014 not a flat, one-time fine of Rs. 25,000. Option (d), by describing the penalty as a fixed sum rather than a per-day charge subject to a cap, misstates the mechanism and is the incorrect statement.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 45,\r\n    year: '2015',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following information cannot be refused under the Right to Information Act, 2005?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"information relating to intellectual property whose disclosure is not in larger public interest\",\r\n      \"Information which might impede the process of apprehension of offenders\",\r\n      \"Information obtained by a person in his fiduciary relationship, the disclosure of which is not in larger public interest\",\r\n      \"Reasons concerning the decisions of Council of Ministers except those concerning matters which have been exempted under Section 8\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8(1)(i) \u2013 Cabinet Decisions Must Eventually Be Disclosed<\/b><br>Section 8(1)(i) requires that the decisions of the Council of Ministers, the reasons thereof, and the material on which the decisions were taken shall be made public after the decision has been taken and the matter is complete, except for matters that remain exempted under Section 8. This information CANNOT be refused once these conditions are met, unlike intellectual property (Section 8(1)(d)), information impeding apprehension of offenders (Section 8(1)(h)), and fiduciary-relationship information (Section 8(1)(e)) \u2014 all of which CAN be refused where larger public interest does not warrant disclosure.\"\r\n  },\r\n{\r\n    id: 46,\r\n    year: '2016-17',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 1: PRELIMINARY',\r\n    question: \"The term \\\"public authority\\\" under the Right to Information Act, 2005 does not include which one of the following?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"National Human Rights Commission\",\r\n      \"Lokayukta of Delhi\",\r\n      \"A non-Government Organization receiving substantial grant from the Government\",\r\n      \"Trustees of PM CARES Fund\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(h) \u2013 'Public Authority' and the PM CARES Fund<\/b><br>The National Human Rights Commission (created under the Protection of Human Rights Act) and the Lokayukta of Delhi (a statutory body) both squarely fall within 'public authority' under Section 2(h), and an NGO substantially financed by Government funds is also covered via the explanation to Section 2(h). The Prime Minister's Citizen Assistance and Relief in Emergency Situations (PM CARES) Fund, however, has been described by the Government (including in litigation) as a charitable public trust not established by or under the Constitution, by Parliamentary\/State legislation, or by Government notification, and therefore does not fall within the definition of 'public authority' under the Act.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 47,\r\n    year: '2016-17',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Who has the right to information under the Right to Information Act, 2005?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"All individuals in India including the foreigners residing in India\",\r\n      \"All individuals in India, agencies of the State and the foreigners residing in India\",\r\n      \"All citizens of India\",\r\n      \"All agencies of the State\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 3 \u2013 Right to Information<\/b><br>Section 3 states that 'subject to the provisions of this Act, all citizens shall have the right to information.' The right is conferred specifically on citizens of India, not generally on all individuals\/foreigners residing in India, nor on agencies of the State.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 48,\r\n    year: '2016-17',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"The obligation of a public authority under the Right to Information Act, 2005 does not include\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"publication of all relevant facts while formulating important policies which affect public\",\r\n      \"providing reasons for its administrative decisions to affected persons\",\r\n      \"publication of all relevant facts while announcing decisions which affect public\",\r\n      \"providing information regarding commercial confidence to an applicant except in case of larger public interest\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1)(c),(d) vs. Section 8(1)(d)<\/b><br>Section 4(1)(c) obligates authorities to publish all relevant facts while formulating important policies or announcing decisions affecting the public, and Section 4(1)(d) obligates them to provide reasons for administrative\/quasi-judicial decisions to affected persons. Disclosure of commercially confidential information, however, is governed by the exemption under Section 8(1)(d) \u2014 it is NOT a general obligation to disclose; disclosure becomes mandatory only where the competent authority is satisfied that larger public interest warrants it. Hence, option (d) is correctly identified as falling outside the general 'obligation' category.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 49,\r\n    year: '2016-17',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 1: PRELIMINARY',\r\n    question: \"\\\"Right to information\\\" under the Right to Information Act, 2005 does not include\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"inspection of official documents\",\r\n      \"obtaining information relating to Border Roads Development Board\",\r\n      \"taking notes from the official files\",\r\n      \"taking certified copy of a decision of the Court\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(j) \u2013 Modes, Not Subject-Matter<\/b><br>Section 2(j) defines 'right to information' in terms of the MODES of accessing information \u2014 inspection of documents (option a), taking notes from files (option c), and taking certified copies of court decisions (option d) are all specific access-modes covered by this definition. 'Obtaining information relating to the Border Roads Development Board' does not describe a mode of access under Section 2(j) \u2014 and separately, the Border Roads Development Board is among the organisations listed in the Second Schedule, which are excluded from the Act's application under Section 24.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 50,\r\n    year: '2016-17',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 1: PRELIMINARY',\r\n    question: \"\\\"Competent authority\\\" under the Right to Information Act, 2005 does not mean\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Chief Minister of Delhi\",\r\n      \"Speaker in case of Legislative Assembly of Delhi\",\r\n      \"Chairman in case of Legislative Council of Uttar Pradesh\",\r\n      \"Vice-President of India in case of Council of States\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(e) \u2013 Competent Authority<\/b><br>Under Section 2(e), for the Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi, the 'competent authority' is the Speaker \u2014 not the Chief Minister. Similarly, for a Legislative Council it is the Chairman (correctly listed for U.P.'s Council), and for the Council of States it is the Vice-President (correctly listed). The Chief Minister of Delhi does not qualify as a competent authority under this definition.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 51,\r\n    year: '2016-17',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 1: PRELIMINARY',\r\n    question: \"\\\"Information\\\" under the Right to Information Act, 2005 does not include\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"records as defined under the Right to Information Act, 2005\",\r\n      \"any information relating to a private body which cannot be accessed by a public authority\",\r\n      \"reports of Commissions of Inquiry\",\r\n      \"data material held in any electronic form\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(f) \u2013 Scope Regarding Private Bodies<\/b><br>Section 2(f) includes information relating to a private body 'which can be accessed by a public authority under any other law for the time being in force' \u2014 meaning only ACCESSIBLE private-body information is covered. Information relating to a private body that CANNOT be so accessed by a public authority falls outside this definition and is excluded from the scope of 'information' under the Act.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 52,\r\n    year: '2016-17',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"According to the provisions of the Right to Information Act, 2005, which one of the following statements is not correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"An application for information must be made only in English or in Hindi.\",\r\n      \"An application seeking information must accompany prescribed fee except for persons below poverty line.\",\r\n      \"No personal details need to be given while seeking information except those necessary for contacting the applicant.\",\r\n      \"Information can be sought even orally.\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 6(1) \u2013 Language of Application<\/b><br>Section 6(1) permits a request to be made 'in English or Hindi or in the official language of the area in which the application is being made' \u2014 not merely in English or Hindi. Option (a) omits this third permissible option (the local official language) and is therefore incorrect. The remaining statements \u2014 fee exemption for BPL persons (Section 7(5) proviso), no personal details required beyond contact necessities (Section 6(2)), and oral requests permitted with PIO's assistance (Section 6(1) proviso) \u2014 are all correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 53,\r\n    year: '2016-17',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"According to the provisions of the Right to Information Act, 2005, which one of the following statements is correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"No reasons are required to be given for seeking information.\",\r\n      \"Information is to be supplied free of cost after two weeks from the date of making the application.\",\r\n      \"Where an application is made to a public authority for information which is held by another public authority, the application must be transferred within one week to that public authority having the information.\",\r\n      \"If an information relates to the life of a person, the information must be supplied within one week under section 7(1) of the Right to Information Act, 2005.\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 6(2) \u2013 No Reasons Required<\/b><br>Section 6(2) explicitly states that an applicant need not give any reason for requesting the information. The other options misstate the law: there is no 'two-week free supply' rule; transfer of an application under Section 6(3) must occur within five days, not one week; and information concerning life or liberty must be supplied within 48 hours, not one week, under the proviso to Section 7(1).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 54,\r\n    year: '2016-17',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Which of the following statements is\/are correct under the Right to Information Act, 2005?\\n1. It is not necessary to supply all kinds of information.\\n2. Information pertaining to corruption in Central Reserve Police Force must be supplied.\\n3. Information pertaining to violation of human rights in Intelligence Bureau must be supplied.\\n\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8 and the Proviso to Section 24<\/b><br>Not all information must be supplied \u2014 Section 8 lists several categories of exempt information (Statement 1) \u2705. Even for organisations otherwise exempt under Section 24 (like the CRPF and Intelligence Bureau, both listed in the Second Schedule), the proviso to Section 24(1) carves out an exception: information pertaining to allegations of corruption (Statement 2) \u2705, and human rights violations, subject to Information Commission approval and provision within 45 days (Statement 3) \u2705, must still be supplied. All three statements are correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 55,\r\n    year: '2016-17',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Information under the Right to Information Act, 2005 cannot be denied on which one of the following grounds\/cases?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Information relating to copyright subsisting in the State\",\r\n      \"Information is likely to impede investigation or apprehension of an offender\",\r\n      \"Information is a trade secret\",\r\n      \"Personal information affecting privacy of an individual\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 9 \u2013 Copyright Exception<\/b><br>Section 9 permits rejection only where disclosure would involve infringement of copyright 'subsisting in a person other than the State.' Where the copyright subsists in the State itself, this ground for denial is not available. This is unlike the other listed grounds \u2014 impeding investigation (Section 8(1)(h)), trade secrets (Section 8(1)(d)), and personal privacy (Section 8(1)(j)) \u2014 which remain valid grounds for denial.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 56,\r\n    year: '2016-17',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 3: CENTRAL INFORMATION COMMISSION',\r\n    question: \"Which one of following statements is not correct under the Right to Information Act, 2005?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"No specific qualifications have been prescribed for appointment as Information Commissioner.\",\r\n      \"An Information Commissioner holds office at the pleasure of the President.\",\r\n      \"No person can be appointed as Information Commissioner unless he is a person of eminence in public life.\",\r\n      \"An Information Commissioner must have wide knowledge and experience in law, science, and technology, social service, management, journalism, mass media or administration and governance.\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 13 \u2013 Fixed Tenure, Not 'At Pleasure'<\/b><br>Unlike posts held 'during the pleasure of the President,' an Information Commissioner enjoys a fixed term of office under Section 13 and can be removed only through the specific procedure laid down in Section 14 (proven misbehaviour\/incapacity via Supreme Court reference, or other specified grounds) \u2014 not at the President's discretion. This security of tenure safeguards the Commission's independence, making the claim that an IC 'holds office at the pleasure of the President' incorrect. The remaining statements about eminence in public life and the specified fields of expertise (Section 12(5)) are correct, and no formal educational qualification is prescribed.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 57,\r\n    year: '2016-17',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Which of the following statements is\/are correct? Under the Right to Information Act, 2005, when only a part of the information is supplied severing the same from the rest of the information which cannot be supplied, the applicant must be given notice indicating\\n1. reasons for the severance.\\n2. address of the authority which had taken the decision.\\n3. his\/her right to review the decision.\\n\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 10(2) \u2013 Contents of Severance Notice<\/b><br>Section 10(2) requires the PIO, when providing only a severed record, to give notice of: the fact of severance; the reasons for the decision (Statement 1) \u2705; the name and designation of the person giving the decision; the fee details; and the applicant's right to seek a review (Statement 3) \u2705. The Act does not require disclosure of the 'address of the authority which had taken the decision' (Statement 2) as a mandatory element, so only Statements 1 and 3 are correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n{\r\n    id: 58,\r\n    year: '2018',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 5: POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following sections of RTI Act, 2005, gives power to the Central Information Commission to require the concerned public authority to compensate the complainant for any loss or other detriment suffered?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 17(1)(a)\",\r\n      \"Section 19(8)(b)\",\r\n      \"Section 22(4)(a)\",\r\n      \"Section 24(3)(b)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(8)(b) \u2013 Power to Award Compensation<\/b><br>Section 19(8)(b) empowers the Central\/State Information Commission, in deciding an appeal, to require the public authority concerned to compensate the complainant for any loss or other detriment suffered as a result of the manner in which the request for information was handled.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 59,\r\n    year: '2018',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"In compliance with the provisions of which one of the following sections of the RTI Act, 2005, is it advised that public authorities may proactively disclose the details of foreign and domestic official tours undertaken by minister(s) and officials of the rank of Joint Secretary to the Government of India and above and the heads of the Departments, since 15th January 2012?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 4\",\r\n      \"Section 5\",\r\n      \"Section 6\",\r\n      \"Section 7\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4 \u2013 Suo Motu Disclosure Guidelines<\/b><br>Pursuant to the proactive disclosure obligations under Section 4, the Department of Personnel & Training (DoPT) issued guidance advising public authorities to voluntarily disclose details of domestic and foreign tours undertaken by Ministers and officers of the rank of Joint Secretary and above (and Heads of Department), effective 15th January 2012, as part of the broader Section 4 disclosure regime.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 60,\r\n    year: '2018',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following Sections of RTI Act, 2005 lays down the information which should be disclosed by public authorities on a suo motu or proactive basis?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 2(1)(a)\",\r\n      \"Section 3(1)(c)\",\r\n      \"Section 4(1)(b)\",\r\n      \"Section 5(1)(d)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1)(b) \u2013 Proactive Disclosure Categories<\/b><br>Section 4(1)(b) lists seventeen specific categories of information (particulars of organisation, powers\/duties of officers, decision-making procedure, norms for functions, budget, subsidy programmes, etc.) that every public authority must publish suo motu, reducing reliance on individual RTI applications.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 61,\r\n    year: '2018',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"The disclosure of information may be made keeping in mind the provisions of which of the following Sections of the RTI Act, 2005?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Sections 5 to 7\",\r\n      \"Sections 8 to 11\",\r\n      \"Sections 12 to 15\",\r\n      \"Sections 16 to 19\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Sections 8\u201311 \u2013 The Disclosure Decision Framework<\/b><br>Sections 8 to 11 collectively govern the decision on what may or may not be disclosed: Section 8 lists exemptions from disclosure, Section 9 provides the copyright-based rejection ground, Section 10 allows severability of exempt and non-exempt portions, and Section 11 lays down the procedure for third-party information. A PIO must weigh all these provisions before deciding what information to release.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 62,\r\n    year: '2018',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"CAG paras dealing with information about the issues of sovereignty and integrity of India, the security, strategic, scientific or economic interests of the State and information covered under which one of the following Sections of the RTI Act, 2005 is exempted from disclosure?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 2\",\r\n      \"Section 4\",\r\n      \"Section 6\",\r\n      \"Section 8\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8(1)(a) \u2013 Sovereignty, Security and Strategic Interests<\/b><br>Section 8(1)(a) exempts information the disclosure of which would prejudicially affect the sovereignty and integrity of India, or the security, strategic, scientific or economic interests of the State. CAG paragraphs touching on such sensitive matters would accordingly fall within this exemption.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 63,\r\n    year: '2018',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 5: POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following sections of RTI Act, 2005, provides that the first appellate authority should dispose off the appeal within thirty days of the receipt of the appeal?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 17(a)\",\r\n      \"Section 19(6)\",\r\n      \"Section 22(4)\",\r\n      \"Section 24(3)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(6) \u2013 Time Limit for Disposal of First Appeal<\/b><br>Section 19(6) requires that an appeal under Section 19(1) or 19(2) shall be disposed of within thirty days of receipt, or within a total extended period not exceeding forty-five days from the date of filing, for reasons recorded in writing.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 64,\r\n    year: '2018',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"It is obligatory for all the public authorities under which one of the following Sections of the RTI Act, 2005 to publish all relevant facts while formulating important policies and announcing decisions affecting the public?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 4(1)(c)\",\r\n      \"Section 5(2)(a)\",\r\n      \"Section 6(3)(d)\",\r\n      \"Section 7(4)(b)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1)(c) \u2013 Publication of Relevant Facts<\/b><br>Section 4(1)(c) obligates every public authority to publish all relevant facts while formulating important policies or announcing decisions which affect the public, so that citizens have the necessary background to understand and scrutinise those decisions.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 65,\r\n    year: '2018',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Designation of Central Assistant Public Information Officers by the public authorities is provided under which one of the following sections of the RTI Act, 2005?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 3(1)\",\r\n      \"Section 3(2)\",\r\n      \"Section 4(1)\",\r\n      \"Section 5(2)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 5(2) \u2013 Assistant Public Information Officers<\/b><br>Section 5(2) provides for the designation of Central\/State Assistant Public Information Officers at the sub-divisional or sub-district level, to receive applications and appeals under the Act and forward them to the appropriate PIO or appellate authority.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 66,\r\n    year: '2018',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"The purpose of suo motu disclosures under which one of the following sections of the RTI Act, 2005 is to place a large amount of information in public domain on a proactive basis to make the functioning of the public authorities more transparent and also to reduce the need for individual RTI applications?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 2\",\r\n      \"Section 4\",\r\n      \"Section 6\",\r\n      \"Section 8\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4 \u2013 Purpose of Proactive Disclosure<\/b><br>Section 4's proactive\/suo motu disclosure regime is intended to place substantial information in the public domain as a matter of course, improving transparency in the functioning of public authorities and reducing the number of individual RTI requests needed to access routine information.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 67,\r\n    year: '2018',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 5: POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES',\r\n    question: \"Refusal to accept an application on the ground that the demand draft\/bankers cheque\/IPO submitted by the applicant has been drawn in the name of the accounts officer may amount to refusal to accept the application. It may result into imposition of penalty by the Central Information Commission on the concerned Central Public Information Officer under which one of the following Sections of RTI Act, 2005?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 16\",\r\n      \"Section 18\",\r\n      \"Section 20\",\r\n      \"Section 22\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 20 \u2013 Penalty for Improper Refusal<\/b><br>An overly technical refusal to accept an application (such as objecting to the specific name on a demand draft rather than accepting it and reconciling payment details administratively) can amount to refusal to receive an application without reasonable cause, attracting the penalty provisions of Section 20.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 68,\r\n    year: '2018',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following Sections of RTI Act, 2005 enables the Government to prescribe application fee for supply of information?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 6(1)\",\r\n      \"Section 8(1)\",\r\n      \"Section 10(1)\",\r\n      \"Section 12(1)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 6(1) \u2013 Application Fee<\/b><br>Section 6(1) itself provides that a request for information shall be made 'accompanying such fee as may be prescribed' \u2014 this is the enabling provision under which the appropriate Government (via rules framed under Section 27) prescribes the actual application fee amount.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 69,\r\n    year: '2018',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Which of the following sections of RTI Act, 2005 provide that a public information officer may seek the assistance of any other officer for proper discharge of his\/her duties?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Sub-sections (3) and (4) of Section 4\",\r\n      \"Sub-sections (4) and (5) of Section 5\",\r\n      \"Sub-sections (5) and (6) of Section 6\",\r\n      \"Sub-sections (6) and (7) of Section 7\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 5(4) & 5(5) \u2013 Assistance from Other Officers<\/b><br>Section 5(4) empowers a PIO to seek the assistance of any other officer he\/she considers necessary for the proper discharge of duties. Section 5(5) deems such an officer, whose assistance is sought, to be a PIO for the purposes of contravention of the Act's provisions, making him equally liable.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 70,\r\n    year: '2018',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 6: MISCELLANEOUS',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the functions of RTI cell:\\n1. The cell will be a single reference point to receive applications, appeals, complaints and decisions of Central Information Commission.\\n2. The cell will ensure uploading of all applications and appeals received by it on the RTI-MIS.\\n3. The cell will ensure uploading of all complaints and decisions of CIC on the DMIS (computerised diary system).\\n\\nWhich of the above statements are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Functions of the RTI Cell (per DoPT administrative guidelines)<\/b><br>The RTI Cell in a Ministry\/Department serves as the single reference point for receiving RTI applications, appeals, complaints, and CIC decisions (Statement 1) \u2705; ensures all applications and appeals are uploaded on the RTI Management Information System, RTI-MIS (Statement 2) \u2705; and ensures complaints and CIC decisions are recorded on the computerised diary\/monitoring system, DMIS (Statement 3) \u2705. All three statements correctly describe the RTI Cell's functions.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 71,\r\n    year: '2018',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 6: MISCELLANEOUS',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the monitoring of RTI applications and appeals:\\n1. Annual reports as prescribed by the CIC.\\n2. A quarterly report regarding disposal and receipts including CPIO-wise analysis of disposal.\\n3. A bi-monthly report of all RTI requests received and disposed off during the period with a comparative picture.\\n\\nWhich of the above statements are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 25 & DoPT Monitoring Guidelines<\/b><br>Section 25 requires the Central Information Commission to prepare an annual report on the implementation of the Act (Statement 1) \u2705. DoPT guidelines also require public authorities to furnish a quarterly report on RTI receipts and disposals, including CPIO-wise analysis (Statement 2) \u2705. However, there is no prescribed 'bi-monthly' reporting requirement under the monitoring framework \u2014 periodic reporting is structured as annual (Commission-level) and quarterly (public-authority level), not bi-monthly, making Statement 3 incorrect.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 72,\r\n    year: '2018',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"According to which one of the following sections of RTI Act, 2005, if an application is received by a public authority seeking an information which is held by another public authority or which is more closely connected with the subject matter relating to another public authority, the public authority receiving the application should transfer the application to the concerned public authority?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Sub-section (3) of Section 6\",\r\n      \"Sub-section (4) of Section 5\",\r\n      \"Sub-section (5) of Section 4\",\r\n      \"Sub-section (6) of Section 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 6(3) \u2013 Transfer of Application<\/b><br>Section 6(3) requires the public authority receiving such an application to transfer it (or the relevant part) as soon as practicable, but not later than five days from receipt, to the public authority holding the information or more closely connected with the subject matter, and to inform the applicant of the transfer immediately.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 73,\r\n    year: '2018',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following sections of RTI Act, 2005 provides that a person, who desires to obtain any information under the Act, shall make a request in writing or through electronic means in English or Hindi or in the official language of the area in which the application is being made?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 6(1)\",\r\n      \"Section 8(1)\",\r\n      \"Section 10(1)\",\r\n      \"Section 12(1)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 6(1) \u2013 Request Procedure<\/b><br>Section 6(1) prescribes that a person seeking information shall make a request in writing or through electronic means, in English, Hindi, or the official language of the area, accompanied by the prescribed fee, to the PIO of the concerned public authority.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 74,\r\n    year: '2018',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 1: PRELIMINARY',\r\n    question: \"According to which one of the following sections of RTI Act, 2005, 'information' means 'any material in any form'?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 2(a)\",\r\n      \"Section 2(c)\",\r\n      \"Section 2(d)\",\r\n      \"Section 2(f)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(f) \u2013 Definition of Information<\/b><br>Section 2(f) opens with the words 'information means any material in any form,' before listing illustrative examples such as records, documents, memos, e-mails, opinions, advices, press releases, circulars, orders, logbooks, contracts, reports, papers, samples, models, and electronic data.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 75,\r\n    year: '2018',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"According to which one of the following sections of RTI Act, 2005, any complaint made against an officer of the Government and any possible action the authorities might have taken on the complaint, qualifies as personal information within the meaning of the section?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 6(2)(a)\",\r\n      \"Section 8(1)(j)\",\r\n      \"Section 9(1)(d)\",\r\n      \"Section 10(2)(f)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8(1)(j) \u2013 Personal Information<\/b><br>Courts and Information Commission rulings have held that details of a complaint made against a government officer, and any departmental\/disciplinary action taken on it, constitute 'personal information' within the meaning of Section 8(1)(j), disclosure of which can be withheld unless a larger public interest is demonstrated.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 76,\r\n    year: '2018',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the standard format for providing information:\\n1. RTI application number, date and date of its receipt in the public authority.\\n2. The name, designation, official telephone number and email ID of the CPIO.\\n\\nWhich of the above statements is\/are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"Both 1 and 2\",\r\n      \"Neither 1 nor 2\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Standard Format for Providing Information (DoPT guidance)<\/b><br>Standard formats devised for supplying RTI responses require noting the application number, date of application, and date of receipt in the public authority (Statement 1) \u2705, as well as the name, designation, official telephone number and email ID of the CPIO for accountability and follow-up purposes (Statement 2) \u2705. Both statements are correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 77,\r\n    year: '2018',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 6: MISCELLANEOUS',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following sections of RTI Act, 2005 casts a responsibility on the Government of States to develop and organize educational programmes to advance the understanding of the public about exercise of their right to information?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 26(1)(a)\",\r\n      \"Section 28(1)(c)\",\r\n      \"Section 30(1)(a)\",\r\n      \"Section 32(1)(c)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 26(1)(a) \u2013 Educational Programmes<\/b><br>Section 26(1)(a) casts a duty on the appropriate Government (including State Governments) to develop and organise educational programmes to advance the public's understanding, particularly of disadvantaged communities, of how to exercise the rights contemplated under the Act.\"\r\n  },\r\n{\r\n    id: 78,\r\n    year: '2019-20',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"For the period of five years, for updating records, improving infrastructure, creating manuals, and establishing the Public Records Offices, the Second Administrative Reform Commission, in its first report (June 2006), recommended that as a one-time measure, the Government of India should\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"earmark 1% of the funds of all flagship programmes\",\r\n      \"earmark 1-5% of the funds of all flagship programmes\",\r\n      \"earmark 2% of the funds of all flagship programmes\",\r\n      \"earmark 2-5% of the funds of all flagship programmes\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Second ARC Report (2006) \u2013 Recommendation on Records Management<\/b><br>The Second Administrative Reforms Commission, in its First Report titled 'Right to Information: Master Key to Good Governance' (June 2006), recommended that as a one-time measure, the Government of India earmark 1% of the funds of all flagship programmes for a five-year period, to be used for updating records, improving record-keeping infrastructure, preparing manuals, and setting up Public Records Offices, so that information could be readily retrieved and supplied under the RTI Act.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 79,\r\n    year: '2019-20',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements with reference to the disposal of requests under the RTI Act, 2005:\\n1. As expeditiously as possible, in any case, within 30 days of the receipt of the request, provide the information on payment of such fee as may be prescribed.\\n2. As expeditiously as possible, in any case, within 30 days of the receipt of the request, reject the request for any of the reasons specified in Sections 8 and 9.\\n\\nWhich of the above statements is\/are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"Both 1 and 2\",\r\n      \"Neither 1 nor 2\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 7(1) \u2013 Disposal of Request<\/b><br>Section 7(1) requires the CPIO\/SPIO to, 'as expeditiously as possible, and in any case within thirty days of the receipt of the request,' either (i) provide the information on payment of fee as prescribed, or (ii) reject the request for reasons specified in Sections 8 and 9. Both statements accurately restate this provision, so both are correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 80,\r\n    year: '2019-20',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following is not correct pertaining to the exemption from disclosure of information?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Information which does not affect the sovereignty and integrity of India\",\r\n      \"Information which has been expressly forbidden to be published by the court of law or tribunal\",\r\n      \"Information which would cause a breach of privilege of the Parliament or the State Legislature\",\r\n      \"Information which received in confidence from a foreign government\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8(1)(a) \u2013 Exemption Related to Sovereignty and Integrity<\/b><br>Section 8(1)(a) exempts information the disclosure of which WOULD prejudicially affect the sovereignty and integrity of India \u2014 i.e., information that does affect these interests, not information which does not. Option (a), as worded, reverses the actual exemption ground and is therefore incorrect. Options (b) [Section 8(1)(b)], (c) [Section 8(1)(c)] and (d) [Section 8(1)(f)] all correctly restate genuine exemption grounds.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 81,\r\n    year: '2019-20',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements with respect to the 'third party information' under the RTI Act, 2005:\\n1. The PIO can disclose the confidential information supplied by a third party without inviting the third party to make a submission in the matter.\\n2. The third party has a right to make an appeal to the Department Appellate Authority against the decision of the PIO.\\n3. If not satisfied with the decision of the Department Appellate Authority, a second appeal can be made to the concerned Information Commission.\\n4. The PIO cannot disclose third party information unless the procedure prescribed in Section 11.\\n\\nWhich of the above statements is\/are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2, and 3\",\r\n      \"2, 3, and 4\",\r\n      \"1, 2, and 4\",\r\n      \"1, 3, and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 11 \u2013 Third Party Information<\/b><br>Section 11(1) requires the PIO to give written notice to the third party inviting a submission before deciding on disclosure of confidential third-party information \u2014 the PIO cannot disclose it without following this procedure, so Statement 1 is incorrect. Section 19(1) gives the third party a right of first appeal to the Departmental Appellate Authority against the PIO's decision \u2705 (Statement 2). A dissatisfied third party may prefer a second appeal to the Information Commission under Section 19(3) \u2705 (Statement 3). Section 11 itself mandates the prescribed procedure before disclosure \u2705 (Statement 4). Hence, Statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 82,\r\n    year: '2019-20',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 3: CENTRAL INFORMATION COMMISSION',\r\n    question: \"Who among the following is not in the committee to recommend the appointment of the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioner by the President of India?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The Prime Minister, who shall be the Chairperson of the committee\",\r\n      \"The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha\",\r\n      \"A Union Cabinet Minister to be nominated by the Prime Minister\",\r\n      \"The Chief Justice of India\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 12(3) \u2013 Selection Committee for CIC\/IC<\/b><br>Under Section 12(3), the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a three-member committee consisting of the Prime Minister (Chairperson), the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. The Chief Justice of India has no role in this committee, unlike in the appointment process for certain other constitutional\/statutory authorities.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 83,\r\n    year: '2019-20',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 5: POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements with reference to the penalties under the RTI Act, 2005:\\n1. As mentioned in Section 20(1), the Central Information Commission or the State Information Commission shall impose a penalty of two hundred and fifty rupees each day till the application is received or information is furnished; however, the total amount of such penalty shall not exceed twenty-five thousand.\\n2. As the case may be, the Central Public Information Officer or the State Public Information Officer shall be given a reasonable opportunity of being heard before any penalty is imposed.\\n\\nWhich of the above statements is\/are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"Both 1 and 2\",\r\n      \"Neither 1 nor 2\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 20(1) \u2013 Quantum of Penalty and Hearing<\/b><br>Section 20(1) prescribes a penalty of Rs. 250 per day of delay (subject to a maximum of Rs. 25,000) on a CPIO\/SPIO for unreasonable refusal or delay in furnishing information \u2705 (Statement 1). Its proviso requires that the concerned CPIO\/SPIO 'shall be given a reasonable opportunity of being heard before any penalty is imposed' \u2705 (Statement 2). Both statements are correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 84,\r\n    year: '2019-20',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 6: MISCELLANEOUS',\r\n    question: \"The RTI Week is celebrated every year during\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"5th\u201412th September\",\r\n      \"5th\u201412th October\",\r\n      \"5th\u201412th November\",\r\n      \"5th\u201412th December\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>RTI Week \u2013 5th to 12th October<\/b><br>The Right to Information Act, 2005 came into full operation on 12th October 2005. This date is observed annually as 'RTI Day', and public authorities\/civil society organisations mark 'RTI Week' from 5th to 12th October each year to build public awareness about the Act.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 85,\r\n    year: '2019-20',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 1: PRELIMINARY',\r\n    question: \"Which among the following institutions is not considered a 'Public Authority' under the RTI Act, 2005?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Established or constituted by or under the Constitution of India\",\r\n      \"Established by a private entity not financed and controlled by the Government\",\r\n      \"Established or constituted by any law made by the Parliament\",\r\n      \"Established or constituted by any law made by a State Government\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(h) \u2013 Definition of Public Authority<\/b><br>Section 2(h) confines 'public authority' to bodies established by\/under the Constitution, by Parliamentary or State legislation, by government notification, or bodies owned, controlled, or substantially financed by the appropriate Government (including certain NGOs). A body established by a private entity that is NOT financed or controlled by the Government falls entirely outside this definition and is therefore not a 'public authority' under the Act.\"\r\n  },\r\n{\r\n    id: 86,\r\n    year: '2021-22',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 1: PRELIMINARY',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the competent authority under the RTI Act, 2005: Competent authority means:\\n1. the Chief Justice of India, in the case of the Supreme Court.\\n2. the Chief Justice of the High Court, in the case of a High Court.\\n3. the Administrator appointed under Article 239 of the Constitution of India.\\n\\nWhich of the above statements are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(e) \u2013 Definition of Competent Authority<\/b><br>Section 2(e) defines 'competent authority' to include: the Speaker (House of the People\/Legislative Assembly) or Chairman (Council of States\/Legislative Council); the Chief Justice of India in the case of the Supreme Court \u2705; the Chief Justice of the High Court in the case of a High Court \u2705; the President or Governor for other constitutional authorities; and the Administrator appointed under Article 239 of the Constitution \u2705. All three statements correctly reflect categories under this definition.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 87,\r\n    year: '2021-22',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 1: PRELIMINARY',\r\n    question: \"Under the RTI Act, 2005, which one of the following is not an objective of the Act?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Promoting transparency and accountability in the working of every public authority\",\r\n      \"Reducing corruption and promoting good governance\",\r\n      \"Empowering citizens and enhancing their participation in governance\",\r\n      \"Providing unlimited access to classified information\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Preamble & Section 8 \u2013 Balance, Not Unlimited Access<\/b><br>The Preamble to the RTI Act sets out its objectives as promoting transparency and accountability, reducing corruption, and enabling citizens to participate meaningfully in governance. However, this transparency is always balanced against reasonable exemptions under Section 8 (sovereignty, security, privacy, etc.). 'Unlimited access to classified information' was never an objective of the Act \u2014 access is deliberately calibrated, not absolute.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 88,\r\n    year: '2021-22',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"What does Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act, 2005 pertain to?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Information that may cause a breach of privilege of Parliament\",\r\n      \"Information that may prejudicially affect the sovereignty and integrity of India\",\r\n      \"Personal information that can be withheld if it serves a public interest\",\r\n      \"Information relating to trade secrets and intellectual property\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8(1)(j) \u2013 Personal Information Exemption<\/b><br>Section 8(1)(j) exempts 'information which relates to personal information the disclosure of which has no relationship to any public activity or interest, or which would cause unwarranted invasion of the privacy of the individual,' unless the PIO or Appellate Authority is satisfied that larger public interest justifies disclosure. This is the well-known privacy exemption, correctly described in option (c).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 89,\r\n    year: '2021-22',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following clauses pertaining to the obligations of public authority under the RTI Act, 2005:\\n1. Every public authority shall maintain all its records duly cataloged and indexed in a manner and the form which facilitates the Right to Information Act.\\n2. Every public authority shall publish the particulars of its organization, functions, and duties.\\n3. Every information shall be disseminated widely and in such a manner which is easily accessible to the public.\\n4. All materials shall be disseminated taking into consideration the cost effectiveness, local language, and the most effective method of communication in that local area and the information should be easily accessible.\\n\\nWhich of the above clauses is\/are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3, and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1) \u2013 Obligations of Public Authorities<\/b><br>Section 4(1)(a) requires records to be maintained duly catalogued and indexed to facilitate the right to information \u2705; Section 4(1)(b) requires publication of particulars of organisation, functions and duties \u2705; Section 4(2) requires wide dissemination of information in an easily accessible manner \u2705; and Section 4(4) requires dissemination to consider cost-effectiveness, local language, and the most effective method of communication, keeping information easily accessible \u2705. All four clauses are correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 90,\r\n    year: '2021-22',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following is not the obligation of public authority to publish the information on the public domain?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The powers and duties of its officers and employees\",\r\n      \"The norms set by it for the discharge of its functions\",\r\n      \"The information received in confidence from a foreign Government\",\r\n      \"The names, designations, and other particulars of the Public Information Officer\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Sections 4(1)(b) and 8(1)(f)<\/b><br>Section 4(1)(b) requires proactive publication of items such as powers\/duties of officers (cl. ii) \u2705, norms set for the discharge of functions (cl. iv) \u2705, and particulars of the PIOs (cl. xvi) \u2705. However, 'information received in confidence from a foreign Government' is specifically EXEMPTED from disclosure under Section 8(1)(f) \u2014 it is a protected exemption, not a matter of proactive publication.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 91,\r\n    year: '2021-22',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following clauses pertaining to the exemption from disclosure of information under the RTI Act, 2005:\\n1. Details in respect of the information, available to or held by it, reduced in an electronic form.\\n2. Information which has been expressly forbidden to be published by any court of law or tribunal or the disclosure of which may constitute contempt of court.\\n3. Provide reasons for its administrative or quasi-judicial decisions to the affected person.\\n4. Information which would impede the process of investigation or apprehension or prosecution of offenders.\\n\\nWhich of the above clauses are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"3 and 4 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8(1) \u2013 Genuine Exemption Grounds<\/b><br>Among the four items, only Statements 2 and 4 are actual exemptions under Section 8(1): information forbidden from publication by a court\/tribunal or amounting to contempt of court (Section 8(1)(b)) \u2705, and information that would impede investigation, apprehension, or prosecution of offenders (Section 8(1)(h)) \u2705. Statement 1 (publishing details of information held electronically) is a proactive disclosure obligation under Section 4(1)(b), and Statement 3 (providing reasons for administrative\/quasi-judicial decisions) is an obligation under Section 4(1)(d) \u2014 neither is an exemption.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 92,\r\n    year: '2021-22',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 5: POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES',\r\n    question: \"Which Section of the RTI Act, 2005 deals with penalties for non-compliance by public authorities?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 27\",\r\n      \"Section 20\",\r\n      \"Section 10\",\r\n      \"Section 16\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 20 \u2013 Penalties<\/b><br>Section 20 deals with monetary penalties imposable on a CPIO\/SPIO for non-compliance with the Act's requirements (refusal to receive applications, delay in furnishing information, malafide denial, destroying information, or obstructing furnishing of information), along with the possibility of recommending disciplinary action under Section 20(2).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 93,\r\n    year: '2021-22',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following is not a ground for rejection of an RTI application?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The vague or unclear application\",\r\n      \"Application filed by an unauthorized person\",\r\n      \"Application requesting sensitive defense-related information\",\r\n      \"Application seeking information from a private entity\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Applicability of the Act to Public Authorities Only<\/b><br>Vague\/unclear applications cannot be processed for want of clarity, and sensitive defence-related information can be exempted under Section 8(1)(a). However, 'seeking information from a private entity' is not, strictly speaking, a ground for 'rejection' under Sections 8\/9 \u2014 rather, RTI applications can only be made to a 'public authority' as defined under Section 2(h) in the first place; a purely private body (not substantially financed by Government) falls outside the Act's applicability altogether.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 94,\r\n    year: '2021-22',\r\n    chapter: 'Misc.',\r\n    question: \"RTI Act, 2005 is based on which fundamental right of the Constitution of India?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Right to Equality (Article 14)\",\r\n      \"Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression (Article 19)\",\r\n      \"Right to Life and Personal Liberty (Article 21)\",\r\n      \"Right against Exploitation (Article 23)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Constitutional Basis \u2013 Article 19(1)(a)<\/b><br>The Supreme Court has held in several judgments (e.g., State of U.P. v. Raj Narain, and later cases) that the right to information is implicit in the fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a), since meaningful exercise of free speech requires citizens to be well-informed. The RTI Act, 2005 operationalises this constitutionally-rooted right through a statutory framework.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 95,\r\n    year: '2021-22',\r\n    chapter: 'Misc.',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following statements is not correct about the RTI Act, 2005?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The Right of Information Bill has been passed by both the Houses of Parliament and received assent of the President on 15th June, 2005.\",\r\n      \"Any citizen may request information about the activities of the public authority.\",\r\n      \"There is no nominal application fee that is needed to pay to get information under RTI application.\",\r\n      \"The Right to Information (Amendment) Act 2019 (24 of 2019) came into effect on 24-10-2019.\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>RTI Rules, 2012 \u2013 Application Fee<\/b><br>Under the RTI Rules, a nominal application fee (typically Rs. 10 for Central public authorities) is prescribed, except for applicants belonging to the Below Poverty Line (BPL) category, who are exempt under the proviso to Section 7(5). The claim that 'no fee is needed' is therefore incorrect. The other statements \u2014 Presidential assent on 15 June 2005, the right of any citizen to seek information (Section 3), and the RTI (Amendment) Act 2019 coming into force on 24-10-2019 \u2014 are all factually correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 96,\r\n    year: '2021-22',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 3: CENTRAL INFORMATION COMMISSION',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements: The Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners shall be appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of\\n1. the Prime Minister, who shall be the Chairperson of the committee.\\n2. the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha.\\n3. a Union Cabinet Minister to be nominated by the Prime Minister.\\n\\nWhich of the above statements are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, and 3\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 12(3) \u2013 Selection Committee<\/b><br>Section 12(3) provides that the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a three-member committee: the Prime Minister (Chairperson), the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. All three statements are correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 97,\r\n    year: '2021-22',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 5: POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements pertaining to powers and functions of the Information Commission to receive and inquire into a complaint from any person:\\n1. Who has not been refused access to any information requested under the RTI Act, 2005.\\n2. Who has not been given a response to a request for information or access to information within the time limits specified under the RTI Act, 2005.\\n3. Who believes that he or she has been given incomplete, misleading, or false information under the RTI Act, 2005.\\n\\nWhich of the above statements are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 18(1) \u2013 Grounds for Complaint<\/b><br>Section 18(1)(b) actually provides for a complaint from a person 'who has been refused access to any information' \u2014 Statement 1, worded as 'has NOT been refused access', misstates this ground and is incorrect. Section 18(1)(c) covers a person who has not received a response within the specified time limits \u2705 (Statement 2). Section 18(1)(e) covers a person who believes the information given is incomplete, misleading, or false \u2705 (Statement 3). Hence, only Statements 2 and 3 are correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 98,\r\n    year: '2021-22',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 5: POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES',\r\n    question: \"The Commission shall impose how much amount as the penalty on each day, if the PIO, without any reasonable cause, refused to receive an application for information till it reaches Rupees twenty-five thousand under the RTI Act, 2005?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"\u20b9 200\",\r\n      \"\u20b9 225\",\r\n      \"\u20b9 250\",\r\n      \"\u20b9 300\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 20(1) \u2013 Quantum of Penalty<\/b><br>Section 20(1) prescribes a penalty of Rs. 250 per day of delay\/refusal, subject to a total maximum of Rs. 25,000, imposable on a CPIO\/SPIO who has acted without reasonable cause.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 99,\r\n    year: '2021-22',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 6: MISCELLANEOUS',\r\n    question: \"The RTI Act, 2005 mandates that all public authorities must proactively disclose certain categories of information. What is this proactive disclosure mechanism called?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"RTI Monitoring System\",\r\n      \"Central Information Portal\",\r\n      \"National Public Information Directory\",\r\n      \"RTI Annual Report\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1)(b) & Section 25 \u2013 Proactive Disclosure and Reporting<\/b><br>Section 4(1)(b) mandates proactive (suo motu) disclosure of specified categories of information by every public authority, reducing the need for individual RTI applications. This regime is consolidated and monitored through the RTI Annual Report prepared under Section 25, to which every public authority contributes data, and which is compiled and submitted by the Central\/State Information Commission to the appropriate Government for tabling before Parliament\/the State Legislature.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 100,\r\n    year: '2021-22',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following is not a method of filing an RTI application?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Online through the RTI portal\",\r\n      \"By post\",\r\n      \"In person to the Chief Information Commissioner\",\r\n      \"By hand to the Public Information Officer\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Sections 5 & 6 \u2013 Where an Application Must Be Filed<\/b><br>RTI applications are filed with the PIO\/APIO of the concerned public authority \u2014 online (via the RTI portal), by post, or by hand \u2014 as provided under Sections 5 and 6. There is no provision for filing an application directly, in person, to the Chief Information Commissioner, who has no role in receiving first-instance applications; his role begins only at the second-appeal\/complaint stage under Sections 18 and 19.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 101,\r\n    year: '2021-22',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 5: POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES',\r\n    question: \"Who can file an appeal before the Central Information Commission?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only the applicant whose RTI application was rejected\",\r\n      \"Any third party affected by the RTI application\",\r\n      \"Only the Chief Information Commissioner\",\r\n      \"Any citizen who is aggrieved by the decision of the Public Information Officer\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19 \u2013 Right of Appeal<\/b><br>Section 19 allows a second appeal to the Information Commission by any person aggrieved by a decision of the First Appellate Authority (which itself hears appeals from persons aggrieved by the PIO's decision), which broadly includes not just the original applicant but also any affected citizen (including a third party in appropriate cases) who has gone through the first-appeal process.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 102,\r\n    year: '2021-22',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"What is the fee prescribed under the RTI Rules, 2012 for the Below Poverty Line applicant?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"\u20b9 10\",\r\n      \"\u20b9 20\",\r\n      \"\u20b9 30\",\r\n      \"Exempted from payment of fee\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 7(5) proviso & RTI Rules, 2012 \u2013 BPL Exemption<\/b><br>Under the proviso to Section 7(5), read with the RTI Rules, 2012, a person belonging to the Below Poverty Line (BPL) category is not required to pay any fee for seeking information under the Act, provided proof of BPL status is furnished along with the application.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 103,\r\n    year: '2021-22',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following is the normal time limit for disposal of the RTI request from the date of receipt?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"15 days\",\r\n      \"20 days\",\r\n      \"25 days\",\r\n      \"30 days\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 7(1) \u2013 Time Limit for Disposal<\/b><br>Section 7(1) requires disposal of a request 'as expeditiously as possible, and in any case within thirty days of the receipt of the request' \u2014 this is the normal time limit, reduced to 48 hours where the information concerns life or liberty.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 104,\r\n    year: '2021-22',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 6: MISCELLANEOUS',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following Sections of the RTI Act, 2005 provides protection to the persons giving information under the Act?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 11\",\r\n      \"Section 22\",\r\n      \"Section 24\",\r\n      \"Section 27\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Note on this question<\/b><br>The provision that specifically protects persons who furnish information in good faith under the Act from suit, prosecution, or other legal proceedings is <b>Section 21 ('Protection of action taken in good faith')<\/b> \u2014 however, Section 21 is not among the options listed for this question. Of the options given, Section 22 ('Act to have overriding effect') ensures the Act \u2014 and by extension the good-faith protection under Section 21 that operates alongside it \u2014 prevails over conflicting provisions of the Official Secrets Act, 1923 and other laws that might otherwise expose an informant or officer to liability. If revising this question bank, it would be worth double-checking whether Section 21 should be added as an option here, since it is the section that directly and expressly grants this protection.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 105,\r\n    year: '2021-22',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 6: MISCELLANEOUS',\r\n    question: \"Which Section of the RTI Act, 2005 empowers the Central Government to make rules to carry out the provisions of the Act?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 18\",\r\n      \"Section 27\",\r\n      \"Section 30\",\r\n      \"Section 32\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 27 \u2013 Power to Make Rules by Appropriate Government<\/b><br>Section 27 empowers the appropriate Government (Central or State), by notification in the Official Gazette, to make rules to carry out the provisions of the Act \u2014 covering matters such as fee structures, additional costs of providing information, and other prescribed particulars.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 106,\r\n    year: '2021-22',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Under the RTI Act, 2005, can the applicant seek information through email or electronic means?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Yes, electronic requests are allowed\",\r\n      \"No, only physical applications are accepted\",\r\n      \"Depends on the discretion of the public authority\",\r\n      \"Electronic requests are allowed, but only for certain types of information\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 6(1) \u2013 Request in Writing or Electronic Means<\/b><br>Section 6(1) permits a person seeking information to make a request 'in writing or through electronic means in English or Hindi or in the official language of the area,' meaning electronic (including email) requests are expressly permitted for any type of information covered by the Act.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 107,\r\n    year: '2021-22',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 5: POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES',\r\n    question: \"From the date of expiry of the prescribed period, or from the receipt of communication from the CPIO, what is the time limit for filing of first appeal?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Within 15 days\",\r\n      \"Within 20 days\",\r\n      \"Within 25 days\",\r\n      \"Within 30 days\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(1) \u2013 Time Limit for First Appeal<\/b><br>Section 19(1) provides that a first appeal must be filed within thirty days from the expiry of the prescribed period for disposal of the request, or from the date of receipt of the decision, whichever is applicable \u2014 though the appellate authority may admit the appeal after this period if satisfied there was sufficient cause for the delay.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 108,\r\n    year: '2021-22',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 6: MISCELLANEOUS',\r\n    question: \"Which Section of the RTI Act, 2005 deals with the protection for work done in good faith?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 21\",\r\n      \"Section 22\",\r\n      \"Section 23\",\r\n      \"Section 24\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 21 \u2013 Protection of Action Taken in Good Faith<\/b><br>Section 21 bars any suit, prosecution, or other legal proceeding against any person for anything done, or intended to be done, in good faith under the Act or any rule made thereunder. This protects officials (like PIOs) as well as citizens\/informants who furnish information in good faith while implementing or availing the Act. (This confirms Section 21 as the correct provision \u2014 see the note under the earlier question at id 45, whose options omitted this section.)\"\r\n  },\r\n{\r\n    id: 109,\r\n    year: '2023',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"The officer designated by the public authorities in all administrative units or offices under it to provide information to the citizens requesting information under the Act is known as:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Appellate Authority\",\r\n      \"Chief Information Commissioner\",\r\n      \"Public Information Officer\",\r\n      \"Assistant Public Information Officer\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 5(1) \u2013 Designation of Public Information Officers<\/b><br>Section 5(1) of the RTI Act, 2005 requires every public authority to designate, within 100 days of the Act's enactment, Central\/State Public Information Officers in all administrative units or offices to provide information to persons requesting it under the Act. This officer is the Public Information Officer (PIO) \u2014 distinct from the Appellate Authority (who hears first appeals), the Chief Information Commissioner (who heads the Central Information Commission), and the Assistant Public Information Officer (who receives\/forwards applications at the sub-divisional level under Section 5(2)).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 110,\r\n    year: '2023',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements: Under RTI Act, 2005, the grounds for a complaint could be:\\n1. Being asked to pay an unreasonable amount of fee.\\n2. Being given incomplete or false information.\\n3. Any matter relating to, requesting or obtaining access to records.\\n\\nWhich of the above statements is\/are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 18(1) \u2013 Grounds for Complaint<\/b><br>Section 18(1) empowers the Information Commission to receive and inquire into complaints on several grounds, including: (d) being required to pay a fee considered unreasonable \u2705 (Statement 1); (e) being given incomplete, misleading or false information \u2705 (Statement 2); and (f) 'in respect of any other matter relating to requesting or obtaining access to records' \u2014 a residuary\/catch-all ground \u2705 (Statement 3). All three statements are valid grounds for a complaint under Section 18(1).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 111,\r\n    year: '2023',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements: Section 4(1)(b) (xi) of RTI Act, 2005 states that a public authority should publish:\\n1. The budget allocated to each of its agency.\\n2. The proposed expenditures.\\n3. Reports on disbursements made.\\n\\nWhich of the above statements is\/are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1)(b)(xi) \u2013 Proactive Disclosure of Budget<\/b><br>Section 4(1)(b)(xi) requires every public authority to publish 'the budget allocated to each of its agency, indicating the particulars of all plans, proposed expenditures and reports on disbursements made.' This single clause covers all three elements \u2014 budget allocation, proposed expenditure, and disbursement reports \u2014 so all three statements are correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 112,\r\n    year: '2023',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following Sections of RTI Act, 2005 deals with 'obligations of public authorities'?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 6\",\r\n      \"Section 7\",\r\n      \"Section 4(1)\",\r\n      \"Section 8\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4 \u2013 Obligations of Public Authorities<\/b><br>Section 4(1) lays down the obligations of public authorities, including maintenance of records, proactive\/suo motu disclosure of specified categories of information under Section 4(1)(b), and computerisation of records. Sections 6, 7 and 8 deal instead with the request procedure, disposal of requests, and exemptions respectively \u2014 not the general obligations of public authorities.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 113,\r\n    year: '2023',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 3: CENTRAL INFORMATION COMMISSION',\r\n    question: \"Which of the following Sections of RTI Act, 2005 deal(s) with 'Constitution of Central Information Commission'?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 11\",\r\n      \"Section 16\",\r\n      \"Section 14 and 15\",\r\n      \"Section 12 and 13\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Sections 12 & 13 \u2013 Setting Up the Central Information Commission<\/b><br>Section 12 empowers the Central Government to constitute the Central Information Commission, prescribing its composition (a Chief Information Commissioner and up to ten Information Commissioners) and the three-member selection committee that recommends appointments. Section 13 complements this by prescribing the term of office and conditions of service of these appointees. Read together, these two sections lay down the complete framework for constituting and staffing the Commission. Section 14 deals with removal, and Sections 11 and 16 are unrelated (third-party information and the State Commission's term of office, respectively).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 114,\r\n    year: '2023',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 1: PRELIMINARY',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements: Right to Information includes the right to:\\n1. Inspect works, documents, records.\\n2. Take notes, extracts or certified copies of documents or records.\\n3. Take certified samples of material.\\n4. Obtain information in the form of printouts, diskettes, floppies, tapes, video cassettes or in any other electronic mode or through printouts.\\n\\nWhich of the above statements is\/are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(j) \u2013 Definition of Right to Information<\/b><br>Section 2(j) defines 'right to information' as including the right to (i) inspection of work, documents, records; (ii) taking notes, extracts or certified copies of documents\/records; (iii) taking certified samples of material; and (iv) obtaining information in electronic form (diskettes, floppies, tapes, video cassettes, or any other electronic mode or through printouts). All four statements accurately reflect this definition.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 115,\r\n    year: '2023',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements: The obligations of public authorities under RTI Act, 2005 include:\\n1. It shall publish the powers and duties of its officers and employees.\\n2. It shall publish the procedure followed in its decision-making process, including channels of supervision and accountability.\\n3. It shall publish the norms set by it for the discharge of its functions.\\n4. It shall publish the rules, regulations, instructions, manuals and records used by its employees for discharging its functions.\\n5. It shall not publish the statement of the categories of the documents held by it or under its control.\\n\\nWhich of the above statements is\/are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 5 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3, 4 and 5 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3, 4 and 5\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1)(b) \u2013 Obligations to Publish<\/b><br>Section 4(1)(b) requires publication of, among other things: powers and duties of officers\/employees, cl. (ii) \u2705; procedure followed in decision-making including channels of supervision and accountability, cl. (iii) \u2705; norms set for discharge of functions, cl. (iv) \u2705; and rules, regulations, instructions, manuals and records used by employees, cl. (vii) \u2705. However, Section 4(1)(b)(v) actually REQUIRES publication of the statement of categories of documents held \u2014 it does not prohibit it. Statement 5, which claims the authority 'shall not' publish this, is incorrect, so the answer is 1, 2, 3 and 4 only.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 116,\r\n    year: '2023',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"What are the information not open to disclosure under RTI Act, 2005?\\n1. Disclosure of which would prejudicially affect the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security, strategic, scientific or economic interests of the State, relation with foreign State or lead to incitement of an offense.\\n2. Information which has been expressly forbidden to be published by any court of law or tribunal or the disclosure of which may constitute contempt of court.\\n3. Information, the disclosure of which would cause a breach of privilege of Parliament or the State Legislature.\\n4. Information including commercial confidence, trade secrets or intellectual property, the disclosure of which would harm the competitive position of a third party unless the competent authority is satisfied that larger public interest warrants the disclosure of such information.\\n\\nChoose the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8(1) \u2013 Exemption from Disclosure of Information<\/b><br>Section 8(1)(a) exempts information affecting sovereignty\/integrity, security, strategic, scientific or economic interests of the State, foreign relations, or that would incite an offence \u2705; Section 8(1)(b) exempts information forbidden by a court\/tribunal or that would amount to contempt of court \u2705; Section 8(1)(c) exempts information that would cause a breach of parliamentary\/legislative privilege \u2705; and Section 8(1)(d) exempts commercial confidence, trade secrets, or intellectual property, unless larger public interest warrants disclosure \u2705. All four statements correctly reflect grounds under Section 8(1).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 117,\r\n    year: '2023',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following Sections of RTI Act, 2005 deals with 'exemption from disclosure of information'?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 8\",\r\n      \"Section 9\",\r\n      \"Section 11\",\r\n      \"Section 7\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8 \u2013 Exemption from Disclosure of Information<\/b><br>Section 8 lists ten categories of information (clauses (a) to (j)) that a public authority may refuse to disclose, ranging from sovereignty\/security concerns to personal privacy. Section 9 deals separately with the narrower ground of copyright infringement, Section 7 with disposal of requests, and Section 11 with third-party information.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 118,\r\n    year: '2023',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Under which one of the following sections of RTI Act, 2005, a Central\/State Public Information Officer may reject a request for information where such a request for providing access would involve an infringement of copyright subsisting in a person other than the State?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 8\",\r\n      \"Section 9\",\r\n      \"Section 10\",\r\n      \"Section 11\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 9 \u2013 Grounds for Rejection to Access in Certain Cases<\/b><br>Section 9 provides that a PIO 'may reject a request for information where such a request for providing access would involve an infringement of copyright subsisting in a person other than the State.' This is a distinct, standalone ground of rejection separate from the general exemptions listed in Section 8.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 119,\r\n    year: '2023',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 1: PRELIMINARY',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\nThe definition of \\\"Information\\\" under Section 2(f) of RTI Act, 2005 includes\\n1. Records\\n2. Opinions\\n3. Documents\\n\\nWhich of the above statements are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(f) \u2013 Definition of Information<\/b><br>Section 2(f) defines 'information' as 'any material in any form, including records, documents, memos, e-mails, opinions, advices, press releases, circulars, orders, logbooks, contracts, reports, papers, samples, models, data material held in any electronic form and information relating to any private body which can be accessed by a public authority under any other law for the time being in force.' Records, documents, and opinions are all explicitly named, making all three statements correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 120,\r\n    year: '2023',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements: The RTI Act, 2005 stipulates that a Public Authority should transfer an RTI application or a part thereof to another Public Authority if the application or a part of it pertains to information\\n1. held by another Public Authority.\\n2. the subject matter of which is more closely connected with the functions of another Public Authority.\\n\\nWhich of the above statements is\/are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"Both 1 and 2\",\r\n      \"Neither 1 nor 2\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 6(3) \u2013 Transfer of Application<\/b><br>Section 6(3) requires transfer of an application (or the relevant part) where the information sought (a) is held by another public authority, or (b) the subject matter of which is more closely connected with the functions of another public authority. Both grounds are explicitly provided for, so 'Both 1 and 2' is correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 121,\r\n    year: '2023',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following Sections deals with severability in the RTI Act, 2005?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 11\",\r\n      \"Section 9\",\r\n      \"Section 10\",\r\n      \"Section 12\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 10 \u2013 Severability<\/b><br>Section 10 allows a public authority to sever the exempted part of a record from the non-exempt part, and provide access to the remaining non-exempt information, along with a notice explaining the severance under Section 10(2).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 122,\r\n    year: '2023',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 1: PRELIMINARY',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements: As per Section 2(h) of RTI Act, 2005 \\\"public authority\\\" means any authority or body or institution of self-Government established or constituted\\n1. by or under the Constitution.\\n2. by any other law made by Parliament.\\n3. by any other law made by State Legislature.\\n4. by notification issued or order made by the appropriate Government.\\n\\nWhich of the above statements are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(h) \u2013 Definition of Public Authority<\/b><br>Section 2(h) defines 'public authority' as any authority, body, or institution of self-government established or constituted (i) by or under the Constitution; (ii) by any other law made by Parliament; (iii) by any other law made by a State Legislature; or (iv) by notification issued or order made by the appropriate Government, and further extends to bodies owned, controlled or substantially financed by the Government. All four statements correctly reflect this definition.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 123,\r\n    year: '2023',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 1: PRELIMINARY',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements: As per Section 2(i) of RTI Act, 2005 'record' includes\\n1. any document, manuscript and file.\\n2. any microfilm, microfiche and facsimile copy of a document.\\n3. any reproduction of image or images embodied in such microfilm.\\n4. any other material produced by a computer or any other device.\\n\\nWhich of the above statements are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(i) \u2013 Definition of Record<\/b><br>Section 2(i) defines 'record' to include (i) any document, manuscript and file; (ii) any microfilm, microfiche and facsimile copy of a document; (iii) any reproduction of image or images embodied in such microfilm; and (iv) any other material produced by a computer or any other device. All four statements form part of this definition.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 124,\r\n    year: '2023',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 5: POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES',\r\n    question: \"Which of the following are correct about an inquiry carried out by an Information Commission?\\n1. It may examine any record to which the RTI Act, 2005 applies.\\n2. No such record can be withheld from it (irrespective of any provision of any Act passed by the Parliament or the State Legislature).\\n3. IC has the powers of a Civil Court trying a suit under the Code of Civil Procedure.\\n\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 18(3) \u2013 Powers of Inquiry<\/b><br>While inquiring into any matter, the Information Commission may examine any record to which the Act applies and which is under the control of the public authority \u2705; no such record may be withheld from it on any ground, notwithstanding any other law in force \u2705; and it has the same powers as vested in a civil court trying a suit under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 \u2014 such as summoning and enforcing attendance of persons, requiring discovery\/inspection of documents, and receiving evidence on affidavit \u2705. All three statements are correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 125,\r\n    year: '2023',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 5: POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\nA Public Information Officer will be liable to be imposed a monetary penalty for:\\n1. refusal to receive an information application.\\n2. not providing information within specified time limits.\\n3. destroying information.\\n\\nWhich of the above statements are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 20(1) \u2013 Grounds for Penalty<\/b><br>Section 20(1) empowers the Information Commission to impose a penalty of Rs. 250 per day (up to a maximum of Rs. 25,000) on a PIO who, without reasonable cause, (i) refused to receive an application, (ii) failed to furnish information within the specified time, or (iii) destroyed information that was the subject of the request. All three statements correctly describe penalty-attracting conduct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 126,\r\n    year: '2023',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Who receives applications under the RTI Act, 2005?\\n1. Public Information Officer at the administrative unit level.\\n2. Assistant Public Information Officer at the sub-district, sub-divisional levels.\\n3. Any officer of a Public Authority who is available in the Authority's office when the application is made.\\n\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Sections 5(1) & 5(2) \u2013 Officers Authorised to Receive Applications<\/b><br>Under Section 5(1), a Public Information Officer designated at the administrative unit\/office level receives applications \u2705. Under Section 5(2), an Assistant Public Information Officer designated at the sub-divisional\/sub-district level also receives applications and forwards them to the appropriate PIO \u2705. The Act does not authorise 'any officer available in the office' to receive applications \u2014 only specifically designated PIOs\/APIOs can do so, making Statement 3 incorrect. Hence, only Statements 1 and 2 are correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 127,\r\n    year: '2023',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements: An applicant making a request for information\\n1. shall give the reason for which the information is sought.\\n2. shall give the personal details of the applicant.\\n3. shall not give any reason for requesting the information or any other personal details except those that may be necessary for contacting him.\\n\\nWhich of the above statements is\/are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 6(2) \u2013 No Reasons or Personal Details Required<\/b><br>Section 6(2) explicitly states that an applicant making a request for information 'shall not be required to give any reason for requesting the information or any other personal details except those that may be necessary for contacting him.' Only Statement 3 correctly reflects this provision; Statements 1 and 2 contradict it.\"\r\n  },\r\n{\r\n    id: 128,\r\n    year: '2024',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following sections of the RTI Act, 2005 deals with severability?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 9\",\r\n      \"Section 10\",\r\n      \"Section 11\",\r\n      \"Section 12\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 10 \u2013 Severability<\/b><br>Section 10(1) of the RTI Act, 2005 states that if a request for information contains both exempt and non-exempt information, the Public Authority must provide access to the non-exempt part after severing the exempted portion.<br>Section 10(2) mandates that the applicant be informed about the decision of severability and reasons for the denial of certain portions.<br><b>Extract from Section 10(1):<\/b><br>\\\"Where a request for access to information is rejected on the ground that it is in relation to information which is exempt from disclosure, then, notwithstanding anything contained in this Act, access may be provided to that part of the record which does not contain exempt information and which can reasonably be severed.\\\"\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 129,\r\n    year: '2024',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 1: PRELIMINARY',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\nAs per Section 2(h) of the RTI Act, 2005, \\\"public authority\\\" means any authority or body or institution of self-government established or constituted:\\n1. By any other law made by the Parliament.\\n2. By any other law made by the State legislature.\\n3. By notification issued or order made by the appropriate Government.\\n\\nWhich of the above statements are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(h) \u2013 Definition of Public Authority<\/b><br>Section 2(h) of the RTI Act, 2005 defines Public Authority as:<br>(i) A body established by the Constitution<br>(ii) A body created by any law made by Parliament \u2705<br>(iii) A body created by any law made by a State Legislature \u2705<br>(iv) A body created by any notification issued or order made by the Government \u2705<br>(v) Any entity substantially financed by the Government<br>Thus, all three statements are correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 130,\r\n    year: '2024',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 6: MISCELLANEOUS',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\nRTI Act, 2005 is not applicable to:\\n1. All non-Government organisations substantially financed by political parties.\\n2. All bodies owned, controlled, or substantially financed by the appropriate Government.\\n\\nWhich of the above statements is\/are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"Both 1 and 2\",\r\n      \"Neither 1 nor 2\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 24(1) of the RTI Act<\/b> states that the Act does not apply to intelligence and security organizations specified in the Second Schedule, except in cases related to corruption and human rights violations.<br>Non-Government organizations financed by political parties are not explicitly exempt from RTI. However, political parties themselves have been declared outside the RTI Act by a CIC ruling.<br>Thus, only statement 2 is correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 131,\r\n    year: '2024',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 1: PRELIMINARY',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\nAs per Section 2(i) of the RTI Act, 2005, \\\"record\\\" includes:\\n1. Any microfilm, microfiche, and facsimile copy of a document.\\n2. Any reproduction of image or images embodied in such microfilm.\\n3. Any other material produced by a computer or any other device.\\n\\nWhich of the above statements are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(i) \u2013 Definition of Record<\/b><br>Section 2(i) of the RTI Act defines \\\"record\\\" as including:<br>1. Any document, manuscript, and file<br>2. Any microfilm, microfiche, and facsimile copy of a document \u2705<br>3. Any reproduction of image or images embodied in such microfilm \u2705<br>4. Any other material produced by a computer or any other device \u2705<br>Thus, all three statements are correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 132,\r\n    year: '2024',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 5: POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements about an inquiry carried out by an Information Commission:\\n1. It may examine any record to which the RTI Act, 2005 applies.\\n2. No such record can be withheld from it (irrespective of any provision of any Act passed by the Parliament or the State legislature).\\n3. The Information Commission has the powers of a civil court trying a suit under the Code of Civil Procedure.\\n\\nWhich of the above statements are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 18(3) \u2013 Inquiry Powers of the Commission<\/b><br>Section 18(3) of the RTI Act states that while inquiring into complaints, the Information Commission has the same powers as a civil court.<br>It can examine any record to which RTI applies, and no such record can be withheld from it, even if some other law prohibits disclosure.<br>Thus, all three statements are correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 133,\r\n    year: '2024',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\nThe RTI Act, 2005 stipulates that a Public Authority should transfer an RTI application or a part thereof to another Public Authority if the application or a part of it pertains to information:\\n1. Held by another Public Authority.\\n2. Which is more closely connected with the functions of another Public Authority.\\n\\nWhich of the above statements is\/are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"Both 1 and 2\",\r\n      \"Neither 1 nor 2\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 6(3) \u2013 Transfer of RTI Requests<\/b><br>Section 6(3) of the RTI Act states that if a Public Authority receives an RTI application that relates to another Public Authority's jurisdiction, it must transfer it within 5 days.<br>The authority must also inform the applicant about the transfer.<br>Thus, both statements are correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 134,\r\n    year: '2024',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. A Public Information Officer at the administrative unit level will receive applications under the RTI Act, 2005.\\n2. An Assistant Public Information Officer at the sub-district and sub-divisional levels will receive applications under the RTI Act, 2005.\\n3. Any officer of a public authority, who is available in the authority's office when the application is made, will receive applications under the RTI Act, 2005.\\n\\nWhich of the above statements are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 5 \u2013 Public Information Officers:<\/b><br>Section 5(1) of the RTI Act: Every Public Authority must designate a Public Information Officer (PIO) to receive RTI applications. \u2705<br>Section 5(2): The Government may also appoint Assistant Public Information Officers (APIOs) at the sub-district and sub-divisional levels. \u2705<br>Statement 3 is incorrect: There is no provision for \\\"any officer in the office\\\" to receive applications. \u274c<br>Thus, statements 1 and 2 are correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 135,\r\n    year: '2024',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\nAn applicant making a request for information under the RTI Act, 2005:\\n1. Shall give the reason why the information is sought.\\n2. Shall give his\/her personal details.\\n3. Shall not give any reason for requesting the information or any other personal details except those necessary for contacting him\/her.\\n\\nWhich of the above statements is\/are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 6(2) \u2013 No Need to Provide Reasons or Personal Details<\/b><br>Section 6(2) of the RTI Act:<br>\\\"An applicant making a request for information shall not be required to give any reason for requesting the information or any other personal details except those necessary for contacting him.\\\"<br>Thus, statement 3 is correct, and statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 136,\r\n    year: '2024',\r\n    chapter: 'Misc.',\r\n    question: \"The first Indian state to introduce the law on RTI was:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Tamil Nadu\",\r\n      \"Uttar Pradesh\",\r\n      \"Maharashtra\",\r\n      \"Gujarat\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"Tamil Nadu was the first state to pass an RTI law in 1997, long before the central RTI Act, 2005, was enacted.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 137,\r\n    year: '2024',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 5: POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES',\r\n    question: \"What is the time limit specified in the RTI Act, 2005 for the Central\/State Information Commissions to decide on complaints?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"15 days\",\r\n      \"One month\",\r\n      \"Two months\",\r\n      \"No such time limit has been specified\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 18 \u2013 Complaints to the Commission<\/b><br>The RTI Act does not specify any time limit for the Information Commission to decide on complaints.<br>Section 18 of the RTI Act provides the power to the Commission to inquire into complaints, but it does not impose a deadline for deciding them.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 138,\r\n    year: '2024',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"How could a Public Information Officer receive applications?\\n1. Those submitted by an applicant by hand.\\n2. Those sent by an applicant by E-Mail.\\n3. Transferred by another Public Authority.\\n4. Forwarded by an Assistant Public Information Officer.\\n\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2, and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3, and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3, and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 6 \u2013 RTI Application Submission<\/b><br>As per Section 6(1) of the RTI Act, an RTI application can be submitted:<br>1. By hand (physically) \u2013 \u2705<br>2. By email or electronic means \u2013 \u2705 (As per the RTI Rules, applications can be submitted via email where online RTI is facilitated.)<br>3. Transferred by another Public Authority (Section 6(3)) \u2013 \u2705<br>4. Forwarded by an Assistant Public Information Officer (APIO) (Section 5(2)) \u2013 \u2705<br>Thus, all four options are correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 139,\r\n    year: '2024',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 5: POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\nA first appeal against the decision of a Public Information Officer (PIO) can be preferred by:\\n1. An applicant.\\n2. A person from within the Public Authority.\\n3. A person outside the Public Authority to whom the information pertains.\\n\\nWhich of the above statements are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(1) \u2013 First Appeal<\/b><br>Section 19(1) of the RTI Act:<br>\\\"Any person who, does not receive a decision within the prescribed time or is aggrieved by a decision of the PIO, may file an appeal.\\\"<br>Applicant (RTI requestor) can appeal \u2013 \u2705<br>A person within the Public Authority (if affected by PIO's decision) \u2013 \u2705<br>A person outside the Public Authority to whom the information pertains \u2013 \u274c (No provision allows this.)<br>Thus, statements 1 and 2 are correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 140,\r\n    year: '2024',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 5: POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\nA Public Information Officer will be liable to be imposed a monetary penalty for:\\n1. Refusal to receive an information application.\\n2. Not providing information within the specified time limits.\\n3. Destroying information.\\n\\nWhich of the above statements are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 20 \u2013 Penalties on PIOs<\/b><br>Section 20(1) of the RTI Act states that a PIO can be penalized \u20b9250 per day up to \u20b925,000 for:<br>1. Refusing to receive an RTI application \u2013 \u2705<br>2. Not providing information within the prescribed time \u2013 \u2705<br>3. Destroying requested information \u2013 \u2705<br>Thus, all three statements are correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 141,\r\n    year: '2024',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 5: POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\nWhile inquiring into a complaint, Information Commissions have the power to:\\n1. Summon and enforce attendance of persons.\\n2. Compel them to give evidence on oath and produce documents or things.\\n3. Require discovery and inspection of documents.\\n\\nWhich of the above statements is\/are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 18(3) \u2013 Inquiry Powers of the Commission<\/b><br>The Information Commission has powers of a civil court and can:<br>1. Summon and enforce attendance of persons \u2013 \u2705<br>2. Compel them to give evidence on oath and produce documents \u2013 \u2705<br>3. Require discovery and inspection of documents \u2013 \u2705<br>Thus, all three statements are correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 142,\r\n    year: '2024',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. A PIO has to offer reasonable assistance to the person making the request orally to record the same in writing.\\n2. A PIO is under no obligation to provide requested information to non-BPL category persons without the payment of application\/initial fees.\\n3. A PIO is under no obligation to provide requested information to non-BPL category persons without the payment of further fees as specified by her\/him.\\n\\nWhich of the above statements are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Sections 5 & 7 \u2013 PIO's Responsibilities<\/b><br>1. PIO must assist applicants in writing down their request if they cannot do so (Section 5(3)) \u2013 \u2705<br>2. Non-BPL applicants must pay application\/initial fees (RTI Rules) \u2013 \u2705<br>3. Non-BPL applicants must also pay additional fees for information supply (Section 7(1)) \u2013 \u2705<br>Thus, all three statements are correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 143,\r\n    year: '2024',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 5: POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES',\r\n    question: \"Time limit for filing the first appeal by an applicant under Sub-section (1) of Section 19 of the RTI Act, 2005 is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"30 days from the receipt of PIO's decision\",\r\n      \"10 days from the receipt of PIO's decision\",\r\n      \"40 days from the receipt of PIO's decision\",\r\n      \"45 days from the receipt of PIO's decision\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(1) \u2013 Time Limit for First Appeal<\/b><br>An RTI applicant must file the first appeal within 30 days of receiving the PIO's response.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 144,\r\n    year: '2024',\r\n    chapter: 'Misc.',\r\n    question: \"How many schedules does the RTI Act, 2005 have?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1\",\r\n      \"2\",\r\n      \"8\",\r\n      \"10\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>THE FIRST SCHEDULE:<\/b> Form of oath or affirmation to be made by the Chief Information Commissioner\/the Information Commissioner\/the State Chief Information Commissioner\/the State Information Commissioner<br><b>THE SECOND SCHEDULE:<\/b> Intelligence and security organisation established by the Central Government.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 145,\r\n    year: '2024',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\nThe Second Schedule of the RTI Act, 2005 lists\\n1. the intelligence and security organizations established by the Central Government that are exempted from the purview of the RTI Act, 2005.\\n2. all Government organizations come under the purview of the RTI Act, 2005.\\n3. all departmental information of the Central and State Governments.\\n\\nWhich of the above statements is\/are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Second Schedule \u2013 Exempted Organizations<\/b><br>The Second Schedule lists intelligence and security organizations exempt from RTI (Section 24) \u2013 \u2705<br>It does NOT list all Government organizations or general departmental information \u2013 \u274c<br>Thus, only statement 1 is correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 146,\r\n    year: '2024',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 6: MISCELLANEOUS',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\nAccording to the RTI Act, 2005, as far as exempted organizations are concerned, the exemption applies to:\\n1. Certain organizations of the Central Government as listed in the Second Schedule and to the information submitted by these organizations to the Central Government.\\n2. Certain organizations of the State Governments as may be notified by them in the Official Gazette, but not to the information furnished by these organizations to the respective State Governments.\\n\\nWhich of the above statements is\/are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"Both 1 and 2\",\r\n      \"Neither 1 nor 2\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 24 \u2013 Exempted Organizations<\/b><br>Central Government agencies listed in the Second Schedule are exempt from RTI, including the information they submit to the government \u2013 \u2705<br>State Governments can also exempt agencies, but the exemption does NOT apply to information furnished to State Governments \u2013 \u2705<br>Thus, both statements are correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 147,\r\n    year: '2024',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 5: POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\nWhile inquiring into a complaint, Information Commissions have the power:\\n1. to receive evidence on affidavit.\\n2. to requisition any public records or copies thereof from any court or office.\\n3. to issue summons for the examination of witnesses or documents.\\n\\nWhich of the above statements are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 18(3) \u2013 Inquiry Powers of Information Commissions<\/b><br>While inquiring into a complaint, the Commission has powers to:<br>1. Receive evidence on affidavit \u2013 \u2705<br>2. Requisition public records from courts or offices \u2013 \u2705<br>3. Issue summons for examination of witnesses or documents \u2013 \u2705<br>Thus, all three statements are correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 148,\r\n    year: '2025',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 1: PRELIMINARY',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding RTI Act, 2005 : 'Right to Information' under the RTI Act, 2005 includes the right to :<br>1. Taking notes, extracts, or certified copies of documents or records.<br>2. Inspection of work, document, records.<br>3. Taking certified samples of material.<br>4. Obtaining information in any electronic mode.<br>Which of the above statements are correct ?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Correct Answer: D - 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br><b>Analysis of Statement:<\/b><br>As per Section 2(j) of the RTI Act, 2005, 'right to information' means the right to information accessible under this Act which is held by or under the control of any public authority and includes the right to \u2014 (i) inspection of work, documents, records; (ii) taking notes, extracts or certified copies of documents or records; (iii) taking certified samples of material; (iv) obtaining information in the form of diskettes, floppies, tapes, video cassettes or in any other electronic mode or through printouts. All four listed items fall squarely within this statutory definition.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 149,\r\n    year: '2025',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding an application for obtaining information :<br>1. An applicant has to make a request in writing or through electronic means in English or Hindi or in the official language of the area.<br>2. Where such request cannot be made in writing, the Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer, as the case may be, shall render all reasonable assistance to the person making the request orally to reduce the same in writing.<br>3. Where an application is made to a public authority requesting for an information which is held by another public authority, the public authority to which such application is made, shall transfer the application or such part of it as may be appropriate to that other public authority and inform the applicant immediately about such transfer.<br>Which of the above statements are correct ?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Correct Answer: D - 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br><b>Analysis of Statement:<\/b><br>Section 6(1) allows a request in writing or through electronic means in English, Hindi, or the official language of the area, and its proviso requires the CPIO\/SPIO to render all reasonable assistance to reduce an oral request to writing where it cannot be made in writing. Section 6(3) requires transfer of the application (or relevant part) to the public authority holding the information, with immediate intimation to the applicant. All three statements accurately reflect the law.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 150,\r\n    year: '2025',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Which one the following sections of the RTI Act, 2005 deals with third party information ?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 8\",\r\n      \"Section 10\",\r\n      \"Section 11\",\r\n      \"Section 12\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Correct Answer: C - Section 11<\/b><br><br><b>Analysis of Statement:<\/b><br>Section 11 of the RTI Act, 2005 titled 'Third party information' lays down the procedure to be followed where a CPIO\/SPIO intends to disclose information relating to or supplied by a third party which has been treated as confidential, including the requirement to give written notice to the third party and invite representation before deciding on disclosure.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 151,\r\n    year: '2025',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding disposal of request for obtaining information under the RTI Act, 2005 :<br>1. The information sought shall be provided within fifteen days of the receipt of the request.<br>2. The information sought that concerns the life or liberty of a person shall be provided within forty-eight hours of the receipt of the request.<br>3. The information sought shall be provided on payment of such fee as may be prescribed or reject the request for reasons specified.<br>Which of the above statements is\/are not correct ?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 2\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Correct Answer: A - 1 only<\/b><br><br><b>Analysis of Statement:<\/b><br>Section 7(1) requires the CPIO\/SPIO to act 'as expeditiously as possible, and in any case within thirty days of the receipt of the request' \u2014 not fifteen days as stated in Statement 1, making it incorrect. The proviso to Section 7(1) correctly prescribes forty-eight hours where life or liberty is concerned (Statement 2), and Section 7(1) itself correctly provides for supply on payment of fee or rejection for specified reasons (Statement 3), so Statements 2 and 3 are correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 152,\r\n    year: '2025',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"If a request for obtaining information gets rejected, the Public Information Officer shall communicate to the person making the request :<br>1. The reason for such rejection.<br>2. The period within which an appeal against such rejection may be preferred.<br>3. The particulars of the appellate authority.<br>4. No such communication is required.<br>Which of the above statements is not correct ?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"3 only\",\r\n      \"4 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Correct Answer: D - 4 only<\/b><br><br><b>Analysis of Statement:<\/b><br>Section 7(8) mandates that where a request is rejected, the PIO shall communicate (i) the reasons for rejection, (ii) the period within which an appeal may be preferred, and (iii) the particulars of the appellate authority. Statements 1, 2 and 3 are therefore correct requirements of the Act. Statement 4, which claims no communication is required, directly contradicts Section 7(8) and is the incorrect statement.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 153,\r\n    year: '2025',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 2: RIGHT TO INFORMATION AND OBLIGATIONS OF PUBLIC AUTHORITIES',\r\n    question: \"Under which one of the following Sections of the RTI Act, 2005, a Central Public Information Officer or a State Public Information Officer, as the case may be, may reject a request for information where such a request for providing access would involve an infringement of copyright subsisting in a person other than the State ?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 8\",\r\n      \"Section 9\",\r\n      \"Section 10\",\r\n      \"Section 11\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Correct Answer: B - Section 9<\/b><br><br><b>Analysis of Statement:<\/b><br>Section 9 of the RTI Act, 2005 (Grounds for rejection to access in certain cases) provides that a PIO 'may reject a request for information where such a request for providing access would involve an infringement of copyright subsisting in a person other than the State.' This is a distinct, standalone ground of rejection separate from the general exemptions listed in Section 8.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 154,\r\n    year: '2025',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 3: CENTRAL INFORMATION COMMISSION',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following Sections of the RTI Act, 2005 has provisions regarding removal of Chief Information Commissioner or Information Commissioner ?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 13\",\r\n      \"Section 14\",\r\n      \"Section 15\",\r\n      \"Section 16\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Correct Answer: B - Section 14<\/b><br><br><b>Analysis of Statement:<\/b><br>Section 14 ('Removal of Chief Information Commissioner or Information Commissioner') lays down the grounds and procedure \u2014 including reference to the Supreme Court for proven misbehaviour or incapacity \u2014 for removing the Chief Information Commissioner or an Information Commissioner of the Central Information Commission. Section 13 deals with their term of office, not removal.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 155,\r\n    year: '2025',\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: THE STATE INFORMATION COMMISSION',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following Sections of the RTI Act, 2005 contains provisions regarding the constitution of State Information Commission ?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 14\",\r\n      \"Section 15\",\r\n      \"Section 16\",\r\n      \"Section 17\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Correct Answer: B - Section 15<\/b><br><br><b>Analysis of Statement:<\/b><br>Section 15 ('Constitution of State Information Commission') empowers the State Government, by notification in the Official Gazette, to constitute a body known as the State Information Commission consisting of a State Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten State Information Commissioners.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 156,\r\n    year: '2025',\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: THE STATE INFORMATION COMMISSION',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the State Chief Information Commissioner :<br>1. The State Chief Information Commissioner shall hold office till he attains the age of 65 years.<br>2. The State Chief Information Commissioner may by writing under his hand addressed to the Governor, resign from his office.<br>3. The State Chief Information Commissioner shall be eligible for reappointment.<br>Which of the above statements are correct ?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Correct Answer: A - 1 and 2 only<\/b><br><br><b>Analysis of Statement:<\/b><br>Section 16(3) provides that the State Chief Information Commissioner holds office for a term of five years, with the proviso that he shall not hold office beyond the age of sixty-five years, and the proviso also expressly states he 'shall not be eligible for reappointment.' Statement 3 is therefore incorrect. Statement 2 correctly reflects that resignation is tendered in writing under his hand addressed to the Governor.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 157,\r\n    year: '2025',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 5: POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the appellate authority for the decisions of Central Public Information Officer :<br>1. Any person, who does not receive decision within time specified, may appeal within thirty days from the receipt of such decision.<br>2. A second appeal against the decision shall lie within ninety days from the date of receipt of the decision.<br>3. An appeal against the decision of the Central Public Information Officer shall be preferred to an officer who is senior in rank to the Central Public Information Officer.<br>Which of the above statements are correct ?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Correct Answer: D - 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br><b>Analysis of Statement:<\/b><br>Section 19(1) provides that a person may prefer a first appeal within thirty days (from expiry of the specified period or receipt of the decision) to an officer senior in rank to the CPIO in that public authority. Section 19(3) provides that a second appeal shall lie within ninety days from the date the decision should have been made or was actually received, before the Central\/State Information Commission. All three statements are accurate.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 158,\r\n    year: '2025',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 5: POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding an appeal against the decisions of the Central Public Information Officer :<br>1. An appeal against the decisions of the Central Public Information Officer is preferred in the Supreme Court.<br>2. The first appeal against the decision of the Central Public Information Officer shall be made within thirty days from the date of the order.<br>3. The second appeal against the decision of the Central Public Information Officer shall lie within ninety days from the receipt of the decision.<br>Which of the above statement is\/are not correct ?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"3 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Correct Answer: A - 1 only<\/b><br><br><b>Analysis of Statement:<\/b><br>Under Section 19(1), the first appeal against a CPIO's decision lies to an officer senior in rank to the CPIO within the same public authority \u2014 not the Supreme Court \u2014 making Statement 1 incorrect. Statement 2 (30 days for first appeal, Section 19(1)) and Statement 3 (90 days for second appeal, Section 19(3)) are both correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 159,\r\n    year: '2025',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 5: POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following Sections of the RTI Act, 2005 has the provisions regarding appeal against the decisions of the Central Public Information Officer or the State Public Information Officer ?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 18\",\r\n      \"Section 19\",\r\n      \"Section 20\",\r\n      \"Section 21\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Correct Answer: B - Section 19<\/b><br><br><b>Analysis of Statement:<\/b><br>Section 19 ('Appeal') lays down the entire two-tier appellate mechanism against decisions of a CPIO\/SPIO \u2014 the first appeal to a senior officer within the public authority, and the second appeal to the Central\/State Information Commission.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 160,\r\n    year: '2025',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 5: POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following Sections of the RTI Act, 2005 deals with the provisions regarding penalties to the Central Public Information Officer on account of failing to provide information sought ?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 20\",\r\n      \"Section 19\",\r\n      \"Section 21\",\r\n      \"Section 18\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Correct Answer: A - Section 20<\/b><br><br><b>Analysis of Statement:<\/b><br>Section 20 ('Penalties') empowers the Information Commission to impose a penalty of Rs. 250 per day (subject to a maximum of Rs. 25,000) on a CPIO\/SPIO who, without reasonable cause, refused to receive an application, did not furnish information within the specified time, malafidely denied the request, or obstructed the furnishing of information.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 161,\r\n    year: '2025',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 5: POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the Central Information Commission :<br>1. The Central Information Commission can require the public authority to publish certain information.<br>2. The Central Information Commission can require the public authority to compensate the complainant.<br>3. The Central Information Commission can reject the application.<br>Which of the above statements are correct ?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Correct Answer: A - 1 and 2 only<\/b><br><br><b>Analysis of Statement:<\/b><br>Section 19(8)(a)(iii) empowers the Commission to require a public authority to take steps to secure compliance, including by publishing certain information or categories of information; Section 19(8)(b) empowers it to require the public authority to compensate the complainant for loss or detriment suffered. Section 19(8) does not confer a power on the Commission to 'reject the application' \u2014 that determination belongs to the CPIO\/SPIO under Section 7 \u2014 so Statement 3 is incorrect.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 162,\r\n    year: '2025',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 5: POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding powers of the Central Information Commission :<br>1. The Central Information Commission shall give notice of its decisions to the complainant and the public authority.<br>2. The Central Information Commission can direct the public authority to preserve the information for larger period than period provided under the rules and regulations of the public authority.<br>Which of the above statements is\/are correct ?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"Both 1 and 2\",\r\n      \"Neither 1 nor 2\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Correct Answer: A - 1 only<\/b><br><br><b>Analysis of Statement:<\/b><br>Section 19(9) requires the Central\/State Information Commission to give notice of its decision, including any right of appeal, to the complainant and the public authority, so Statement 1 is correct. The powers of the Commission enumerated under Section 19(8) do not include a power to direct a public authority to preserve records for a period longer than that fixed under its own record-retention rules and regulations, so Statement 2 does not correctly describe a power under the Act.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 163,\r\n    year: '2025',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 5: POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE INFORMATION COMMISSIONS, APPEAL AND PENALTIES',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following acts causing the imposition of penalty by the Central Information Commission on the Central Public Information Officer (CPIO) :<br>1. If the CPIO fails to furnish information within specified time.<br>2. If the CPIO refuses with a reasonable cause to receive an application of information.<br>3. If the CPIO malafidely denies the request for information.<br>Which of the above acts is\/are not correct ?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"3 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Correct Answer: B - 2 only<\/b><br><br><b>Analysis of Statement:<\/b><br>Under Section 20(1), a penalty is imposed where a CPIO, 'without any reasonable cause,' refused to receive an application, failed to furnish information within the specified time, or malafidely denied the request. Statement 2 reverses this by describing a refusal made WITH a reasonable cause as a penalty-attracting act \u2014 but a refusal with reasonable cause does not attract penalty, making Statement 2 the incorrect one. Statements 1 and 3 correctly reflect penalty-attracting conduct under Section 20(1).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 164,\r\n    year: '2025',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 6: MISCELLANEOUS',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the RTI Act, 2005 :<br>1. The RTI Act is applicable to all organizations including the intelligence and security organizations specified in the Second Schedule.<br>2. No suit, prosecution or other legal proceedings shall lie against any person for anything which is in good faith done or intended to be done under this Act or any rule made thereunder.<br>Which of the above statements is\/are correct ?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"Both 1 and 2\",\r\n      \"Neither 1 nor 2\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Correct Answer: B - 2 only<\/b><br><br><b>Analysis of Statement:<\/b><br>Section 24(1) expressly states that the Act does NOT apply to the intelligence and security organisations specified in the Second Schedule (subject to the proviso on corruption\/human-rights-violation information), so Statement 1 is incorrect. Section 21 correctly bars suits, prosecution or other legal proceedings against any person for anything done in good faith under the Act, making Statement 2 correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 165,\r\n    year: '2025',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 6: MISCELLANEOUS',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the application of the RTI Act, 2005 :<br>1. The RTI Act, 2005 shall apply to the intelligence and security organizations established by the State Governments.<br>2. The information pertaining to the allegations of corruption and human rights violations shall not be excluded under the provisions of the RTI Act, 2005.<br>Which of the above statements is\/are correct ?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"Both 1 and 2\",\r\n      \"Neither 1 nor 2\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Correct Answer: B - 2 only<\/b><br><br><b>Analysis of Statement:<\/b><br>Section 24(4) allows the State Government to notify intelligence\/security organisations established by it, and such notified organisations are then EXCLUDED from the Act (not covered by it), so Statement 1 is incorrect. The proviso to Section 24 carves out an exception stating that information relating to allegations of corruption and human rights violations shall not be excluded, confirming Statement 2 as correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 166,\r\n    year: '2025',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 6: MISCELLANEOUS',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following organizations regarding Forces falling under the intelligence and security organizations specified in the Second Schedule of the RTI Act, 2005 :<br>1. Border Security Force.<br>2. Central Reserve Police Force.<br>3. Assam Rifles.<br>Which of the above organizations are correct ?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Correct Answer: D - 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br><b>Analysis of Statement:<\/b><br>The Second Schedule to the RTI Act, 2005 (referable to Section 24) lists the intelligence and security organisations established by the Central Government that are excluded from the Act's application. Border Security Force, Central Reserve Police Force, and Assam Rifles are all named in this Second Schedule, along with other bodies such as the Intelligence Bureau, RAW, ITBP, CISF, NSG and the Special Frontier Force.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 167,\r\n    year: '2025',\r\n    chapter: 'CH 6: MISCELLANEOUS',\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following provisions of the RTI Act, 2005 deals with the intelligence and security organizations established by the Central Government ?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 23 Schedule II\",\r\n      \"Section 24 Schedule II\",\r\n      \"Section 25 Schedule II\",\r\n      \"Section 26 Schedule II\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Correct Answer: B - Section 24 Schedule II<\/b><br><br><b>Analysis of Statement:<\/b><br>Section 24 ('Act not to apply to certain organisations'), read with the Second Schedule, excludes the intelligence and security organisations established by the Central Government (and, on notification, by State Governments) from the application of the RTI Act, 2005, subject to the proviso on corruption and human rights violation information.\"\r\n  }\r\n];\r\n\r\nconst conceptQuestions = [\r\n  \/* ------------------------------------------------------------------------\r\n     CHAPTER I \u2014 Preliminary (Sections 1 and 2)\r\n     44 questions   |   ids 1001 - 1044\r\n     --------------------------------------------------------------------- *\/\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1001,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following objects recited in the Preamble to the Act:\\n1. To promote transparency and accountability in the working of every public authority.\\n2. To contain corruption.\\n3. To hold Governments and their instrumentalities accountable to the governed.\\n4. To punish public servants who withhold information.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"The Preamble recites that democracy 'requires an informed citizenry and transparency of information which are vital to its functioning and also to contain corruption and to hold Governments and their instrumentalities accountable to the governed', and that the Act sets out a practical regime of right to information 'in order to promote transparency and accountability in the working of every public authority.' Punishment is not an object; the penalty in <b>Section 20<\/b> is a means of enforcement, not a purpose of the Act.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1002,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following public interests with which the revelation of information is recited in the Preamble as being likely to conflict:\\n1. Efficient operations of the Governments.\\n2. Optimum use of limited fiscal resources.\\n3. Preservation of confidentiality of sensitive information.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"The Preamble recites that 'revelation of information in actual practice is likely to conflict with other public interests including efficient operations of the Governments, optimum use of limited fiscal resources and the preservation of confidentiality of sensitive information', and that it is necessary 'to harmonise these conflicting interests while preserving the paramountcy of the democratic ideal.' This recital is the foundation of the exemptions in <b>Section 8<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1003,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the expression 'appropriate Government':\\n1. In relation to a public authority established by the Central Government, it is the Central Government.\\n2. In relation to a public authority established by a Union territory administration, it is the Central Government.\\n3. In relation to a public authority substantially financed by a State Government, it is the State Government.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(a)<\/b> defines 'appropriate Government' in relation to a public authority which is 'established, constituted, owned, controlled or substantially financed by funds provided directly or indirectly' by the Central Government or a Union territory administration as the Central Government, and by a State Government as the State Government. Note that a Union territory administration takes the Central Government as its appropriate Government.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1004,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following bases on which a body may become a public authority for the purposes of identifying the appropriate Government:\\n1. Establishment or constitution.\\n2. Ownership.\\n3. Control.\\n4. Substantial financing by funds provided directly or indirectly.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"All four\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"Only two\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(a)<\/b> uses the composite formula 'established, constituted, owned, controlled or substantially financed by funds provided directly or indirectly'. The same expressions recur in the Explanation to <b>Section 2(h)<\/b>, which brings within 'public authority' any body 'owned, controlled or substantially financed' and any non-Government organisation 'substantially financed, directly or indirectly by funds provided by the appropriate Government.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1005,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following in respect of which the Speaker is the competent authority:\\n1. The House of the People.\\n2. The Legislative Assembly of a State.\\n3. The Legislative Assembly of a Union territory having such Assembly.\\n4. The Council of States.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(e)(i)<\/b> makes the Speaker the competent authority 'in the case of the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly of a State or a Union territory having such Assembly', and the Chairman 'in the case of the Council of States or Legislative Council of a State'. The Council of States therefore has the Chairman, who is the Vice-President of India ex officio, and not the Speaker.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1006,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:\\n\\nList-I (Body)\\nA. The Supreme Court\\nB. A High Court\\nC. The Legislative Council of a State\\nD. Other authorities established or constituted by or under the Constitution\\n\\nList-II (Competent authority)\\n1. The Chairman\\n2. The Chief Justice of India\\n3. The Chief Justice of the High Court\\n4. The President or the Governor, as the case may be\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1\",\r\n      \"A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(e)<\/b> designates the Chief Justice of India for the Supreme Court, the Chief Justice of the High Court for a High Court, the Chairman for a Legislative Council, and the President or the Governor for other authorities established or constituted by or under the Constitution. The definition also names the administrator appointed under Article 239 of the Constitution as the competent authority for a Union territory.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1007,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding 'competent authority':\\n1. It includes the administrator appointed under Article 239 of the Constitution.\\n2. It includes the Chief Minister in the case of the National Capital Territory of Delhi.\\n3. A competent authority is empowered to make rules to carry out the provisions of the Act.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(e)<\/b> names the administrator appointed under Article 239, and <b>Section 28(1)<\/b> empowers the competent authority to make rules by notification in the Official Gazette. Statement 2 is a recurring trap: for the Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi the competent authority is the Speaker, not the Chief Minister.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1008,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following which fall within the definition of 'information':\\n1. Memos and e-mails.\\n2. Opinions and advices.\\n3. Press releases, circulars and orders.\\n4. Logbooks, contracts and reports.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(f)<\/b> defines information as 'any material in any form, including records, documents, memos, e-mails, opinions, advices, press releases, circulars, orders, logbooks, contracts, reports, papers, samples, models, data material held in any electronic form'. The definition is inclusive and turns on the material being held, not on its physical form.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1009,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding information relating to a private body:\\n1. It falls within the definition of 'information' where it can be accessed by a public authority under any other law for the time being in force.\\n2. It falls within the definition even where no public authority can lawfully access it.\\n3. A private body which is substantially financed by the appropriate Government is itself a public authority.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(f)<\/b> includes 'information relating to any private body which can be accessed by a public authority under any other law for the time being in force', so Statement 2 reverses the express condition. Statement 3 follows from the Explanation to <b>Section 2(h)<\/b>, which brings within 'public authority' a non-Government organisation 'substantially financed, directly or indirectly by funds provided by the appropriate Government.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1010,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"The expression 'prescribed' under the Act means prescribed by rules made under the Act by:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the Central Government alone\",\r\n      \"the appropriate Government or the competent authority, as the case may be\",\r\n      \"the Central or State Information Commission\",\r\n      \"the public authority concerned\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(g)<\/b> defines 'prescribed' as prescribed by rules made under the Act by the appropriate Government or the competent authority, as the case may be. The two rule-making powers are conferred by <b>Section 27<\/b> on the appropriate Government and by <b>Section 28<\/b> on the competent authority, and every provision using the words 'as may be prescribed' draws on one of them.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1011,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following bases on which a body may qualify as a 'public authority':\\n1. Establishment or constitution by or under the Constitution.\\n2. Establishment or constitution by any other law made by Parliament.\\n3. Establishment or constitution by any other law made by a State Legislature.\\n4. Establishment or constitution by notification issued or order made by the appropriate Government.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(h)<\/b> defines a public authority as 'any authority or body or institution of self-government established or constituted' on each of these four bases. The Explanation then extends the definition to bodies owned, controlled or substantially financed, and to non-Government organisations substantially financed by the appropriate Government, whether directly or indirectly.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1012,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. A Government company is a public authority as a body owned or controlled by the Government.\\n2. A non-Government organisation substantially financed indirectly by Government funds is a public authority.\\n3. A body established by a private entity which is neither financed nor controlled by the Government is a public authority.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"The Explanation to <b>Section 2(h)<\/b> supports Statements 1 and 2, extending the definition to any body 'owned, controlled or substantially financed' and to a non-Government organisation 'substantially financed, directly or indirectly by funds provided by the appropriate Government.' Statement 3 falls outside every limb of the definition and is therefore not a public authority.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1013,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following which fall within the definition of 'record':\\n1. Any document, manuscript and file.\\n2. Any microfilm, microfiche and facsimile copy of a document.\\n3. Any reproduction of image or images embodied in such microfilm, whether enlarged or not.\\n4. Any other material produced by a computer or any other device.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(i)<\/b> includes all four categories within 'record'. The definition is technology-neutral, the last limb covering 'any other material produced by a computer or any other device'. It is to be distinguished from 'information' under Section 2(f), which is the wider expression, records being only one of the many forms of material that constitute information.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1014,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following which the 'right to information' includes:\\n1. Inspection of work, documents and records.\\n2. Taking notes, extracts or certified copies of documents or records.\\n3. Taking certified samples of material.\\n4. Obtaining information in the form of diskettes, floppies, tapes, video cassettes or in any other electronic mode or through printouts.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(j)<\/b> enumerates exactly these four modes of access. The last is available 'where such information is stored in a computer or in any other device'. The definition describes modes of access, not subject matter, so an option framed in terms of a particular organisation or department does not answer to this definition.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1015,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the 'right to information':\\n1. It means the right to information accessible under the Act which is held by or under the control of any public authority.\\n2. It extends to information which is not under the control of any public authority.\\n3. It includes the right to take certified samples of material.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(j)<\/b> confines the right to information 'accessible under this Act which is held by or under the control of any public authority', which negatives Statement 2. Statement 3 reproduces clause (iii) of the definition. Information outside the control of a public authority falls outside the definition altogether, and no question of exemption under Section 8 arises in respect of it.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1016,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding a 'third party':\\n1. It means a person other than the citizen making a request for information.\\n2. It includes a public authority.\\n3. It excludes a body corporate.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(n)<\/b> \u2014 'third party means a person other than the citizen making a request for information and includes a public authority.' Nothing excludes a body corporate. The inclusion of a public authority is of practical consequence, as the Government of India's Decision under <b>Section 11<\/b> holds that one public authority cannot disclose confidential papers received from another without following the Section 11 procedure.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1017,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:\\n\\nList-I (Term defined)\\nA. Information\\nB. Public authority\\nC. Record\\nD. Right to information\\n\\nList-II (Clause of Section 2)\\n1. Clause (f)\\n2. Clause (h)\\n3. Clause (i)\\n4. Clause (j)\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3\",\r\n      \"A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2<\/b> arranges the definitions alphabetically by concept \u2014 clause (f) information, clause (g) prescribed, clause (h) public authority, clause (i) record and clause (j) right to information. The neighbouring clauses most often confused with these are (e) competent authority and (n) third party.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1018,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:\\n\\nList-I (Term defined)\\nA. Appropriate Government\\nB. Competent authority\\nC. State Public Information Officer\\nD. Third party\\n\\nList-II (Clause of Section 2)\\n1. Clause (a)\\n2. Clause (e)\\n3. Clause (m)\\n4. Clause (n)\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3\",\r\n      \"A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(a)<\/b> defines 'appropriate Government', <b>2(e)<\/b> 'competent authority', <b>2(m)<\/b> 'State Public Information Officer' and <b>2(n)<\/b> 'third party'. Between them, clauses (k) and (l) define the State Chief Information Commissioner and State Information Commissioner, and the State Information Commission respectively.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1019,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. A Public Information Officer is required to supply the material in the form as held by the public authority.\\n2. A Public Information Officer is required to deduce conclusions from the material and supply the conclusions so deduced.\\n3. A Public Information Officer is required to do research on behalf of the citizen.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"The Government of India's Decision (1) under <b>Section 7<\/b>, read with the definition of information in <b>Section 2(f)<\/b> as 'any material in any form', establishes only Statement 1 \u2014 'The PIO is required to supply the material in the form as held by the public authority and is not required to do research on behalf of the citizen to deduce anything from the material and then supply it to him.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1020,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the scope of the information that may be supplied:\\n1. Only such information as already exists and is held by the public authority can be supplied.\\n2. A public authority is required to create information that does not exist, if the applicant so requires.\\n3. A public authority approached with an application is required to collect information from other public authorities.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"Only Statement 1 is correct. It follows from <b>Section 2(j)<\/b>, which confines the right to information 'held by or under the control of any public authority'. Statement 3 is negatived by the Government of India's Decision (3) under <b>Section 6<\/b>, which clarifies that the public authority approached 'is not required to collect information from different public authorities to supply it to the applicant.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1021,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following does NOT answer to the definition of 'right to information'?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Inspection of work, documents and records\",\r\n      \"Taking notes and extracts from documents or records\",\r\n      \"Obtaining information relating to an organisation specified in the Second Schedule\",\r\n      \"Taking certified samples of material\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(j)<\/b> defines the right in terms of modes of access \u2014 inspection, notes and extracts, certified copies, certified samples and information in electronic form. The third option describes subject matter rather than a mode of access, and in any event organisations specified in the Second Schedule are excluded from the Act by <b>Section 24(1)<\/b>, subject to the corruption and human rights provisos.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1022,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. The right to information has been held to be implicit in the freedom of speech and expression guaranteed by Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution.\\n2. The Act gives statutory shape to that right by providing a practical regime of right to information for citizens.\\n3. The Act confers the right on all persons resident in India.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"The Supreme Court has held, from State of U.P. v. Raj Narain onwards, that the right to information is implicit in Article 19(1)(a), and the Preamble describes the Act as providing 'the practical regime of right to information for citizens'. Statement 3 contradicts <b>Section 3<\/b>, under which 'all citizens shall have the right to information' \u2014 residence is irrelevant and non-citizens are outside the section.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1023,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the constitution of the Commissions:\\n1. The Central Information Commission is constituted by the Central Government by notification in the Official Gazette.\\n2. The State Information Commission is constituted by the State Government by notification in the Official Gazette.\\n3. The Chief Information Commissioner is appointed by the President.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Sections 12(1) and 15(1)<\/b> vest the constitution of the two Commissions in the Central Government and the State Government respectively, in each case by notification in the Official Gazette, while <b>Section 12(3)<\/b> vests the appointment of the Chief Information Commissioner in the President. The distinction between constituting the body and appointing its members is frequently tested.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1024,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the Act:\\n1. It provides for the constitution of a Central Information Commission and State Information Commissions.\\n2. It repeals the Freedom of Information Act, 2002.\\n3. It repeals the Official Secrets Act, 1923.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"The long title recites that the Act provides for 'the constitution of a Central Information Commission and State Information Commissions and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto', and <b>Section 31<\/b> repeals the Freedom of Information Act, 2002. The Official Secrets Act, 1923 is not repealed; it is merely overridden to the extent of inconsistency by <b>Section 22<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1025,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. A citizen may seek information in relation to an occurrence which took place before the commencement of the Act.\\n2. An applicant seeking information is required to be a resident of the area in which the public authority is situated.\\n3. A permanent resident of one State may seek information from a public authority under another State Government.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 3<\/b> confers the right on all citizens without any territorial qualification, which supports Statement 3 and negatives Statement 2. Statement 1 follows from <b>Section 8(3)<\/b>, which expressly contemplates requests relating to matters which 'took place, occurred or happened twenty years before the date on which any request is made', so the Act is not confined to post-commencement events.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1026,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding samples and models:\\n1. Samples and models fall within the definition of information.\\n2. The right to information includes the right to take certified samples of material.\\n3. The rules provide for the charging of fee for providing samples and models.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(f)<\/b> expressly names 'samples, models' among the forms of information; <b>Section 2(j)(iii)<\/b> includes 'taking certified samples of material'; and the Government of India's Decision (3), Para 4, under <b>Section 7<\/b> records that the Right to Information (Regulation of Fee and Cost) Rules, 2005 'already provide provisions for charging of fee... for providing samples, models, printed material like books, maps, plans, etc.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1027,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the rule-making powers referred to in the definition of 'prescribed':\\n1. The appropriate Government may make rules by notification in the Official Gazette.\\n2. The competent authority may make rules by notification in the Official Gazette.\\n3. An Information Commission may make rules to carry out the provisions of the Act.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Sections 27(1) and 28(1)<\/b> confer the two rule-making powers referred to in the definition of 'prescribed' in <b>Section 2(g)<\/b>. No rule-making power is conferred on an Information Commission: its procedure for deciding appeals is itself to be prescribed by the appropriate Government under <b>Section 27(2)(e)<\/b> read with Section 19(10).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1028,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. The Lokayukta of a State established by a State law is a public authority.\\n2. The National Human Rights Commission is a public authority.\\n3. A charitable trust which is not established by or under any law and is not substantially financed by the Government is a public authority.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(h)<\/b> covers bodies established by law made by a State Legislature and by law made by Parliament, which supports Statements 1 and 2. Statement 3 falls outside every limb of the definition and of its Explanation, and such a body is therefore not a public authority \u2014 the reasoning applied to the PM CARES Fund in the previous-year question on this point.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1029,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the Schedules to the Act:\\n1. The Act contains two Schedules.\\n2. The form of oath or affirmation for the Information Commissioners is contained in the First Schedule.\\n3. The intelligence and security organisations excluded from the operation of the Act are listed in the First Schedule.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"The Act carries exactly two Schedules. The <b>First Schedule<\/b>, referable to <b>Sections 13(3) and 16(3)<\/b>, sets out the form of oath or affirmation. Statement 3 reverses their contents: the excluded intelligence and security organisations are listed in the <b>Second Schedule<\/b>, which bears the marginal reference '[See Section 24]'.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1030,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the expression 'held by or under the control of' a public authority:\\n1. It appears in the definition of the right to information.\\n2. It determines whether a record may be examined by an Information Commission during an inquiry.\\n3. It is irrelevant where the information relates to a private body.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(j)<\/b> uses the expression in defining the right, and <b>Section 18(4)<\/b> confines the Commission's power of examination to 'any record to which this Act applies which is under the control of the public authority'. Statement 3 is incorrect: under <b>Section 2(f)<\/b> private body information enters the Act only where 'it can be accessed by a public authority under any other law', so the question of access by a public authority remains central.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1031,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding an applicant under the Act:\\n1. He must be a citizen of India.\\n2. He need not be aggrieved by any decision of the public authority.\\n3. A registered society may itself hold the right and apply in its own name.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 3<\/b> confers the right on 'all citizens', which supports Statement 1 and negatives Statement 3, a society or company being a juristic and not a natural person. Statement 2 follows from the same section read with <b>Section 6(2)<\/b>, which forbids requiring any reason for the request; grievance is therefore not a condition of the right.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1032,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding 'information' and the manner of its supply:\\n1. Information includes data material held in any electronic form.\\n2. A citizen may obtain information through printouts where the information is stored in a computer.\\n3. Information may be refused in the form sought where supply in that form would be detrimental to the safety or preservation of the record.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(f)<\/b> names 'data material held in any electronic form'; <b>Section 2(j)(iv)<\/b> permits obtaining information 'through printouts where such information is stored in a computer or in any other device'; and <b>Section 7(9)<\/b> permits departure from the form sought where it would disproportionately divert resources or be detrimental to the safety or preservation of the record.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1033,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding a public authority under a Union territory administration:\\n1. Its appropriate Government is the Central Government.\\n2. Its competent authority may be the administrator appointed under Article 239 of the Constitution.\\n3. Where it has a Legislative Assembly, the competent authority for that Assembly is the Speaker.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(a)<\/b> makes the Central Government the appropriate Government for a Union territory administration, and <b>Section 2(e)<\/b> names both the administrator appointed under Article 239 and the Speaker in the case of 'the Legislative Assembly of a State or a Union territory having such Assembly'. All three propositions therefore hold.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1034,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. The definition of information includes advices.\\n2. A Public Information Officer is bound to tender advice to an applicant who seeks it.\\n3. The definition of information includes press releases and circulars.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(f)<\/b> names 'opinions, advices, press releases, circulars' among the forms of information, which supports Statements 1 and 3. Statement 2 confuses the record of an advice already held with the giving of fresh advice: the Government of India's Decision (1) under <b>Section 7<\/b> makes clear that the officer supplies the material as held and does not deduce or generate fresh content.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1035,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the term 'public authority':\\n1. It includes an institution of self-government.\\n2. It includes a body constituted by an order made by the appropriate Government.\\n3. It is confined to bodies which perform sovereign functions.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(h)<\/b> speaks of 'any authority or body or institution of self-government established or constituted', and includes constitution 'by notification issued or order made by the appropriate Government'. Statement 3 imports a limitation the definition does not contain: the test is the manner of establishment, ownership, control or substantial financing, not the character of the functions performed.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1036,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. The Act extends to the whole of India.\\n2. Its provisions have effect notwithstanding anything inconsistent contained in any other law for the time being in force.\\n3. It applies to the intelligence and security organisations specified in the Second Schedule.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 1(2)<\/b> and <b>Section 22<\/b> support Statements 1 and 2. Statement 3 reverses <b>Section 24(1)<\/b>, under which 'nothing contained in this Act shall apply to the intelligence and security organizations specified in the Second Schedule', subject only to the provisos relating to allegations of corruption and of human rights violations.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1037,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the meaning of 'competent authority':\\n1. Different competent authorities are designated for different bodies.\\n2. The competent authority for a High Court is the Chief Justice of that High Court.\\n3. The competent authority is the officer to whom an application for information is addressed.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(e)<\/b> designates different competent authorities for the Houses of Legislature, the Supreme Court, the High Courts, other constitutional authorities and the Union territories, which supports Statements 1 and 2. Statement 3 confuses the competent authority with the Public Information Officer: under <b>Section 6(1)<\/b> an application is addressed to the Public Information Officer or the Assistant Public Information Officer.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1038,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following does NOT fall within the definition of 'information'?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Opinions and advices held by a public authority\",\r\n      \"Logbooks and contracts held by a public authority\",\r\n      \"Information relating to a private body which cannot be accessed by a public authority under any law\",\r\n      \"Samples and models held by a public authority\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(f)<\/b> names opinions, advices, logbooks, contracts, samples and models among the forms of information, and extends to 'information relating to any private body which can be accessed by a public authority under any other law for the time being in force.' Private body information which no public authority can lawfully access falls outside the definition altogether.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1039,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"In the case of the Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi, the competent authority is the:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Chief Minister\",\r\n      \"Lieutenant Governor\",\r\n      \"Speaker\",\r\n      \"Chief Justice of the High Court of Delhi\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(e)(i)<\/b> makes the Speaker the competent authority 'in the case of the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly of a State or a Union territory having such Assembly'. The Chief Minister is a standing distractor on this point and has been set as such in previous-year papers; he answers to no clause of the definition.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1040,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following which fall within the definition of 'record':\\n1. Any reproduction of image or images embodied in a microfilm, whether enlarged or not.\\n2. Any material produced by a computer or any other device.\\n3. Any document, manuscript and file.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(i)<\/b> includes all three, along with 'any microfilm, microfiche and facsimile copy of a document'. The definition is inclusive and technology-neutral, and is narrower than 'information' under Section 2(f), of which records are only one species.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1041,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following which the 'right to information' includes:\\n1. Taking certified copies of documents or records.\\n2. Taking notes and extracts from documents or records.\\n3. Obtaining information through printouts where such information is stored in a computer or in any other device.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(j)<\/b> enumerates inspection of work, documents and records; taking notes, extracts or certified copies; taking certified samples of material; and obtaining information in diskettes, floppies, tapes, video cassettes or any other electronic mode or through printouts where the information is stored in a computer or in any other device.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1042,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding a 'third party':\\n1. It means a person other than the citizen making a request for information.\\n2. It includes a public authority.\\n3. A third party is entitled to prefer an appeal against an order directing disclosure of its information.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(n)<\/b> supports Statements 1 and 2. Statement 3 follows from <b>Section 11(4)<\/b>, under which the notice of decision must state that the third party 'is entitled to prefer an appeal under Section 19 against the decision', that appeal being governed by <b>Section 19(2)<\/b> and to be made within thirty days from the date of the order.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1043,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following bodies which are brought within 'public authority' by the Explanation to the definition:\\n1. A body owned by the appropriate Government.\\n2. A body controlled by the appropriate Government.\\n3. A non-Government organisation substantially financed, directly or indirectly, by funds provided by the appropriate Government.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"The Explanation to <b>Section 2(h)<\/b> extends the definition to any body 'owned, controlled or substantially financed' and to any non-Government organisation 'substantially financed, directly or indirectly by funds provided by the appropriate Government.' The main part of the definition separately covers bodies established by or under the Constitution, by law made by Parliament or a State Legislature, or by notification or order of the appropriate Government.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1044,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 1: Preliminary\",\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following is NOT a competent authority under the Act?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The Chairman, in the case of the Legislative Council of a State\",\r\n      \"The Chief Justice of India, in the case of the Supreme Court\",\r\n      \"The Chief Minister, in the case of the National Capital Territory of Delhi\",\r\n      \"The administrator appointed under Article 239 of the Constitution\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(e)<\/b> names the Speaker or the Chairman for the Houses of Legislature, the Chief Justice of India for the Supreme Court, the Chief Justice of the High Court for a High Court, the President or the Governor for other constitutional authorities, and the administrator appointed under Article 239. The Chief Minister figures nowhere in the definition.\"\r\n  },\r\n\r\n  \/* ------------------------------------------------------------------------\r\n     CHAPTER II \u2014 Right to information and obligations of public authorities (Ss. 3-11)\r\n     224 questions   |   ids 2001 - 2224\r\n     --------------------------------------------------------------------- *\/\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2001,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The right to information is conferred upon:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"all persons, whether citizens or not\",\r\n      \"all citizens\",\r\n      \"all citizens and all bodies corporate registered in India\",\r\n      \"all persons ordinarily resident in India\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 3<\/b> \u2014 'Subject to the provisions of this Act, all citizens shall have the right to information.' The right is conferred on the status of citizenship alone; residence, grievance and purpose are irrelevant. A company, society or other juristic person is not a 'citizen' and cannot hold the right in its own name, though an authorised individual citizen may apply. Foreigners residing in India are equally outside Section 3. This is the settled basis on which stems distinguishing 'person' from 'citizen' are repeatedly set.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2002,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The statutory right to information conferred on citizens is best described as a right which is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"available only to a person aggrieved by an administrative decision\",\r\n      \"absolute and not subject to any statutory qualification\",\r\n      \"subject to the provisions of the Act\",\r\n      \"exercisable only after the applicant discloses the purpose\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 3<\/b> opens with the words 'Subject to the provisions of this Act' \u2014 the right is therefore expressly qualified by the exemptions in <b>Section 8<\/b>, the copyright ground in <b>Section 9<\/b>, and the exclusion of certain organisations under <b>Section 24<\/b>. It is not confined to aggrieved persons: any citizen may apply. Nor may the purpose be demanded, since <b>Section 6(2)<\/b> forbids requiring any reason for the request.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2003,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Records of a public authority are required to be duly catalogued and indexed in a manner and form which:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"conforms to the record retention schedule of the public authority\",\r\n      \"facilitates the right to information\",\r\n      \"enables the Comptroller and Auditor General to audit the records\",\r\n      \"permits weeding out of records after twenty years\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1)(a)<\/b> \u2014 every public authority shall 'maintain all its records duly catalogued and indexed in a manner and the form which facilitates the right to information under this Act.' The touchstone is retrievability for the information-seeker, not audit convenience. The retention schedule is a separate matter: the GoI Decision under <b>Section 8(3)<\/b> clarifies that the Act 'does not prescribe a record retention schedule', records being retained as per the schedule applicable to that public authority.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2004,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The obligation of a public authority to computerise its records extends to:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"all records held by it, without exception, within one hundred and twenty days\",\r\n      \"only those records which have been sought under an application for information\",\r\n      \"all records that are appropriate to be computerised, within a reasonable time and subject to availability of resources\",\r\n      \"only records relating to policy formulation and quasi-judicial decisions\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1)(a)<\/b> requires that 'all records that are appropriate to be computerized are, within a reasonable time and subject to availability of resources, computerized.' Two qualifiers therefore operate \u2014 appropriateness of the record, and availability of resources within a reasonable time. The one hundred and twenty day period is the trap: that limit in <b>Section 4(1)(b)<\/b> governs first publication of the seventeen categories of information, not computerisation.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2005,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the maintenance of records by a public authority:\\n1. All its records are to be duly catalogued and indexed.\\n2. Records appropriate to be computerised are to be computerised within a reasonable time, subject to availability of resources.\\n3. Computerised records are to be connected through a network all over the country on different systems, so that access to such records is facilitated.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1)(a)<\/b> contains all three limbs in a single clause: cataloguing and indexing 'in a manner and the form which facilitates the right to information'; computerisation of records 'appropriate to be computerized'; and connection of such records 'through a network all over the country on different systems so that access to such records is facilitated.' GoI Decision (1) under Section 4 adds that 'the public authorities are expected to complete the requirements of this clause on top priority.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2006,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Proper record management under the Act has been described as an important step principally because it:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"reduces the volume of records to be retained beyond twenty years\",\r\n      \"enables the appropriate Government to prescribe a uniform retention schedule\",\r\n      \"permits the public authority to charge a higher fee for supply of information\",\r\n      \"enables the Public Information Officers to furnish information sought under the Act\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (1), Para 2, under <b>Section 4<\/b> \u2014 'Record management in accordance with this provision is an important step to enable the Public Information Officers to furnish information sought under the Act.' The link is functional: indexed, catalogued and computerised records make retrieval within the <b>Section 7(1)<\/b> thirty-day limit feasible. The Act prescribes no retention schedule (GoI Decision (2) under Section 8), and fee is governed by the Fee and Cost Rules, not by record quality.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2007,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The specified categories of information were required to be first published by every public authority within:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"sixty days from the enactment of the Act\",\r\n      \"ninety days from the enactment of the Act\",\r\n      \"one hundred days from the enactment of the Act\",\r\n      \"one hundred and twenty days from the enactment of the Act\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1)(b)<\/b> \u2014 every public authority shall 'publish within one hundred and twenty days from the enactment of this Act' the seventeen categories enumerated in sub-clauses (i) to (xvii). The tempting distractor is one hundred days, which is the period under <b>Section 5(1)<\/b> for designating Public Information Officers and under <b>Section 5(2)<\/b> for designating Assistant Public Information Officers. GoI Decision (1), Para 3, adds that where this has not been done, 'its compliance may be ensured without any further delay.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2008,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"After their first publication, the specified categories of information are required to be updated:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"every six months\",\r\n      \"every quarter\",\r\n      \"every year\",\r\n      \"only when a material change occurs\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1)(b)<\/b> closes with the words 'and thereafter update these publications every year.' GoI Decision (1), Para 3, reiterates that 'information so published should also be updated every year as provided in the Act.' The six-monthly periodicity belongs elsewhere \u2014 Para 1.6.1 of the Guidelines on suo motu disclosure requires a 'six-monthly report on the performance against the benchmarks set in Citizens Charter'; the quarterly periodicity governs official tour disclosures and release of funds to subordinate bodies.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2009,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"A statement of the boards, councils and committees constituted as part of a public authority, or for the purpose of its advice, is required to be published where such a body consists of:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"three or more persons\",\r\n      \"two or more persons\",\r\n      \"five or more persons\",\r\n      \"any number of persons, including a single member\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1)(b)(viii)<\/b> requires 'a statement of the boards, councils, committees and other bodies consisting of two or more persons constituted as its part or for the purpose of its advice.' The numerical threshold of two is express, and excludes single-member bodies. The same clause further requires the statement to indicate 'whether meetings of those boards, councils, committees and other bodies are open to the public, or the minutes of such meetings are accessible for public.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2010,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the statement of boards, councils and committees required to be published by a public authority:\\n1. It must indicate whether the meetings of such bodies are open to the public.\\n2. It must indicate whether the minutes of such meetings are accessible for the public.\\n3. It must indicate the monthly remuneration received by each member of such bodies.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1)(b)(viii)<\/b> requires disclosure of whether meetings 'are open to the public, or the minutes of such meetings are accessible for public.' It says nothing of remuneration. Statement 3 imports the requirement of <b>Section 4(1)(b)(x)<\/b>, which concerns 'the monthly remuneration received by each of its officers and employees, including the system of compensation as provided in its regulations' \u2014 a separate clause dealing with officers and employees, not with members of advisory bodies.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2011,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The particulars of remuneration required to be published in respect of each officer and employee of a public authority are:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the annual remuneration, excluding allowances\",\r\n      \"the monthly remuneration received, including the system of compensation as provided in its regulations\",\r\n      \"the pay scale attached to the post, without reference to allowances\",\r\n      \"the total emoluments drawn during the preceding financial year\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1)(b)(x)<\/b> \u2014 'the monthly remuneration received by each of its officers and employees, including the system of compensation as provided in its regulations.' Two elements are required: the actual monthly figure received, and the compensation system laid down in the regulations. Annual or preceding-year figures are not the statutory measure; nor is the bare pay scale, since the clause speaks of remuneration 'received'.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2012,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following particulars in respect of budget which a public authority is required to publish:\\n1. The budget allocated to each of its agency.\\n2. The particulars of all plans and proposed expenditures.\\n3. Reports on disbursements made.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1)(b)(xi)<\/b> requires publication of 'the budget allocated to each of its agency, indicating the particulars of all plans, proposed expenditures and reports on disbursements made.' All three limbs are contained in the single clause. Para 3.5.1 of the Guidelines on suo motu disclosure elaborates this clause, requiring simplified versions of budgets, prominent display of the outcome budget, and quarterly uploading of funds released to subordinate and autonomous bodies.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2013,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"In respect of subsidy programmes, the information required to be published comprises the manner of execution of such programmes together with:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the names of the officers who sanctioned each subsidy\",\r\n      \"the amounts allocated and the details of the beneficiaries of such programmes\",\r\n      \"the audit objections raised in respect of such programmes\",\r\n      \"the notings recorded on the file while sanctioning the subsidy\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1)(b)(xii)<\/b> \u2014 'the manner of execution of subsidy programmes, including the amounts allocated and the details of beneficiaries of such programmes.' Sanctioning officers and audit objections find no place in the clause. File notings are disclosable on request \u2014 GoI Decision (3) under Section 8 clarifies that 'file noting can be disclosed except file noting containing information exempt from disclosure under Section 8' \u2014 but they are not part of the suo motu publication list.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2014,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"In relation to concessions, permits or authorisations granted by a public authority, the obligation of publication extends to:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the particulars of the recipients of such concessions, permits or authorisations\",\r\n      \"the reasons recorded for granting each concession, permit or authorisation\",\r\n      \"only those concessions whose value exceeds ten lakh rupees\",\r\n      \"only concessions granted to bodies substantially financed by the Government\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1)(b)(xiii)<\/b> \u2014 'particulars of recipients of concessions, permits or authorisations granted by it.' The clause fixes no monetary threshold and does not require reasons to be published. The figure of ten lakh rupees is a trap drawn from Para 1.1.1 of the Guidelines on suo motu disclosure, where 'the limit is fixed at Rs. 10.00 lakhs' for proactive disclosure of procurement information.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2015,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The particulars of facilities available to citizens for obtaining information are required to include:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the number of applications for information received during the preceding year\",\r\n      \"the working hours of a library or reading room, if maintained for public use\",\r\n      \"the fee charged for inspection of records\",\r\n      \"the names of officers authorised to certify copies of documents\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1)(b)(xv)<\/b> \u2014 'the particulars of facilities available to citizens for obtaining information, including the working hours of a library or reading room, if maintained for public use.' The words 'if maintained for public use' are conditional, not mandatory: the clause does not compel a public authority to maintain a library. Fee for inspection is governed by the Right to Information (Regulation of Fee and Cost) Rules, and certification is dealt with in GoI Decision (2) under Section 7.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2016,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following is NOT among the categories of information required to be published by a public authority on its own motion?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The particulars of any arrangement for consultation with, or representation by, members of the public in relation to the formulation of its policy\",\r\n      \"A statement of the categories of documents held by it or under its control\",\r\n      \"The notings recorded on files in the course of disposal of individual cases\",\r\n      \"Details in respect of the information available to or held by it, reduced in an electronic form\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"The three other options correspond to <b>Section 4(1)(b)(vii)<\/b>, <b>(vi)<\/b> and <b>(xiv)<\/b> respectively. File notings appear nowhere in the seventeen sub-clauses. They are disclosable on an application \u2014 GoI Decision (3) under <b>Section 8<\/b> states that 'file noting can be disclosed except file noting containing information exempt from disclosure under Section 8' \u2014 but disclosure on request and proactive publication are distinct obligations.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2017,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The rules, regulations, instructions, manuals and records required to be published are those which are:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"issued by the public authority itself\",\r\n      \"approved by the appropriate Government\",\r\n      \"placed before Parliament or the State Legislature\",\r\n      \"held by it or under its control, or used by its employees for discharging its functions\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1)(b)(v)<\/b> \u2014 'the rules, regulations, instructions, manuals and records, held by it or under its control or used by its employees for discharging its functions.' Authorship is irrelevant: a manual issued by another department but used by the employees of this public authority falls within the clause. Para 3.1 of the Guidelines adds that these elements 'must be disclosed in an integrated manner', since 'description of one element presupposes the existence of another.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2018,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The particulars of arrangements for consultation with, or representation by, members of the public are required to be published in relation to:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the formulation of the policy of the public authority or the implementation thereof\",\r\n      \"the recruitment and promotion of its officers and employees\",\r\n      \"the procurement of goods and services by the public authority\",\r\n      \"the disposal of applications for information received by it\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1)(b)(vii)<\/b> \u2014 'the particulars of any arrangement that exists for consultation with, or representation by, the members of the public in relation to the formulation of its policy or implementation thereof.' Recruitment, promotion and transfer information is dealt with separately by the Committee of experts' recommendation reproduced in GoI Decision (7), and procurement disclosure by Para 1.1.1 of the Guidelines.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2019,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Besides the sixteen enumerated categories, a public authority is required to publish:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"such other information as the Central Information Commission may direct in each case\",\r\n      \"such other information as may be prescribed\",\r\n      \"such other information as the applicant may specifically request\",\r\n      \"such other information as the appellate authority may consider material\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1)(b)(xvii)<\/b> \u2014 'such other information as may be prescribed.' The expression 'prescribed' points to rules made by the appropriate Government under <b>Section 27<\/b> or <b>Section 28<\/b>; it is not a case-by-case direction of the Commission or the appellate authority. The residuary clause is what permits the DoP&T, through the Guidelines of 15-4-2013, to add items such as procurement, PPP, transfer orders and CAG paragraphs to the suo motu list.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2020,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:\\n\\nList-I (Category of information)\\nA. A directory of its officers and employees\\nB. The norms set by it for the discharge of its functions\\nC. The procedure followed in the decision making process, including channels of supervision and accountability\\nD. A statement of the categories of documents held by it or under its control\\n\\nList-II (Sub-clause)\\n1. Clause (iii)\\n2. Clause (iv)\\n3. Clause (vi)\\n4. Clause (ix)\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3\",\r\n      \"A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3\",\r\n      \"A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1)(b)<\/b> \u2014 cl. (iii) is 'the procedure followed in the decision making process, including channels of supervision and accountability'; cl. (iv) is 'the norms set by it for the discharge of its functions'; cl. (vi) is 'a statement of the categories of documents that are held by it or under its control'; and cl. (ix) is 'a directory of its officers and employees.' Clauses (iii), (iv), (xi) and (xiv) are the four sub-clauses singled out for detailed guidelines in Para 3.2 of the 2013 Guidelines, disclosure under them having been found relatively weak.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2021,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"A public authority is required to publish all relevant facts:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"while formulating important policies or announcing decisions which affect the public\",\r\n      \"only after the policy has been approved by the competent authority\",\r\n      \"only where the decision has been called in question before a court or tribunal\",\r\n      \"only in respect of policies involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1)(c)<\/b> \u2014 every public authority shall 'publish all relevant facts while formulating important policies or announcing the decisions which affect public.' The obligation is contemporaneous with formulation or announcement, not subsequent to approval or litigation. GoI Decision (1), Para 4, under Section 4 stresses that this is obligatory, and couples it with <b>Section 4(1)(d)<\/b>, under which authorities 'are also obliged to provide reasons for their administrative or quasi-judicial decisions to the affected parties.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2022,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The obligation to provide reasons for administrative or quasi-judicial decisions is owed to:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the appropriate Government\",\r\n      \"the affected persons\",\r\n      \"the Information Commission\",\r\n      \"any citizen who applies for them\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1)(d)<\/b> \u2014 every public authority shall 'provide reasons for its administrative or quasi-judicial decisions to affected persons.' The duty is owed suo motu to the person affected by the decision; it does not depend on any application being made, nor is it owed at large to every citizen. GoI Decision (1), Para 4, describes this as an obligation to 'provide reasons for their administrative or quasi-judicial decisions to the affected parties.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2023,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the constant endeavour required of every public authority:\\n1. It is to provide as much information suo motu to the public at regular intervals.\\n2. Such information is to be provided through various means of communications, including internet.\\n3. The object is that the public have minimum resort to the use of the Act to obtain information.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(2)<\/b> \u2014 'It shall be a constant endeavour of every public authority to take steps in accordance with the requirements of Clause (b) of sub-section (1) to provide as much information suo motu to the public at regular intervals through various means of communications, including internet, so that the public have minimum resort to the use of this Act to obtain information.' All three limbs \u2014 content, medium and object \u2014 appear expressly in the sub-section.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2024,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Every information required to be disseminated by a public authority is to be disseminated:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"only through the internet\",\r\n      \"only in the official language of the area\",\r\n      \"widely, and in such form and manner which is easily accessible to the public\",\r\n      \"only to those persons who have applied for it\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(3)<\/b> \u2014 'For the purposes of sub-section (1), every information shall be disseminated widely and in such form and manner which is easily accessible to the public.' The internet is one of several media listed in the Explanation to sub-sections (3) and (4), not the exclusive one. Local language is one of three factors under <b>Section 4(4)<\/b>, not the sole permissible medium, and dissemination by its nature is to the public at large, not to applicants alone.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2025,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following factors which are required to be taken into consideration while disseminating all materials:\\n1. Cost effectiveness.\\n2. Local language.\\n3. The most effective method of communication in that local area.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(4)<\/b> \u2014 'All materials shall be disseminated taking into consideration the cost effectiveness, local language and the most effective method of communication in that local area.' All three factors operate together; none is dispensable. Note that the sub-section does not require dissemination <i>only<\/i> in the local language \u2014 an over-statement of this kind is a standard distractor in previous-year papers.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2026,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Where information is made available in electronic format with the Public Information Officer, it is required to be available:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"free of charge in every case\",\r\n      \"free, or at such cost of the medium or the print cost price as may be prescribed\",\r\n      \"at a fee equal to twice the prescribed application fee\",\r\n      \"at the actual cost of the manpower deployed in preparing it\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(4)<\/b> \u2014 the information 'should be easily accessible, to the extent possible in electronic format with the Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer, as the case may be, available free or at such cost of the medium or the print cost price as may be prescribed.' Manpower cost is expressly ruled out: GoI Decision (3), Para 5, under <b>Section 7<\/b> directs that the Public Information Officer 'should not ask the Applicant to pay fee on such account' as cost involved in deployment of manpower.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2027,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The expression 'disseminated', for the purpose of making information known to the public, includes communication through:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"notice boards, newspapers, public announcements, media broadcasts and the internet, including inspection of offices of any public authority\",\r\n      \"newspapers and the internet only\",\r\n      \"media broadcasts and public announcements only, to the exclusion of inspection of offices\",\r\n      \"any means other than inspection of the offices of the public authority\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"The Explanation to <b>Sections 4(3) and 4(4)<\/b> \u2014 'disseminated' means making known or communicated the information to the public through notice boards, newspapers, public announcements, media broadcasts, the internet or any other means, including inspection of offices of any public authority.' The definition is inclusive and open-ended ('any other means'), and expressly brings inspection of offices within the concept of dissemination.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2028,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The weakest link in the information system of the Government has been identified as:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the absence of trained Public Information Officers\",\r\n      \"the neglect of record keeping\",\r\n      \"the inadequacy of the prescribed fee structure\",\r\n      \"the delay in constituting the Information Commissions\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (2) under <b>Section 4<\/b> \u2014 the Second Administrative Reforms Commission, in its First Report of June 2006, 'Right to Information \u2014 Master Key to Good Governance', 'has observed that the weakest link in our information system is the neglect of record keeping.' This observation is the foundation of the Commission's recommendation on earmarking funds for updating records, improving infrastructure, creating manuals and establishing Public Records Offices.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2029,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"As a one-time measure, and for a period of five years, it was recommended that the Government of India earmark funds for updating records and allied purposes to the extent of:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1% of the funds of all Flagship Programmes\",\r\n      \"2% of the funds of all Flagship Programmes\",\r\n      \"1% of the plan outlay of every Ministry\",\r\n      \"2.5% of the funds of all Flagship Programmes\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (2) under <b>Section 4<\/b> \u2014 the Second Administrative Reforms Commission 'has recommended that, as a one-time measure, the Government of India should earmark 1% of the funds of all Flagship Programmes for a period of five years for updating records, improving infrastructure, creating manuals and establishing the Public Records Offices.' The measure is one-time, tied to Flagship Programme funds, and limited to five years.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2030,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following purposes for which the earmarking of funds was recommended:\\n1. Updating of records.\\n2. Improving infrastructure.\\n3. Creating manuals.\\n4. Establishing the Public Records Offices.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (2) under <b>Section 4<\/b> lists exactly these four purposes for the recommended earmarking of 1% of Flagship Programme funds \u2014 'for updating records, improving infrastructure, creating manuals and establishing the Public Records Offices.' Para 2 of the same Decision clarifies, however, that maintenance and updating of records is 'a continuing process which every public authority is obligated to do', irrespective of the one-time earmarking.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2031,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The responsibility for updating records, improving infrastructure and bringing out the necessary manuals rests with:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the Central Information Commission\",\r\n      \"the Department of Personnel and Training\",\r\n      \"the concerned public authorities, from within their own resources\",\r\n      \"the Second Administrative Reforms Commission\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (2), Para 2, under <b>Section 4<\/b> \u2014 'Improving the infrastructure and bringing out the necessary manuals are also continuing processes, and the responsibility of the concerned public authorities. All the public authorities should update their records, improve their infrastructure, bring out necessary manuals from within their resources.' They 'may make specific budgetary provision for the purpose as per their requirement.' The obligation is thus decentralised and self-funded.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2032,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The responsibility of a public authority and its Public Information Officer towards an information-seeker:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"is confined to furnishing the information sought\",\r\n      \"extends to providing necessary help to the information-seeker wherever necessary\",\r\n      \"arises only after the prescribed fee has been paid in full\",\r\n      \"ceases once the application has been transferred to another public authority\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (3) under <b>Section 4<\/b> \u2014 'the responsibility of a public authority and its Public Information Officers (PIO) is not confined to furnish information but also to provide necessary help to the information-seeker, wherever necessary. While providing information or rendering help to a person, it is important to be courteous to the information-seeker and to respect his dignity.' This mirrors the statutory duty in <b>Section 5(3)<\/b> to 'render reasonable assistance to the persons seeking such information.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2033,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following steps advised to be taken by public authorities in the matter of training on the right to information:\\n1. Ensuring that their Public Information Officers and other concerned officers are exposed to training programmes.\\n2. Organising training programmes at their own level.\\n3. Sensitising officers about the need for courteous behaviour with information-seekers.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (3), Para 2, under <b>Section 4<\/b> \u2014 'The public authorities should ensure that their PIOs and other concerned officers are exposed to such training programmes. The public authorities may also organize training programmes at their own level. While imparting such training, the officers should be sensitized about the need of courteous behaviour with the information seekers.' All three limbs are express. Para 3 of the same Decision separately records the Commission's concern that many public authorities had not published information under Section 4.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2034,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"A systematic failure in the maintenance of records, resulting in supply of incomplete and misleading information, may render the public authority liable to:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"prosecution before a criminal court\",\r\n      \"forfeiture of the fee received from the applicant\",\r\n      \"payment of compensation to the complainant, as required by the Information Commission\",\r\n      \"suspension of its Public Information Officer by the Commission\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (4) under <b>Section 4<\/b> notes that such default 'could qualify for payment of compensation to the complainant', since 'Section 19 (8) (b) of the Act gives power to the Commission to require the concerned public authority to compensate the complainant for any loss or other detriment suffered.' Note the distinction: compensation under Section 19(8)(b) is payable by the <i>public authority<\/i>, whereas the penalty under <b>Section 20(1)<\/b> is imposed on the <i>Public Information Officer<\/i> personally.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2035,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Proactive disclosure of the details of foreign and domestic official tours has been advised in respect of Ministers and officials of the rank of:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Deputy Secretary to the Government of India and above\",\r\n      \"Director to the Government of India and above\",\r\n      \"Joint Secretary to the Government of India and above, and Heads of Departments\",\r\n      \"Secretary to the Government of India only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (5) under <b>Section 4<\/b> \u2014 'Public Authorities may proactively disclose the details of foreign and domestic official tours undertaken by Minister(s) and officials of the rank of Joint Secretary to the Government of India and above and Heads of Departments, since 1st January, 2012.' Para 1.8.2 of the Guidelines of 15-4-2013 repeats the same threshold, tracing it to DoP&T O.M. No. 1\/8\/2012-IR dated 11-9-2012.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2036,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding proactive disclosure of official tours:\\n1. The disclosure covers tours undertaken since 1st January, 2012.\\n2. The disclosure is to be updated once every quarter, starting from 1st July, 2012.\\n3. The advisory applies to the security and intelligence organisations specified in the Second Schedule.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (5), Paras 2 and 3, under <b>Section 4<\/b> \u2014 disclosure is advised for tours 'since 1st January, 2012', to be 'updated once every quarter starting from 1st July, 2012.' Statement 3 reverses the position: 'These advisory would not apply to security and intelligence organizations under the second schedule of the RTI Act, 2005 and CVOs of public authorities.' The exclusion mirrors <b>Section 24<\/b>, which keeps Second Schedule organisations outside the Act.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2037,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following particulars which the proactive disclosure of an official tour may contain:\\n1. The nature of the official tour.\\n2. The places visited and the period.\\n3. The number of people included in the official delegation.\\n4. The total cost of such travel undertaken.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (5), Para 3, under <b>Section 4<\/b> \u2014 'Information to be disclosed proactively may contain nature of the official tour, places visited, the period, number of people included in the official delegation and total cost of such travel undertaken.' All four particulars are express. The same paragraph cautions that 'Exemptions under Section 8 of the RTI Act, 2005 may be taken in view while disclosing the information.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2038,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The advisory on proactive disclosure of official tours does not apply to:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"attached and subordinate offices of a Ministry\",\r\n      \"security and intelligence organisations under the Second Schedule, and Chief Vigilance Officers of public authorities\",\r\n      \"autonomous bodies substantially financed by the Government\",\r\n      \"public sector undertakings under the administrative control of a Ministry\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (5), Para 3, under <b>Section 4<\/b> \u2014 'These advisory would not apply to security and intelligence organizations under the second schedule of the RTI Act, 2005 and CVOs of public authorities.' Two distinct exclusions therefore operate: organisations kept out of the Act altogether by <b>Section 24<\/b> read with the Second Schedule, and Chief Vigilance Officers, whose tours may relate to vigilance enquiries. Attached offices, autonomous bodies and PSUs enjoy no such exclusion.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2039,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The Task Force constituted for strengthening compliance with the provisions for proactive disclosure, and which included representatives of civil society organisations, was set up in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"May 2011\",\r\n      \"June 2006\",\r\n      \"March 2012\",\r\n      \"April 2013\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (6), Para 3, under <b>Section 4<\/b> \u2014 'Government of India constituted a Task Force on suo motu disclosure under the RTI Act, 2005 in May 2011 which included representatives of civil society organizations active in the field of Right to Information.' The other dates belong elsewhere: June 2006 is the First Report of the Second Administrative Reforms Commission; March 2012 is the notification of the National Data Sharing and Accessibility Policy; and 15-4-2013 is the date of the O.M. issuing the Guidelines themselves.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2040,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"For the purpose of proactive disclosure of information relating to procurement, the monetary limit presently fixed is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Rs. 1.00 lakh\",\r\n      \"Rs. 5.00 lakhs\",\r\n      \"Rs. 10.00 lakhs\",\r\n      \"Rs. 25.00 lakhs\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 1.1.1 of the Guidelines on suo motu disclosure<\/b> \u2014 'At present, the limit is fixed at Rs. 10.00 lakhs.' The paragraph requires disclosure of all information disclosable under Ministry of Finance, Department of Expenditure O.M. No. 10\/1\/2011-PPC dated 30-11-2011 on mandatory publication of tender enquiries on the Central Public Procurement Portal, and O.M. No. 10\/3\/2012-PPC dated 30-3-2012 on end-to-end e-procurement. Information falling within <b>Section 8<\/b> remains exempt.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2041,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following which are required to be proactively disclosed in relation to procurement:\\n1. Publication of notice or tender enquiries.\\n2. Corrigenda issued on such notices or tender enquiries.\\n3. Details of bid awards, naming the supplier and stating the rate and total amount.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 1.1.1 of the Guidelines<\/b> \u2014 disclosure covers 'publication of notice \/ tender enquiries, corrigenda thereon, and details of bid awards detailing the name of the supplier of goods \/ services being procured or the works contracts entered or any such combination of these and the rate and total amount at which such procurement or works contract is to be done.' All three limbs are express. The paragraph nevertheless preserves the exemptions, since 'information about procurement which fall within the purview of Section 8 of the RTI Act would be exempt.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2042,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"In the case of procurements made through rate contracts of the Directorate General of Supplies and Disposals, or through Kendriya Bhandar or the National Cooperative Consumers' Federation:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"no disclosure at all is required\",\r\n      \"only the award details need to be published\",\r\n      \"the entire tender file is required to be published\",\r\n      \"disclosure is required only where the value exceeds twenty-five lakh rupees\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 1.1.1 of the Guidelines<\/b> \u2014 'In case of procurements made through DGS & D Rate Contracts or through Kendriya Bhandar \/ NCCF, only award details need to be published.' The relaxation is intelligible: in such cases the rates have already been settled through a centralised competitive process, so the tender-stage documents add little. The general limit of Rs. 10.00 lakhs continues to govern other procurements.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2043,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"In respect of a project undertaken through a Public Private Partnership, the documents which are not to be disclosed suo motu are those falling under:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 8(1)(a) and Section 8(1)(b)\",\r\n      \"Section 8(1)(e) and Section 8(1)(f)\",\r\n      \"Section 8(1)(d) and Section 8(1)(j)\",\r\n      \"Section 9 and Section 10\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 1.2.1 of the Guidelines<\/b> \u2014 'The documents under the ambit of the exemption from disclosure of information under Section 8 (1) (d) and 8 (1) (j) of the RTI Act would not be disclosed suo motu.' Clause (d) protects commercial confidence, trade secrets and intellectual property whose disclosure would harm the competitive position of a third party, and clause (j) protects personal information \u2014 the two exemptions most likely to be attracted by a concession agreement and its annexures.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2044,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following in relation to a Public Private Partnership project:\\n1. Details of the Special Purpose Vehicle, if any set up.\\n2. Operation and maintenance manuals generated as part of the implementation of the project.\\n3. Information about fees, tolls or other kinds of revenue collected under authorisation from the Government.\\n4. The salary particulars of the employees engaged by the private sector party.\\n\\nHow many of the above are required to be disclosed in the public domain?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"Para 1.2.1 of the Guidelines requires disclosure of 'details of the Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV), if any set up, detailed project reports, concession agreements, operation and maintenance manuals', and of 'information about fees, tolls, or other kinds of revenue that may be collected under authorization from the Government', besides outputs, outcomes, the process of selection of the private sector party and all payments made with their purpose. Salary particulars of a private party's employees are personal information falling under <b>Section 8(1)(j)<\/b>, expressly kept outside suo motu disclosure.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2045,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Transfer policy for different grades or cadres of employees, and all transfer orders, are required to be:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"proactively disclosed and publicised through the website or in any other manner of dissemination\",\r\n      \"disclosed only on receipt of a specific request from the employee concerned\",\r\n      \"disclosed only in respect of officers of the rank of Joint Secretary and above\",\r\n      \"treated as personal information exempt from disclosure\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 1.3.1 of the Guidelines<\/b> \u2014 'Transfer policy for different grades \/ cadres of employees serving in Public Authority should be proactively disclosed. All transfer orders should be publicized through the website or in any other manner listed in Section 4 (4) of the Act.' The guideline does not apply to transfers made in view of sovereignty, integrity, security, strategic, scientific or economic interests of the State, nor to Second Schedule organisations. The Joint Secretary threshold belongs to the official tours advisory, not to transfers.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2046,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding proactive disclosure of applications and appeals:\\n1. Applications and appeals received, and the responses to them, are to be disclosed on the websites maintained by public authorities.\\n2. Such disclosure is to be supported by a search facility based on key words.\\n3. Applications, appeals and responses relating to the personal information of an individual are also to be disclosed, in the interest of transparency.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 1.4.1 of the Guidelines<\/b> \u2014 'All Public Authorities shall proactively disclose RTI applications and appeals received and their responses, on the websites maintained by Public Authorities with search facility based on key words.' Statement 3 reverses the express carve-out in the same paragraph: such applications and appeals 'relating to the personal information of an individual may not be disclosed, as they do not serve any public interest' \u2014 consistent with <b>Section 8(1)(j)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2047,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Paragraphs of the Comptroller and Auditor General, paragraphs of the Public Accounts Committee, and the Action Taken Reports thereon may be proactively disclosed:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"as soon as they are received by the Ministry concerned\",\r\n      \"only after the Public Accounts Committee has finalised its report\",\r\n      \"only with the prior approval of the Central Information Commission\",\r\n      \"only after they have been laid on the table of both the Houses of Parliament\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 1.5.1 of the Guidelines<\/b> \u2014 'Public Authorities may proactively disclose the CAG & PAC paras. and the Action Taken Reports (ATRs) only after these have been laid on the table of both the Houses of the Parliament.' Even thereafter, 'CAG paras. dealing with information about the issues of sovereignty, integrity, security, strategic, scientific or economic interests of the State and information covered under Section 8 of the RTI Act would be exempt' \u2014 a direct application of <b>Section 8(1)(a)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2048,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The report on performance against the benchmarks set in the Citizens Charter is required to be displayed on the website of a public authority:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"every month\",\r\n      \"every quarter\",\r\n      \"every six months\",\r\n      \"every year\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 1.6.1 of the Guidelines<\/b> \u2014 the Citizens Charter prepared 'as part of the Result Framework Document of the department \/ organization should be proactively disclosed and six-monthly report on the performance against the benchmarks set in Citizens Charter should also be displayed on the website of public authorities.' The quarterly periodicity belongs to official tour disclosures and to funds released to autonomous bodies under Para 3.5.1(c); the annual periodicity belongs to updating of Section 4(1)(b) publications.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2049,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"In respect of discretionary and non-discretionary grants or allocations made by a Ministry or Department:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"only grants made to State Governments are required to be placed on the website\",\r\n      \"disclosure is confined to grants exceeding ten lakh rupees\",\r\n      \"disclosure is required only where the recipient is itself a public authority\",\r\n      \"all such grants or allocations, and the annual accounts of the legal entities receiving them, are required to be made available, subject to Sections 8 to 11\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 1.7.1 of the Guidelines<\/b> \u2014 'All discretionary \/ non-discretionary grants \/ allocations to State Governments \/ NGOs \/ Other institutions by Ministry \/ Department should be placed on the website... Annual Accounts of all legal entities who are provided grants by Public Authorities should be made available through publication, directly or indirectly on the Public Authority's website. Disclosures would be subject to provisions of Section 8 to 11 of the RTI Act.' No monetary threshold or public-authority filter is prescribed.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2050,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Information regarding the nature, place and period of foreign and domestic tours of the Prime Minister is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"exempt from disclosure on grounds of security\",\r\n      \"already disclosed on the website of the Prime Minister's Office\",\r\n      \"required to be disclosed only after the tour is completed and audited\",\r\n      \"disclosed only in the Annual Report laid before Parliament\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 1.8.1 of the Guidelines<\/b> \u2014 'Information regarding the nature, place and period of foreign and domestic tours of Prime Minister are already disclosed on the PMO's website.' The paragraph opens by noting that 'a large number of RTI queries are being filed on official tours undertaken by Ministers or officials', which is precisely why proactive disclosure was extended by Para 1.8.2 to Ministers and officers of Joint Secretary rank and above.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2051,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Orders issued by a public authority are required to be uploaded on its website:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"immediately after they have been issued\",\r\n      \"within thirty days of their issue\",\r\n      \"at the end of every quarter\",\r\n      \"only after they attain finality in appeal\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 2.2(c) of the Guidelines for digital publication<\/b> \u2014 'Orders of the public authority should be uploaded on the website immediately after they have been issued.' The same set of principles requires websites to contain 'detailed information from the point of origin to the point of delivery of entitlements \/ services', all relevant Acts, Rules and forms normally accessed by citizens, and a 'detailed directory of key contacts, details of officials of the Public Authority.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2052,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Every webpage displaying information or data disclosed on a proactive basis is required to display, on the top right corner:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the name and designation of the Public Information Officer\",\r\n      \"the number of visitors to the page\",\r\n      \"the particulars of the First Appellate Authority\",\r\n      \"the mandatory field 'Date last updated (DD\/MM\/YY)'\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 2.2(l) of the Guidelines<\/b> \u2014 'Every webpage displaying information or data proactively disclosed under the RTI Act should, on the top right corner, display the mandatory field Date last updated (DD\/MM\/YY).' The requirement is reinforced by the Devesh Chaturvedi Committee direction that website, other medium and publications relating to Section 4 compliance 'must carry the date (where appropriate for each bit of information) on which the information was uploaded \/ printed.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2053,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The 'National Data Sharing and Accessibility Policy', founded on the principle that all publicly funded information should be readily available, was notified by the Department of Science and Technology in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"June 2006\",\r\n      \"May 2011\",\r\n      \"March 2012\",\r\n      \"April 2013\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 2.2(j) of the Guidelines<\/b> \u2014 'The National Data Sharing and Accessibility Policy by the Department of Science and Technology is based on the principle that all publicly funded information should be readily available. The policy has been notified in March, 2012 and the schedule should be strictly adhered to.' June 2006 is the Second ARC First Report; May 2011 is the constitution of the Task Force; April 2013 is the date of the Guidelines O.M.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2054,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The measure identified as providing the necessary impetus for making all entitlements to citizens, and all transactions between the citizen and Government, available through a computer-based interface was the:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Electronic Delivery of Services Bill, 2012\",\r\n      \"National Data Sharing and Accessibility Policy\",\r\n      \"Information Technology Act, 2000\",\r\n      \"Citizens Charter under the Result Framework Document\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 2.2(a) of the Guidelines<\/b> \u2014 'It should be the endeavour of all public authorities that all entitlements to citizens and all transactions between the citizen and Government are gradually made available through computer-based interface. The Electronic Delivery of Services Bill, 2012 under formulation in Government of India would provide the necessary impetus.' The National Data Sharing and Accessibility Policy, referred to in Para 2.2(j), addresses a different object \u2014 the availability of publicly funded data.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2055,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"In discharging the obligation relating to information held in electronic form, the website of a public authority is required to indicate:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the total volume of data held by it\",\r\n      \"which digitally held information is made available publicly over the internet and which is not\",\r\n      \"the name of the vendor engaged for digitisation of records\",\r\n      \"the expenditure incurred on digitisation during the preceding year\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 2.2(f) of the Guidelines<\/b> \u2014 'It is obligatory under Section 4 (1) (b) (xiv) of the RTI Act for every Public Authority to proactively disclose details in respect of the information, available to or held by it, reduced in an electronic form. The website should therefore indicate which digitally held information is made available publicly over the internet and which is not.' Para 3.6.1 explains the twofold purpose \u2014 showing progress in computerisation, and giving people clarity about electronic information available though not held by the authority.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2056,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The specific duties and responsibilities of a Government department, and the constitutional provisions and statutes which it is required to implement, are laid down in the:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Transaction of Business Rules\",\r\n      \"Manual of Office Procedure\",\r\n      \"General Financial Rules\",\r\n      \"Allocation of Business Rules\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 3.3.1 of the Guidelines<\/b> \u2014 'All Government departments have specific duties and responsibilities under the respective Allocation of Business Rules (AOB) issued by the appropriate Government. The constitutional provisions and statutes each department is required to implement are clearly laid down in the AOB.' The Transaction of Business Rules, by contrast, describe 'the manner of disposal of matters assigned to each Department \/ Ministry', while the General Financial Rules lay down procedures for operations relating to Government finances.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2057,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The manner of disposal of matters assigned to each Ministry or Department is described in the:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Result Framework Document\",\r\n      \"Allocation of Business Rules\",\r\n      \"Transaction of Business Rules\",\r\n      \"Manual of Office Procedure\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 3.3.1 of the Guidelines<\/b> \u2014 'The manner of disposal of matters assigned to each Department \/ Ministry is described in the Transaction of Business Rules (TOB).' The paragraph adds that 'every operation mandated under the AOB read with the TOB would be linked to a specific decision-making chain.' The Manual of Office Procedure separately 'gives details of how representations, petitions and applications from citizens must be dealt with', containing templates, formats and the basic steps of decision-making.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2058,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:\\n\\nList-I\\nA. Allocation of Business Rules\\nB. Transaction of Business Rules\\nC. General Financial Rules\\nD. Citizens Charter\\n\\nList-II\\n1. Norms of performance for major functions, forming part of the Result Framework Document\\n2. Duties and responsibilities of each department and the statutes it is required to implement\\n3. Manner of disposal of matters assigned to each Ministry or Department\\n4. Procedure for according sanction to expenditure, reporting of losses and procurement of goods and services\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1\",\r\n      \"A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Paras 3.3.1, 3.3.2 and 3.4.2 of the Guidelines<\/b>. The AOB lays down departmental duties and the statutes to be implemented; the TOB describes the manner of disposal of matters. The General Financial Rules 'lay down procedures for a variety of operations relating to Government finances... How sanction must be accorded for incurring expenditure; how losses to Government must be reported... how commodities and services may be procured.' Citizen Charters are 'good examples of vehicles created for laying down norms of performance for major functions.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2059,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The decision-making chain in respect of the major outputs or services which a public authority is responsible for providing is required to be identified in the form of:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"a narrative statement in the annual report\",\r\n      \"a flow chart explaining the rank or grade of the functionaries involved and the specific stages in the decision-making hierarchy\",\r\n      \"a list of file numbers under which such decisions are taken\",\r\n      \"a statement of the categories of documents held by it\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 3.3.3(b) of the Guidelines<\/b> \u2014 'the decision-making chain should be identified in the form of a flow chart explaining the rank \/ grade of the public functionaries involved in the decision-making process and the specific stages in the decision-making hierarchy.' This follows Para 3.3.3(a), under which every public authority 'should specifically identify the major outputs \/ tangible results \/ services \/ goods... that it is responsible for providing to the public.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2060,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding disclosure of the decision-making process of a public authority:\\n1. The powers of each officer, including powers of supervision over subordinates, must be spelt out.\\n2. The exceptional circumstances in which the standard decision-making process may be overridden, and by whom, must be explained clearly.\\n3. Where decentralisation of decision-making has occurred in order to grant greater autonomy, such procedures must also be clearly explained.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 3.3.3(c) of the Guidelines contains all three requirements<\/b> \u2014 'The powers of each officer including powers of supervision over subordinates involved in the chain of decision-making must also be spelt out next to the flow chart or in a simple bullet-pointed format in a textbox. The exceptional circumstances when such standard decision-making processes may be overridden and by whom, should also be explained clearly. Where decentralization of decision-making has occurred in order to grant greater autonomy to public authorities, such procedures must also be clearly explained.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2061,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The norms set by a public authority for the discharge of its functions:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"may be qualitative or quantitative in nature, or temporal or statutory norms\",\r\n      \"must invariably be expressed in quantitative terms\",\r\n      \"are required to be fixed by the Central Information Commission\",\r\n      \"are confined to the timelines prescribed for disposal of applications\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 3.4.1 of the Guidelines<\/b> \u2014 'Norms may be qualitative or quantitative in nature, or temporal or statutory norms. In order to ensure compliance with this clause, public authorities would need to disclose norms for major functions that are being performed.' The intention of <b>Section 4(1)(b)(iv)<\/b> is 'that every public authority should proactively disclose the standards by which its performance should be judged' \u2014 the standards are set by the authority itself, not by the Commission.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2062,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following which every public authority is required to disclose in relation to the norms set by it:\\n1. Defining the services and goods which it provides, directly or indirectly through any other agency or contractor.\\n2. Describing the conditions, criteria and priorities under which a person becomes eligible for such goods and services.\\n3. Defining the quantitative and tangible parameters and timelines applicable to such goods and services.\\n4. Fixing the fee payable by an applicant for each such service, as determined by the Public Information Officer.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"Paras 3.4.3(a), (c) and (d) of the Guidelines contain the first three requirements verbatim, including 'defining the quantitative and tangible parameters, (weight, size, frequency, etc.) and timelines, that are applicable to the goods and services.' Statement 4 is foreign to the scheme: fee is fixed by the Right to Information (Regulation of Fee and Cost) Rules, and GoI Decision (3) under <b>Section 7<\/b> holds that 'the Rules or the Act do not give power to the PIO to charge any fee other than prescribed in the Fee and Cost Rules.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2063,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"In laying down individual responsibility in respect of the goods and services it is obliged to provide, a public authority is required to identify:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"only the officer responsible for delivery or implementation\",\r\n      \"only the officer responsible for supervision\",\r\n      \"the officer responsible for delivery or implementation as well as the officer responsible for supervision\",\r\n      \"only the officer responsible for redressing complaints in respect of such services\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 3.4.3(f) of the Guidelines<\/b> \u2014 'Laying down individual responsibility for providing the goods and services (who is responsible for delivery \/ implementation and who is responsible for supervision).' Both limbs are required, so that accountability may be fixed at the operational and the supervisory level alike. Para 3.4.3(e) additionally requires the authority to define 'the qualitative and quantitative outcomes that each public authority \/ office plans to achieve.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2064,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Keeping in view the technical nature of Government budgets, Ministries and Departments are required to:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"publish the budget only after it has been passed by Parliament\",\r\n      \"restrict publication to the sector-specific allocations\",\r\n      \"prepare simplified versions of their budgets which can be understood easily by the general public\",\r\n      \"publish only the outcome budget and not the demands for grants\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 3.5.1(a) of the Guidelines<\/b> \u2014 'Keeping in view of the technical nature of the Government budgets, it is essential that Ministries \/ Departments prepare simplified versions of their budgets which can be understood easily by general public and place them in public domain. Budgets and their periodic monitoring reports may also be presented in a more user-friendly manner through graphs and tables, etc.' Para 3.5.1(b) separately requires the outcome budget to be 'prominently displayed and be used as a basis to identify physical targets.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2065,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Funds released to autonomous organisations, statutory organisations, attached offices, public sector enterprises, societies and corporations are required to be put on the website:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"every month\",\r\n      \"every six months\",\r\n      \"every year\",\r\n      \"on a quarterly basis\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 3.5.1(c) of the Guidelines<\/b> \u2014 'Funds released to various autonomous organizations \/ statutory organizations \/ attached offices \/ Public Sector Enterprises \/ Societies \/ NGOs \/ Corporations, etc. should be put on the website on a quarterly basis and budgets of such authorities may be made accessible through links from the website of the Ministry \/ Department.' The six-monthly periodicity belongs to Citizens Charter performance reports under Para 1.6.1.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2066,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Where a subsidiary body does not maintain a website of its own, its budget and expenditure reports are required to be:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"uploaded on the website of the principal public authority\",\r\n      \"supplied only upon an application for information being made\",\r\n      \"published in the Official Gazette\",\r\n      \"placed before the Central Information Commission\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 3.5.1(c) of the Guidelines<\/b> \u2014 'If a subsidiary does not have a website, then the budgets and expenditure reports of such subsidiary authority may be uploaded on the website of the principal Public Authority.' The object is that absence of a website in the subordinate body should not defeat proactive disclosure. Where the subsidiary does maintain a website, its budgets 'may be made accessible through links from the website of the Ministry \/ Department.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2067,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Budget allocations and targets required to be specially highlighted, wherever required by law or executive instruction, are those focusing on:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"gender, children, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, and religious minorities\",\r\n      \"gender and children only\",\r\n      \"Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes only\",\r\n      \"persons belonging to the below poverty line category only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 3.5.1(d) of the Guidelines<\/b> \u2014 'budget allocation and target focusing on gender, children, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and religious minorities should be specially highlighted. The sector-wise breakup of these targets and actual outcomes must be given in simplified form to enable the vulnerable segments of society to better understand the budgets of public authorities.' The below poverty line category is relevant to fee exemption under the proviso to <b>Section 7(5)<\/b>, not to budget highlighting.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2068,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following particulars which the data about a digitised record may include:\\n1. The name of the record and any categorisation or indexing used.\\n2. The division, section, unit or office where the record is normally held.\\n3. The person, with designation, responsible for maintaining the record.\\n4. The life span of the record, as prescribed in the relevant record retention schedule.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 3.6.2 of the Guidelines<\/b> \u2014 'The data about digitized record may include the name of the record and any categorization or indexing used; the subject matter and any other information that is required to be compiled in relation to a file as prescribed by Manual of Office Procedure...; the division \/ section \/ unit \/ office where the record is normally held; the person, with designation, responsible for maintaining the record; and the life span of the record, as prescribed in the relevant record retention schedule.' Records exempted under <b>Section 8<\/b> are excluded.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2069,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The guidelines on suo motu disclosure were required to be fully operationalised by each Ministry or public authority within a period of:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"three months from the date of their issue\",\r\n      \"six months from the date of their issue\",\r\n      \"one year from the date of their issue\",\r\n      \"one hundred and twenty days from the date of their issue\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 4.1 of the Guidelines<\/b> \u2014 'Each Ministry \/ Public Authority shall ensure that these guidelines are fully operationalized within a period of 6 months from the date of their issue.' Para 4.2 permits Ministries to 'engage consultants or outsource such work to expeditiously comply with these guidelines', utilising plan or non-plan funds, since compliance requires 'collating a large quantum of information and digitizing it.' The 120-day period is the trap drawn from <b>Section 4(1)(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2070,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The Action Taken Report on compliance with the guidelines on suo motu disclosure, along with the URL link, is required to be sent to:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the Department of Personnel and Training and the Central Information Commission\",\r\n      \"the Central Information Commission alone\",\r\n      \"the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances alone\",\r\n      \"the Cabinet Secretariat and the Central Information Commission\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 4.3 of the Guidelines<\/b> \u2014 'The Action Taken Report on the compliance of these guidelines should be sent, along with the URL link, to the DoP&T and Central Information Commission soon after the expiry of the initial period of 6 months.' The Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances figures elsewhere, in Para 2.2, as the body which 'has published guidelines for websites of Government Departments.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2071,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding audit of the proactive disclosure package of a public authority:\\n1. It is required to be audited by a third party every year.\\n2. The audit should cover compliance with the guidelines as well as the adequacy of the items included in the package.\\n3. The names of the third party auditors should be proactively disclosed on the website.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 4.4 of the Guidelines<\/b> \u2014 'Each Ministry \/ Public Authority should get its proactive disclosure package audited by third party every year. The audit should cover compliance with the proactive disclosure guidelines as well as adequacy of the items included in the package... All Public Authorities should proactively disclose the names of the third party auditors on their website.' The audit must also 'examine whether there are any other types of information which could be proactively disclosed.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2072,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Where no training institute exists under a Ministry, Department or public authority, the task of undertaking transparency audits may be given to:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"a firm of chartered accountants empanelled by the Ministry\",\r\n      \"the Central Information Commission\",\r\n      \"the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances\",\r\n      \"any Government Training Institute\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 4.4 of the Guidelines<\/b> \u2014 'the task of undertaking transparency audits may be given to the respective Training Institutes under each Ministry\/Department\/Public Authority and across the States and Union Territories. However, in cases where no training institute exists under the Ministries\/Departments\/Public Authorities, the tasks of undertaking transparency audits may be given to any Government Training Institute.' The same direction is repeated in Para 2(6) of GoI Decision (9) under Section 4.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2073,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following functions assigned to the Central Information Commission in relation to proactive disclosure:\\n1. To examine the third-party audit reports of each Ministry or public authority and offer advice or recommendations.\\n2. To carry out a sample audit of a few of the Ministries or public authorities each year.\\n3. To impose a penalty on the Nodal Officer where the guidelines are not complied with.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Paras 4.5 and 4.6 of the Guidelines<\/b> \u2014 the Commission 'should examine the third-party audit reports for each Ministry \/ Public Authority and offer advice \/ recommendations', and 'should carry out sample audit of few of the Ministries \/ Public Authorities each year with regard to adequacy of items included as well as compliance.' No power of penalty against a Nodal Officer is conferred: the penalty under <b>Section 20(1)<\/b> lies only against a Central or State Public Information Officer.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2074,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Compliance with the proactive disclosure guidelines, its audit by a third party, and its communication to the Central Information Commission are required to be included as:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"a target in the Result Framework Document\",\r\n      \"an item in the Citizens Charter\",\r\n      \"a chapter in the Manual of Office Procedure\",\r\n      \"an entry in the Annual Confidential Report of the Nodal Officer\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 4.7 of the Guidelines<\/b> \u2014 'Compliance with the proactive disclosure guidelines, its audit by third party and its communication to the Central Information Commission should be included as RFD target.' The Citizens Charter is itself a component of the Result Framework Document under Para 1.6.1, but it is the RFD target which is the prescribed instrument of accountability here.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2075,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"For ensuring compliance with the proactive disclosure guidelines, each Central Ministry or public authority is required to appoint a senior officer not below the rank of:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Deputy Secretary, and not below the rank of Head of Office in the case of attached offices\",\r\n      \"Director, and not below the rank of Head of Department in the case of attached offices\",\r\n      \"Joint Secretary, and not below the rank of Additional Head of Department in the case of attached offices\",\r\n      \"Additional Secretary, and not below the rank of Head of Department in the case of attached offices\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 5.1 of the Guidelines<\/b> \u2014 'Each Central Ministry \/ Public Authority should appoint a senior officer not below the rank of Joint Secretary and not below the rank of Additional HoD in case of attached offices for ensuring compliance with the proactive disclosure guidelines.' The 76th Report of the Department Related Parliamentary Standing Committee reiterated that this direction 'should be followed in letter and spirit.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2076,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The Nodal Officer appointed for ensuring compliance with the proactive disclosure guidelines works under the supervision of:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the Central Information Commission\",\r\n      \"the Secretary of the Ministry or Department, or the Head of the Department or office, as the case may be\",\r\n      \"the First Appellate Authority of the public authority\",\r\n      \"the Department of Personnel and Training\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 5.1 of the Guidelines<\/b> \u2014 'The Nodal Officer would work under the supervision of the Secretary of the Ministry \/ Department or the HoD of the department and office, as the case may be.' The same paragraph adds that Nodal Officers 'should also ensure that the formations below the Ministry \/ Department \/ Attached Office also disclose the information as per the proactive disclosure guidelines' \u2014 the responsibility therefore cascades downwards.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2077,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Details about compliance with the proactive disclosure guidelines are required to be included in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the relevant chapter on the right to information in the Annual Report submitted to Parliament\",\r\n      \"the Outcome Budget of the Ministry or Department\",\r\n      \"the Detailed Demands for Grants\",\r\n      \"the six-monthly report on the Citizens Charter\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 6.1 of the Guidelines<\/b> \u2014 'Government has issued directions to all Ministries \/ Departments to include a chapter on RTI Act in their Annual Reports submitted to the Parliament. Details about compliance with proactive disclosure guidelines should mandatorily be included in the relevant chapter in Annual Report of Ministry \/ Department.' This is distinct from the annual report of the Commission under <b>Section 25<\/b> of the Act.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2078,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The Committee of experts constituted to recommend measures to further strengthen implementation of the proactive disclosure provisions consisted of:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"two former officers of the Department of Personnel and Training\",\r\n      \"the serving Chief Information Commissioner and the Secretary, Department of Personnel and Training\",\r\n      \"a former Chief Information Commissioner and a former Information Commissioner\",\r\n      \"representatives of civil society organisations only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (7) under <b>Section 4<\/b> \u2014 'a Committee of experts consisting of Shri A.N. Tiwari, Chief Information Commissioner (Retd.) and Dr. M.M. Ansari, Information Commissioner (Retd.) (of Central Information Commission) was constituted to recommend, inter alia, measures to further strengthen implementation of Section 4 of the RTI Act, 2005.' Civil society representatives were members of the earlier Task Force of May 2011, not of this Committee.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2079,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following recommendations made for strengthening compliance with the proactive disclosure obligation:\\n1. All training modules for professional upgradation of employees should incorporate matter relating to transparency, open Government and the right to information law.\\n2. Public authorities with high public dealings should put in place an effective system to redress the grievances of affected persons.\\n3. Information relating to recruitment, promotion and transfers should be brought into the public domain promptly.\\n4. The retention and maintenance of specific documents for specified duration should be clearly spelt out by each public authority.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (7) under <b>Section 4<\/b> reproduces all four recommendations of the Committee of experts, which were 'duly accepted by the Competent Authority.' Recommendation 3 is expressly linked to the object of reducing RTI applications on service matters, and Recommendation 2 requires 'co-operation and co-ordination between the Central Public Information Officers and the officers responsible for addressing public grievances' at sub-organizational levels.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2080,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The recommendation that the direction requiring appointment of a Joint Secretary rank officer as Nodal Officer should be followed in letter and spirit was made in the 76th Report of the:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Public Accounts Committee\",\r\n      \"Estimates Committee\",\r\n      \"Department Related Parliamentary Standing Committee on Personnel, Public Grievances, Law and Justice\",\r\n      \"Committee on Subordinate Legislation\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (8) under <b>Section 4<\/b> \u2014 Para 4.40 of the 76th Report of the Department Related Parliamentary Standing Committee on Personnel, Public Grievances, Law and Justice observed that 'the direction given by DoP&T in their guidelines for implementation of Section 4 of the RTI Act which required appointment of a Joint Secretary rank officer as the Nodal Officer should be followed in letter and spirit.' Its recommendations were circulated 'for strict compliance' to all Ministries, attached and subordinate offices and public sector undertakings.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2081,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The suggestion that requests for information and the replies to them be published on the websites of Departments was made principally in order to:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"avoid duplicity of requests\",\r\n      \"enable the Commission to monitor the performance of Public Information Officers\",\r\n      \"reduce the fee payable by applicants\",\r\n      \"identify applicants who file requests frequently\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (8) under <b>Section 4<\/b>, quoting Para 4.40 of the 76th Report \u2014 'The Committee suggests the publishing of RTI requests and their replies on the websites of the Departments so that duplicity of requests is avoided. All Departments must make an analysis of information which is sought most often from applicants and provide it on their website as suo motu disclosure.' The same object underlies Para 1.4.1 of the Guidelines, which requires a keyword-based search facility.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2082,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The Consultative Committees required to be constituted by public authorities to advise on what information should be uploaded on a suo motu basis are to consist of:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"officers of the public authority alone\",\r\n      \"office bearers of key stakeholder associations, on a rotational basis\",\r\n      \"nominees of the Central Information Commission\",\r\n      \"representatives of the Department of Personnel and Training\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (9), Para 2(1), under <b>Section 4<\/b> \u2014 'The Public Authorities shall constitute Consultative Committees consisting of office bearers of key stakeholder, association on rotational basis to have a systematic and regular interaction between the officials of the Public Authorities to advise what information to be uploaded as suo motu.' The rotational principle ensures that no single association monopolises the consultative process.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2083,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"'Information and Facilitation Centres' are required to be set up in each public authority where public dealing is involved, in order to:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"receive applications for information in place of the Public Information Officer\",\r\n      \"decide first appeals against the decisions of Public Information Officers\",\r\n      \"educate citizens about the information available on the website of the department and provide printed publications and copies of frequently sought information\",\r\n      \"conduct transparency audits of the public authority\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (9), Para 2(2), under <b>Section 4<\/b> \u2014 IFCs are to be set up 'to educate the citizens about the information \/ documents available on the website of the department concerned and to provide printed publications to the citizens the categories of information that are frequently being sought under the RTI Act and provide copies of information as per RTI Rules, 2012.' Applications are received only by designated officers under <b>Sections 5(1) and 5(2)<\/b>, and first appeals are decided by the senior officer under <b>Section 19(1)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2084,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. A committee of Public Information Officers and First Appellate Authorities with rich experience of dealing with applications and appeals is to be set up to identify the categories of information frequently asked for.\\n2. Such information must be disclosed in the public domain and reviewed at regular intervals.\\n3. Information proactively disclosed must be organised in a searchable and retrievable database to enable people to access the records.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (9), Paras 2(3) and 2(4), under <b>Section 4<\/b> \u2014 a committee of PIOs and FAAs is to 'identify the categories of information that are frequently asked by applicants. Such information must be disclosed in the public domain to make it more user friendly and should also be reviewed at regular intervals.' Further, 'Information on the website must be organized in a searchable and retrievable database to enable people to access the records.' All three propositions are express.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2085,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The responsibility for ensuring that proactively disclosed information is properly categorised and organised so as to facilitate easy retrieval rests with:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the Public Information Officer of the public authority\",\r\n      \"the First Appellate Authority\",\r\n      \"the Central Information Commission\",\r\n      \"the Nodal Officer of each public authority\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (9), Para 2(4), under <b>Section 4<\/b> \u2014 'Information that is proactively disclosed must be properly categorized and organized in such a manner that it facilitates easy retrieval... The Nodal Officer of each Public Authority be made responsible for this.' The Nodal Officer is the officer appointed under Para 5.1 of the Guidelines, being not below the rank of Joint Secretary. The Public Information Officer's statutory duties, by contrast, arise under <b>Sections 5, 6 and 7<\/b> in relation to individual applications.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2086,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The website, other medium and publications of a public authority relating to compliance with its proactive disclosure obligation must carry:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the date on which the information was uploaded or printed\",\r\n      \"the signature of the Nodal Officer\",\r\n      \"the number of the Office Memorandum under which it is issued\",\r\n      \"the name of the third party auditor engaged by the public authority\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (9), Para 2(5), under <b>Section 4<\/b> \u2014 'Website, and other medium and publication of each Public Authority, relating to Section 4 compliance must carry the date (where appropriate for each bit of information) on which the information was uploaded \/ printed.' This complements Para 2.2(l) of the Guidelines, which requires the mandatory field 'Date last updated (DD\/MM\/YY)' on the top right corner of every such webpage.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2087,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"During the COVID-19 pandemic, public authorities dealing with essential services were required to disseminate Government relief, rescue and other welfare actions:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"only through their official websites\",\r\n      \"in the media as well as on their official websites\",\r\n      \"only through press releases issued by the Press Information Bureau\",\r\n      \"only in response to applications for information received by them\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (10), Para 4, under <b>Section 4<\/b> \u2014 'all the Public Authorities dealing with essential services should widely disseminate the Government relief, rescue and other welfare actions, in the media as well as on their official websites in accordance with Section 4 of the RTI Act, 2005.' This applies the general principle in <b>Section 4(3)<\/b> that information be disseminated widely 'in such form and manner which is easily accessible to the public', through as many mediums as feasible.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2088,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Every public authority was required to designate Central or State Public Information Officers in all administrative units or offices under it within:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"sixty days of the enactment of the Act\",\r\n      \"one hundred days of the enactment of the Act\",\r\n      \"one hundred and twenty days of the enactment of the Act\",\r\n      \"one year of the enactment of the Act\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 5(1)<\/b> \u2014 'Every public authority shall, within one hundred days of the enactment of this Act, designate as many officers as the Central Public Information Officers or State Public Information Officers, as the case may be, in all administrative units or offices under it as may be necessary to provide information to persons requesting for the information under this Act.' One hundred and twenty days is the trap: that is the period under <b>Section 4(1)(b)<\/b> for first publication of the seventeen categories.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2089,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The number of Public Information Officers to be designated by a public authority is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"one for each Ministry or Department\",\r\n      \"one for each administrative unit, and not more\",\r\n      \"such number as the Central Information Commission may determine\",\r\n      \"as many as may be necessary to provide information to persons requesting it\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 5(1)<\/b> requires designation of 'as many officers... in all administrative units or offices under it as may be necessary to provide information to persons requesting for the information under this Act.' The number is thus functional, not fixed. It was precisely because a public authority may have several PIOs that the Second Administrative Reforms Commission recommended, and GoI Decision (3) under Section 5 directed, the creation of a central point for receiving all applications and appeals.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2090,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"A Central or State Assistant Public Information Officer is required to be designated at:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"each sub-divisional level or other sub-district level\",\r\n      \"the headquarters of every Ministry or Department\",\r\n      \"each district level only\",\r\n      \"every administrative unit or office of the public authority\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 5(2)<\/b> \u2014 'every public authority shall designate an officer, within one hundred days of the enactment of this Act, at each sub-divisional level or other sub-district level as a Central Assistant Public Information Officer or a State Assistant Public Information Officer.' The fourth option describes the level at which Public Information Officers are designated under <b>Section 5(1)<\/b>, namely 'all administrative units or offices' \u2014 the two designations operate at different levels.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2091,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"An Assistant Public Information Officer is required to forward the applications and appeals received by him forthwith to:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the Public Information Officer only\",\r\n      \"the appropriate Government\",\r\n      \"the Public Information Officer, the senior officer specified for first appeals, or the Information Commission, as the case may be\",\r\n      \"the Nodal Officer of the public authority\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 5(2)<\/b> \u2014 the Assistant Public Information Officer receives 'the applications for information or appeals under this Act for forwarding the same forthwith to the Central Public Information Officer or the State Public Information Officer or senior officer specified under sub-section (1) of Section 19 or the Central Information Commission or the State Information Commission, as the case may be.' His role is thus purely one of receipt and transmission; he takes no decision on the request.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2092,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Where an application for information or an appeal is given to an Assistant Public Information Officer, the period allowed for response is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"reduced by five days\",\r\n      \"increased by five days\",\r\n      \"increased by ten days\",\r\n      \"unaffected\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"Proviso to <b>Section 5(2)<\/b> \u2014 'Provided that where an application for information or appeal is given to a Central Assistant Public Information Officer or a State Assistant Public Information Officer, as the case may be, a period of five days shall be added in computing the period for response specified under sub-section (1) of Section 7.' The ordinary period of thirty days under <b>Section 7(1)<\/b> therefore becomes thirty-five days, the additional five days accounting for transmission.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2093,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Besides dealing with requests from persons seeking information, a Public Information Officer is required to:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"render reasonable assistance to the persons seeking such information\",\r\n      \"verify the citizenship of every applicant before entertaining the request\",\r\n      \"obtain the approval of the appellate authority before supplying information\",\r\n      \"record the purpose for which the information is sought\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 5(3)<\/b> \u2014 'Every Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer, as the case may be, shall deal with requests from persons seeking information and render reasonable assistance to the persons seeking such information.' Recording the purpose is expressly forbidden by <b>Section 6(2)<\/b>. GoI Decision (3) under Section 4 develops the assistance duty further, requiring courteous behaviour and respect for the dignity of the information-seeker.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2094,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"A Public Information Officer may seek the assistance of any other officer:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"only with the prior approval of the head of the public authority\",\r\n      \"only where the information is held in another administrative unit\",\r\n      \"only where the applicant consents to such a course\",\r\n      \"as he or she considers it necessary for the proper discharge of his or her duties\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 5(4)<\/b> \u2014 'The Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer, as the case may be, may seek the assistance of any other officer as he or she considers it necessary for the proper discharge of his or her duties.' The judgment is the PIO's own; no prior approval, no restriction by location of the record, and no consent of the applicant is required.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2095,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"An officer whose assistance is sought by a Public Information Officer is treated as a Public Information Officer:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"for all purposes of the Act\",\r\n      \"only for the purpose of receiving applications\",\r\n      \"for the purposes of any contravention of the provisions of the Act\",\r\n      \"only where the Information Commission so directs\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 5(5)<\/b> \u2014 'Any officer, whose assistance has been sought under sub-section (4) shall render all assistance... and for the purposes of any contravention of the provisions of this Act, such other officer shall be treated as a Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer, as the case may be.' The deeming is confined to liability for contravention; it does not clothe him with the powers or duties of a PIO generally.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2096,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The provision enabling a Public Information Officer to seek the assistance of another officer:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"empowers him to designate that officer as a Public Information Officer and direct him to send the reply to the applicant\",\r\n      \"enables him to obtain assistance, but does not authorise him to designate any other officer as a Public Information Officer\",\r\n      \"relieves him of responsibility for the reply once such assistance has been sought\",\r\n      \"applies only where the other officer belongs to the same administrative unit\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (4), Para 2, under <b>Section 5<\/b> \u2014 'The Act enables the PIO to seek assistance of any other officer to enable him to provide information to the information-seeker, but it does not give an authority to designate any other officer as PIO and direct him to send reply to the Applicant.' It remains 'the responsibility of the officer who is designated as the PIO by the public authority to provide information to the Applicant or reject the application' under <b>Sections 8 and 9<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2097,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Where an officer whose assistance has been sought fails to render the necessary help to the Public Information Officer, the Information Commission may:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"direct the public authority to compensate that officer\",\r\n      \"refer the matter to a civil court for adjudication\",\r\n      \"direct the transfer of the application to another public authority\",\r\n      \"impose a penalty on such officer, or recommend disciplinary action against him, in the same manner as against a Public Information Officer\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (4), Para 2, under <b>Section 5<\/b> \u2014 'The import of sub-section (5) of Section 5 is that, if the officer whose assistance is sought by the PIO, does not render necessary help to him, the Information Commission may impose penalty on such officer or recommend disciplinary action against him the same way as the Commission may impose penalty on or recommend disciplinary action against the PIO.' The powers so exercised are those under <b>Section 20(1) and 20(2)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2098,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The approved modes of payment of fee for obtaining information are:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"cash, demand draft, banker's cheque or Indian Postal Order\",\r\n      \"cash or demand draft only\",\r\n      \"demand draft or banker's cheque only\",\r\n      \"Indian Postal Order or postal stamps only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (1), Para 3, under <b>Section 5<\/b> \u2014 'According to the Right to Information (Regulation of Fee and Cost) Rules, 2005 as amended by the Right to Information (Regulation of Fee and Cost) Rules, 2006, the approved mode of payment of fee for obtaining information is by cash or demand draft or banker's cheque or Indian Postal Order payable to the Accounts Officer of the public authority.' Refusal to accept payment by Indian Postal Order is therefore 'not in line with the provisions of the Rules.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2099,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"A demand draft, banker's cheque or Indian Postal Order tendered towards the fee is required to be made payable to:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the Drawing and Disbursing Officer of the public authority\",\r\n      \"the Under Secretary of the Ministry concerned\",\r\n      \"the Accounts Officer of the public authority\",\r\n      \"the Public Information Officer by name\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (2) under <b>Section 5<\/b> \u2014 'the demand draft \/ banker's cheque \/ IPO should be payable to the Accounts Officer of the concerned public authority.' Some public authorities had insisted that these 'should be drawn in the name of Drawing and Disbursing Officer or the Under Secretary or the Section Officer, etc.', which the Department expressly disapproved by O.M. No. 1\/2\/2007-IR dated 23-3-2007, directing that such instruments 'should not be denied.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2100,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Refusal to accept an application on the ground that the demand draft submitted has been drawn in the name of the Accounts Officer:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"is permissible where the public authority has prescribed a different payee\",\r\n      \"may amount to refusal to accept the application, and result in imposition of penalty on the Public Information Officer\",\r\n      \"is a mere procedural irregularity attracting no consequence\",\r\n      \"entitles the applicant only to a refund of the fee tendered\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (2), Para 2, under <b>Section 5<\/b> \u2014 'Refusal to accept an application on the ground that the demand draft \/ banker's cheque \/ IPO submitted by the Applicant has been drawn in the name of the Accounts Officer may amount to refusal to accept the application. It may result into imposition of penalty by the Central Information Commission on the concerned Central Public Information Officer under Section 20 of the Act.' Under <b>Section 20(1)<\/b> the penalty is Rs. 250 per day, subject to a maximum of Rs. 25,000.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2101,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"In the matter of the form of an application seeking information, the Act and the rules made thereunder:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"prescribe a standard format in which every application must be made\",\r\n      \"require the application to be made in the format prescribed by the public authority concerned\",\r\n      \"require the application to be made in a format approved by the Information Commission\",\r\n      \"do not prescribe any format of application for seeking information\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (1), Para 4, under <b>Section 5<\/b> \u2014 'The Act or Rules notified by the Government do not prescribe any format of application for seeking information. Non-acceptance of an application on the ground that it is not in prescribed format is against the provisions of the Act.' <b>Section 6(1)<\/b> requires only that the request be in writing or through electronic means, in English, Hindi or the official language of the area, accompanied by the prescribed fee.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2102,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"A central point within the organisation for receiving all applications for information and all appeals is required to be created by public authorities having:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"more than one Public Information Officer\",\r\n      \"more than one administrative unit\",\r\n      \"public dealing of a substantial nature\",\r\n      \"offices in more than one State\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (3), Para 2, under <b>Section 5<\/b> \u2014 'all public authorities with more than one PIO should create a central point within the organization where all the RTI applications and the appeals addressed to the First Appellate Authorities may be received.' The rationale, drawn from the Second Administrative Reforms Commission's First Report, is that where there are several PIOs 'an applicant is likely to face difficulty in approaching the appropriate Public Information Officer.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2103,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the central point created for receiving applications and appeals:\\n1. An officer should be made responsible to ensure that all applications and appeals received are sent to the concerned Public Information Officers or Appellate Authorities on the same day.\\n2. The Receipt and Issue or Central Registry Section may maintain a separate register for the purpose.\\n3. The Officer-in-Charge or Branch Officer of the Section may ensure that the applications and appeals received are distributed the same day.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (3), Para 2, under <b>Section 5<\/b> \u2014 'An Officer should be made responsible to ensure that all the RTI applications \/ appeals received at the central point are sent to the concerned Public Information Officers \/ Appellate Authorities, on the same day... The R&I \/ CR Section may maintain a separate register for the purpose. The Officer-in-Charge \/ Branch Officer of the Section may ensure that the applications \/ appeals received are distributed the same day.' All three propositions are express.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2104,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"It was recommended that Ministries, Departments, agencies and offices having more than one Public Information Officer should:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"reduce the number of Public Information Officers to one\",\r\n      \"require applicants to address their applications to the Head of the Department\",\r\n      \"designate a Nodal Officer with the authority to receive requests for information on behalf of all Public Information Officers\",\r\n      \"route all applications through the Central Information Commission\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (3), Para 1, under <b>Section 5<\/b> \u2014 the Second Administrative Reforms Commission 'has, inter alia, recommended that all Ministries \/ Departments \/ Agencies \/ Offices, with more than one PIO, should designate a Nodal Officer with the authority to receive requests for information on behalf of all PIOs. The Commission has also recommended that all the public authorities should designate the First Appellate Authorities.' Applications can never be entertained at first instance by the Commission, whose jurisdiction arises under <b>Sections 18 and 19(3)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2105,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The requirement that every public authority designate First Appellate Authorities and publish their particulars along with those of the Public Information Officers became necessary because:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the Act does not provide for a first appeal in cases of deemed refusal\",\r\n      \"the particulars of the appellate authority are otherwise communicated only where a request is rejected\",\r\n      \"the Information Commission is not competent to entertain a second appeal without such particulars\",\r\n      \"an appellate authority is required to be nominated afresh in respect of each application\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (3), Para 3, under <b>Section 5<\/b> \u2014 <b>Section 7(8)<\/b> obliges the PIO to communicate the particulars of the appellate authority only 'where a request for information is rejected.' But 'there may be cases where the Public Information Officer does not reject the application, but the Applicant does not receive a decision within the time as specified in the Act or he is aggrieved by the decision.' In such cases, absent published particulars, 'the Applicant may face difficulty in making an appeal.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2106,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following practices on the part of certain public authorities:\\n1. Not designating Public Information Officers and Assistant Public Information Officers.\\n2. Not accepting fee tendered by way of Indian Postal Orders.\\n3. Insisting that an application be submitted in a particular format prescribed by them.\\n4. Refusing to accept demand drafts drawn in the name of their Accounts Officer.\\n\\nHow many of the above are contrary to the provisions of the law?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (1) under <b>Section 5<\/b> lists precisely these four practices as defaults. Non-designation contravenes <b>Sections 5(1) and 5(2)<\/b>; refusal of Indian Postal Orders and of drafts drawn in favour of the Accounts Officer contravenes the Right to Information (Regulation of Fee and Cost) Rules, 2005 as amended in 2006; and insistence on a format contravenes <b>Section 6(1)<\/b>, since neither the Act nor the Rules prescribe any format.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2107,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"A request for obtaining information is required to be made:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"in writing only, and in English or Hindi\",\r\n      \"in writing or through electronic means, in English or Hindi or in the official language of the area in which the application is being made\",\r\n      \"in the official language of the area only\",\r\n      \"in writing only, in any language known to the applicant\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 6(1)<\/b> \u2014 a person desiring information 'shall make a request in writing or through electronic means in English or Hindi or in the official language of the area in which the application is being made, accompanying such fee as may be prescribed.' Three languages only are permitted; a language merely spoken by the applicant but which is neither English, Hindi nor the local official language does not satisfy the sub-section.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2108,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"A request for information is required to be addressed to:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the head of the public authority concerned\",\r\n      \"the First Appellate Authority of the public authority\",\r\n      \"the Public Information Officer of the concerned public authority, or the Assistant Public Information Officer\",\r\n      \"the Central or State Information Commission\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 6(1)(a) and (b)<\/b> \u2014 the request is to be made to 'the Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer, as the case may be, of the concerned public authority' or to 'the Central Assistant Public Information Officer or State Assistant Public Information Officer.' The Commission has no first-instance jurisdiction to receive applications; its role begins with a complaint under <b>Section 18<\/b> or a second appeal under <b>Section 19(3)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2109,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Where a request for information cannot be made in writing, the Public Information Officer is required to:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"render all reasonable assistance to the person making the request orally to reduce the same in writing\",\r\n      \"reject the request and advise the applicant to submit it in writing\",\r\n      \"forward the oral request to the Assistant Public Information Officer for recording\",\r\n      \"obtain the request in writing from a person authorised by the applicant\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"Proviso to <b>Section 6(1)<\/b> \u2014 'Provided that where such request cannot be made in writing, the Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer, as the case may be, shall render all reasonable assistance to the person making the request orally to reduce the same in writing.' This is the provision which enables an illiterate person to exercise the right, and it complements the general assistance duty in <b>Section 5(3)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2110,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"An applicant making a request for information is not required to give:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"any reason for requesting the information, but must furnish full personal details\",\r\n      \"his address, though he must state the purpose for which the information is sought\",\r\n      \"any details whatsoever, including those necessary for contacting him\",\r\n      \"any reason for requesting the information, or any other personal details except those that may be necessary for contacting him\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 6(2)<\/b> \u2014 'An applicant making request for information shall not be required to give any reason for requesting the information or any other personal details except those that may be necessary for contacting him.' Contact particulars are thus the sole permissible enquiry. It was on this provision that the High Court of Kolkata, in Avishek Goenka's case, held that the authority 'should not insist upon his detailed whereabouts' where a post-box number is furnished.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2111,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"An application is required to be transferred to another public authority where the information sought is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"held by that other public authority, or the subject matter of which is more closely connected with the functions of that other public authority\",\r\n      \"held by that other public authority alone\",\r\n      \"exempt from disclosure in the hands of the public authority receiving the application\",\r\n      \"already available in the public domain on the website of that other public authority\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 6(3)<\/b> \u2014 transfer arises where an application requests information '(i) which is held by another public authority; or (ii) the subject matter of which is more closely connected with the functions of another public authority.' The two grounds are alternative, and the second covers the case where the receiving authority may hold some material but the subject matter belongs more properly elsewhere. Exemption under <b>Section 8<\/b> is a ground for rejection, not for transfer.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2112,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The transfer of an application to another public authority is required to be made:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"within thirty days from the date of receipt of the application\",\r\n      \"within ten days from the date of receipt of the application\",\r\n      \"as soon as practicable, but in no case later than five days from the date of receipt of the application\",\r\n      \"within forty-eight hours in every case\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"Proviso to <b>Section 6(3)<\/b> \u2014 'Provided that the transfer of an application pursuant to this sub-section shall be made as soon as practicable but in no case later than five days from the date of receipt of the application.' The outer limit is five days; 'as soon as practicable' governs the ordinary case. Thirty days is the disposal period under <b>Section 7(1)<\/b>, and forty-eight hours is the life-and-liberty period under its proviso.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2113,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the transfer of an application:\\n1. Only such part of the application as may be appropriate may be transferred.\\n2. The applicant is required to be informed immediately about such transfer.\\n3. The transfer must in no case be made later than five days from the date of receipt of the application.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 6(3)<\/b> \u2014 the public authority 'shall transfer the application or such part of it as may be appropriate to that other public authority and inform the applicant immediately about such transfer', the proviso fixing the outer limit of five days. All three propositions are therefore express. Note the distinction: intimation to the applicant must be 'immediate', while the transfer itself must be effected 'as soon as practicable' within five days.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2114,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"An application which merely contains a mention of the Prime Minister or the Prime Minister's Office:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"must be transferred to the Prime Minister's Office as a matter of routine\",\r\n      \"should be transferred, if need be, to the public authority actually holding the information, and not to the Prime Minister's Office merely because of such reference\",\r\n      \"must be rejected as vague and lacking in particulars\",\r\n      \"must be decided by the Prime Minister's Office in consultation with the Ministry concerned\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (1) under <b>Section 6<\/b> deprecates the practice of transferring applications to the PMO 'in a routine manner when there is just a mention of the Prime Minister or the Prime Minister's Office in the application.' The correct course is that 'the CPIO receiving the RTI application and transfer it, if need be, to the concerned public authority and not to the PMO simply because the applicant has made a reference to the PM or PMO.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2115,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"After a decision is taken in a matter, the information relating to the issue of consequential orders would ordinarily be available with:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the Prime Minister's Office, which provides secretariat assistance to the Prime Minister\",\r\n      \"the Cabinet Secretariat\",\r\n      \"the Ministry or Department to which the matter concerns\",\r\n      \"the Department of Personnel and Training\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (1) under <b>Section 6<\/b> \u2014 'the Prime Minister's Office has been assigned the work of providing secretariat assistance to the Prime Minister. After a decision is taken in a matter, the Ministry \/ Department to which the matter concerns takes further action regarding issue of orders, etc. Naturally, the information in such cases would be available with the concerned Ministry \/ Department and not the PMO.' The transfer obligation under <b>Section 6(3)<\/b> must be applied with this understanding.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2116,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Where the Public Information Officer, even after making reasonable efforts, is unable to ascertain which public authority is concerned with the information sought, he is required to:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"inform the applicant that he is not aware of the particulars of the concerned public authority to which the application could be transferred\",\r\n      \"reject the application as misconceived\",\r\n      \"transfer the application to the appropriate Government for further action\",\r\n      \"retain the application until the concerned public authority is identified\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (2), Para 3(i), under <b>Section 6<\/b> \u2014 'if the PIO of the public authority is not able to find out as to which public authority is concerned with the information even after making reasonable efforts to find out the particulars of the public authority, he should inform the Applicant that he is not aware of the particulars of the concerned public authority to which the application could be transferred.' Reasonable effort is thus a precondition to this course.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2117,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Where an appeal is preferred against a decision that the concerned public authority could not be identified, the burden lies upon:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the appellant, to establish which public authority holds the information\",\r\n      \"the appellate authority, to make its own enquiry from all public authorities\",\r\n      \"the Information Commission, to summon all public authorities concerned\",\r\n      \"the Public Information Officer, to establish that he made reasonable efforts to find out the particulars of the concerned public authority\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (2), Para 3(i), under <b>Section 6<\/b> \u2014 'It would, however, be the responsibility of the PIO, if an appeal is made against his decision, to establish that he made reasonable efforts to find out the particulars of the concerned public authority.' The burden thus rests on the officer who took the decision, and not on the applicant, consistent with the scheme of the Act in which disclosure is the rule and refusal the exception.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2118,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Where a part of the information sought is available with the public authority receiving the application and a part concerns another public authority, the Public Information Officer is required to:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"transfer the entire application to that other public authority\",\r\n      \"supply the information available with him and send a copy of the application to that other public authority, under intimation to the applicant\",\r\n      \"reject the application and advise the applicant to file two separate applications\",\r\n      \"collect the remaining information from that other public authority and supply the whole of it\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (2), Para 3(ii), under <b>Section 6<\/b> \u2014 'the PIO should supply the information available with him and a copy of the application should be sent to that another public authority under intimation to the Applicant.' Note the deliberate distinction from Para 3(iii): where the remaining information is scattered among several public authorities, the applicant is instead advised to make separate applications, since Section 6(3) speaks of 'another public authority' in the singular.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2119,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Where the information sought is scattered with more than one other public authority, the appropriate course for the Public Information Officer is to:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"transfer the application to each of those public authorities\",\r\n      \"collect the information from all of them and supply it to the applicant\",\r\n      \"give the information relating to his own authority and advise the applicant to make separate applications to the concerned public authorities\",\r\n      \"reject the application as vague and voluminous\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (2), Para 3(iii), under <b>Section 6<\/b> \u2014 'the PIO of the public authority receiving the application should give information relating to it and advise the Applicant to make separate applications to the concerned public authorities for obtaining information from them.' The paragraph adds that 'since the information is not related to any one particular public authority, it is not the case where application should be transferred under sub-section (3) of Section 6.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2120,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The use of the expression 'another public authority', rather than 'other public authorities', in the provision for transfer of applications signifies that:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the provision for transfer is attracted where the information relates to one particular other public authority, and not where it is scattered among several\",\r\n      \"an application may be transferred to any number of public authorities simultaneously\",\r\n      \"the transfer may be made only to a public authority under the same appropriate Government\",\r\n      \"the transfer may be made only where the whole of the information is held elsewhere\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (2), Para 3(iii), under <b>Section 6<\/b> \u2014 'It is pertinent to note that sub-section (3) refers to another public authority and not other public authorities. Use of singular form in the Act in this regard is important to note.' The consequence is that a multi-authority request cannot be routed by transfer; the applicant must be advised to apply separately to each concerned public authority.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2121,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Where the information sought is the concern of a public authority under a State Government or a Union Territory Administration, the Central Public Information Officer receiving the application is required to:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"transfer the application to that State Government or Union Territory Administration\",\r\n      \"obtain the information from that Government and supply it to the applicant\",\r\n      \"reject the application for want of jurisdiction, without any further intimation\",\r\n      \"inform the applicant that the information may be had from the concerned State Government or Union Territory Administration\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (2), Para 3(iv), under <b>Section 6<\/b> \u2014 'the Central Public Information Officer (CPIO) of the public authority receiving the application should inform the Applicant that the information may be had from the concerned State Government \/ UT Administration. Application, in such a case, need not be transferred to the State Government \/ UT Administration.' The transfer machinery of <b>Section 6(3)<\/b> is thus not employed across the Centre-State divide.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2122,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The proposition that a public authority is not required to collect information from different public authorities in order to supply it to an applicant means that:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"collection of information per se amounts to creation of information\",\r\n      \"collection of information does not per se amount to creation of information, but the public authority to whom the application is made is not required to collect it from other public authorities\",\r\n      \"a public authority may never collect information from any source whatsoever\",\r\n      \"the applicant must approach the Information Commission for such collection to be ordered\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (3), Para 3, under <b>Section 6<\/b> \u2014 'the OM, dated 12-6-2008 does not propose to say that collection of information per se amounts to creation of information. The above-referred statement has been made to emphasize that the public authority to whom the application is made is not required to collect information from different public authorities to supply it to the applicant.' The clarification was issued because the Central Information Commission had observed that 'collection of information cannot amount to creation of information.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2123,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Where the particulars of the public authorities which may hold the information sought are available with the Public Information Officer, he is required to:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"provide such details to the applicant\",\r\n      \"transfer the application to all such public authorities\",\r\n      \"obtain the information from them and supply it to the applicant\",\r\n      \"treat the application as one relating to information not held by any public authority\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (4), Para 2, under <b>Section 6<\/b> \u2014 the matter having been examined in consultation with the Chief Information Commissioner, 'it has been decided to advise the PIOs that if the details of public authorities who may have this information sought by the Applicant are available with the PIO, such details may also be provided to the Applicant.' This supplements the advice to make separate applications, by sparing the applicant the task of identifying the authorities.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2124,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Where an applicant furnishes a post-box number which enables contact to be established with him, the authority:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"may insist upon his detailed address in every case\",\r\n      \"must reject the application for want of particulars\",\r\n      \"should not insist upon his detailed whereabouts\",\r\n      \"must require him to appear in person for verification of identity\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"Order dated 20-11-2013 of the High Court of Kolkata in W.P. 33290 (W) of 2013, Avishek Goenka v. Union of India, reproduced as GoI Decision (5) under <b>Section 6<\/b> \u2014 'When the legislature thought it fit, the applicant need not disclose any personal detail, the authority should not insist upon his detailed whereabouts, particularly when post-box number is provided for that would establish contact with him and the authority.' The reasoning rests directly on <b>Section 6(2)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2125,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Where the authority finds difficulty with a post-box number and insists upon personal details of the applicant, it is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"free to publish those details along with the reply given to the applicant\",\r\n      \"under a solemn duty to hide such information, particularly from its website\",\r\n      \"required to obtain the applicant's written consent before using those details\",\r\n      \"required to refer the matter to the Information Commission for directions\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Order dated 20-11-2013 in W.P. 33290 (W) of 2013<\/b> \u2014 'In case, the authority would find any difficulty with the post-box number, they may insist upon personal details. However, in such case, it would be the solemn duty of the authority to hide such information and particularly from their website so that people at large would not know of the details.' The Court directed circulation of the order so that authorities could 'take appropriate measure to hide information with regard to personal details of the activist to avoid any harassment.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2126,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The direction that an authority should not insist upon the detailed address of an applicant rests upon the statutory provision that an applicant:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"may make a request through electronic means\",\r\n      \"is entitled to receive the information within thirty days\",\r\n      \"belonging to the below poverty line category is exempt from payment of fee\",\r\n      \"shall not be required to give any reason for requesting the information or any other personal details except those that may be necessary for contacting him\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"The High Court in W.P. 33290 (W) of 2013 expressly relied on <b>Section 6(2)<\/b> \u2014 'Section 6 (2) of the Right to Information Act, 2005 would clearly provide, an applicant making request for information shall not be required to give any reason for requesting the information or any other personal details except those that may be necessary for contacting him. Looking to the said provision, we find logic in the submission of the petitioner.' The petitioner's apprehension was of threats to information activists.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2127,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"On receipt of a request for information, the Public Information Officer is required to provide the information or reject the request:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"within fifteen days of the receipt of the request\",\r\n      \"as expeditiously as possible, and in any case within thirty days of the receipt of the request\",\r\n      \"within forty days of the receipt of the request\",\r\n      \"within forty-five days of the receipt of the request\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 7(1)<\/b> \u2014 the Public Information Officer shall, 'as expeditiously as possible, and in any case within thirty days of the receipt of the request, either provide the information on payment of such fee as may be prescribed or reject the request for any of the reasons specified in Sections 8 and 9.' The forty-day period belongs to <b>Section 11(3)<\/b>, where a third party has been heard, and forty-five days is the outer limit for disposal of a first appeal under <b>Section 19(6)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2128,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Where the information sought concerns the life or liberty of a person, it is required to be provided within:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"forty-eight hours of the receipt of the request\",\r\n      \"five days of the receipt of the request\",\r\n      \"seven days of the receipt of the request\",\r\n      \"fifteen days of the receipt of the request\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"Proviso to <b>Section 7(1)<\/b> \u2014 'Provided that where the information sought for concerns the life or liberty of a person, the same shall be provided within forty-eight hours of the receipt of the request.' The proviso operates on the subject matter of the information, not on the status of the applicant. Five days is the transfer period under <b>Section 6(3)<\/b>, and the notice period to a third party under <b>Section 11(1)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2129,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Failure of the Public Information Officer to give a decision on a request within the period specified results in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the application lapsing, requiring a fresh application to be made\",\r\n      \"automatic transfer of the application to the Information Commission\",\r\n      \"the Public Information Officer being deemed to have refused the request\",\r\n      \"the request being deemed to have been allowed\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 7(2)<\/b> \u2014 'If the Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer, as the case may be, fails to give decision on the request for information within the period specified under sub-section (1), the Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer, as the case may be, shall be deemed to have refused the request.' The deeming provision is what enables the applicant to prefer a first appeal under <b>Section 19(1)<\/b> notwithstanding the absence of any order.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2130,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Where a decision is taken to provide information on payment of further fee representing the cost of providing the information, the intimation sent to the applicant must contain:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the amount of further fee alone\",\r\n      \"the amount of further fee and the date by which it is to be paid, without more\",\r\n      \"the amount of further fee and the name of the officer who determined it\",\r\n      \"the details of the further fee together with the calculations made to arrive at that amount\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 7(3)(a)<\/b> \u2014 the officer shall send an intimation giving 'the details of further fees representing the cost of providing the information as determined by him, together with the calculations made to arrive at the amount in accordance with fee prescribed under sub-section (1), requesting him to deposit that fees.' The requirement of disclosing the calculation is what makes the demand reviewable, a right expressly recognised by <b>Section 7(3)(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2131,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Where an intimation demanding further fee is sent to the applicant, the period intervening between the despatch of that intimation and the payment of the fee is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"added to the period of thirty days\",\r\n      \"excluded for the purpose of calculating the period of thirty days\",\r\n      \"counted as part of the period of thirty days\",\r\n      \"limited to a maximum of fifteen days\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 7(3)(a)<\/b> \u2014 'the period intervening between the despatch of the said intimation and payment of fees shall be excluded for the purpose of calculating the period of thirty days referred to in that sub-section.' The clock in <b>Section 7(1)<\/b> therefore stops while the applicant considers and deposits the additional fee, and resumes upon payment. Note that this exclusion is confined to further fee, and does not apply to the initial application fee.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2132,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The intimation demanding further fee is also required to inform the applicant of his right to:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"seek review of the decision as to the amount of fee charged or the form of access provided, including the particulars of the appellate authority and the time-limit\",\r\n      \"inspect the record free of cost pending payment of the further fee\",\r\n      \"obtain the information in instalments as and when the fee is paid\",\r\n      \"have the fee waived on furnishing a declaration of financial hardship\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 7(3)(b)<\/b> \u2014 the intimation must give 'information concerning his or her right with respect to review the decision as to the amount of fees charged or the form of access provided, including the particulars of the appellate authority, time-limit, process and any other forms.' The remedy therefore extends both to the quantum of fee and to the form in which access is offered, and is exercisable through the appellate machinery of <b>Section 19<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2133,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Where the person to whom access to a record is to be provided is sensorily disabled, the Public Information Officer is required to:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"supply the information only through an authorised representative of that person\",\r\n      \"supply the information free of cost in every case\",\r\n      \"provide such assistance as may be appropriate to enable access to the information, including for the inspection\",\r\n      \"refer the request to the appellate authority for directions\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 7(4)<\/b> \u2014 'Where access to the record or a part thereof is required to be provided under this Act and the person to whom access is to be provided is sensorily disabled, the Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer, as the case may be, shall provide assistance to enable access to the information, including providing such assistance as may be appropriate for the inspection.' The provision creates a facility, not a fee exemption; fee exemption is confined to below poverty line applicants under the proviso to <b>Section 7(5)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2134,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The fee prescribed for making an application and for supply of information is required to be:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"uniform throughout the country in every case\",\r\n      \"determined by the Public Information Officer in each case\",\r\n      \"equal to the actual cost incurred by the public authority\",\r\n      \"reasonable\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"Proviso to <b>Section 7(5)<\/b> \u2014 'the fee prescribed under sub-section (1) of Section 6 and sub-sections (1) and (5) of Section 7 shall be reasonable and no such fee shall be charged from the persons who are of below poverty line as may be determined by the appropriate Government.' The Public Information Officer has no independent power to fix fee: GoI Decision (3) under Section 7 records that 'the Rules or the Act do not give power to the PIO to charge any fee other than prescribed in the Fee and Cost Rules.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2135,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"No fee is chargeable from persons who are:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"sensorily disabled\",\r\n      \"of below poverty line, as may be determined by the appropriate Government\",\r\n      \"senior citizens above the age of sixty-five years\",\r\n      \"applying for information concerning their own service records\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"Proviso to <b>Section 7(5)<\/b> \u2014 'no such fee shall be charged from the persons who are of below poverty line as may be determined by the appropriate Government.' Sensorily disabled persons are entitled to assistance in accessing records under <b>Section 7(4)<\/b>, but not to any exemption from fee. There is no exemption in the Act by reference to age or to the subject matter of the request.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2136,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Where a public authority fails to comply with the time-limits specified for disposal of a request, the information is required to be provided:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"free of charge\",\r\n      \"on payment of half the prescribed fee\",\r\n      \"on payment of the full prescribed fee, with a right to claim compensation\",\r\n      \"only after the appellate authority so directs\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 7(6)<\/b> \u2014 'Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section (5), the person making request for the information shall be provided the information free of charge where a public authority fails to comply with the time-limits specified in sub-section (1).' The non obstante clause overrides the fee-charging provision in Section 7(5), making free supply the automatic statutory consequence of delay, without any order of the appellate authority.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2137,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Before taking a decision on a request for information, the Public Information Officer is required to take into consideration:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the reasons stated by the applicant for seeking the information\",\r\n      \"the opinion of the First Appellate Authority\",\r\n      \"the representation made by a third party\",\r\n      \"the volume of applications pending in the public authority\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 7(7)<\/b> \u2014 'Before taking any decision under sub-section (1), the Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer, as the case may be, shall take into consideration the representation made by a third party under Section 11.' The applicant's reasons cannot be considered because <b>Section 6(2)<\/b> forbids their being called for, and the appellate authority has no role until an appeal is filed under <b>Section 19(1)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2138,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following which are required to be communicated to a person whose request for information has been rejected:\\n1. The reasons for such rejection.\\n2. The period within which an appeal against such rejection may be preferred.\\n3. The particulars of the appellate authority.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 7(8)<\/b> \u2014 where a request has been rejected, the officer 'shall communicate to the person making the request, (i) the reasons for such rejection; (ii) the period within which an appeal against such rejection may be preferred; and (iii) the particulars of the Appellate Authority.' All three are mandatory. It is precisely because this obligation is confined to cases of rejection that GoI Decision (3) under Section 5 required the particulars of First Appellate Authorities to be published in advance.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2139,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Information is required ordinarily to be provided in the form in which it is sought, unless doing so would:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"increase the cost of supplying the information\",\r\n      \"disproportionately divert the resources of the public authority, or be detrimental to the safety or preservation of the record in question\",\r\n      \"require the assistance of any other officer of the public authority\",\r\n      \"involve supply of information relating to a third party\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 7(9)<\/b> \u2014 'An information shall ordinarily be provided in the form in which it is sought unless it would disproportionately divert the resources of the public authority or would be detrimental to the safety or preservation of the record in question.' Two grounds alone are recognised. GoI Decision (3), Para 4, under Section 7 notes that Section 7(9) is the provision through which 'supply of information in a form which would disproportionately divert the resources of the public authority is taken care of.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2140,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The requirement that information be provided ordinarily in the form in which it is sought means that:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"if information is sought as a photocopy it shall be provided as a photocopy, and if sought on a floppy it shall be provided in that form\",\r\n      \"the Public Information Officer must reshape the information into a pro forma devised by the applicant\",\r\n      \"the Public Information Officer must cull out and extract the relevant information from the documents held by him\",\r\n      \"the applicant may insist upon the information being supplied in a language of his choice\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (1) under <b>Section 7<\/b> \u2014 'the sub-section simply means that if the information is sought in the form of photocopy, it shall be provided in the form of photocopy and if it is sought in the form of a floppy, it shall be provided in that form subject to the conditions given in the Act, etc. It does not mean that the PIO shall reshape the information.' Requests to cull out information into an applicant-devised pro forma are therefore outside the sub-section.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2141,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"In relation to the material held by a public authority, a Public Information Officer is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"required to deduce conclusions from the material and supply the conclusions so deduced\",\r\n      \"required to carry out research on behalf of the citizen before supplying the material\",\r\n      \"required to supply the material in the form as held by the public authority, without deducing anything from it\",\r\n      \"entitled to refuse the material if the applicant is capable of deducing the conclusion himself\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (1), Para 2, under <b>Section 7<\/b> \u2014 'The Act, however, does not require the Public Information Officer to deduce some conclusion from the material and supply the conclusion so deduced to the Applicant. The PIO is required to supply the material in the form as held by the public authority and is not required to do research on behalf of the citizen to deduce anything from the material and then supply it to him.' This flows from the definition of 'information' in <b>Section 2(f)<\/b> as 'any material in any form'.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2142,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following which a reply furnishing information to an applicant should essentially contain:\\n1. The application number, its date, and the date of its receipt in the public authority.\\n2. The name, designation, official telephone number and e-mail ID of the Public Information Officer.\\n3. Detailed reasons for denial, quoting the relevant sections, where information is denied.\\n4. The name, designation, address, official telephone number and e-mail ID of the First Appellate Authority.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (2) under <b>Section 7<\/b> lays down that although 'there cannot be a standard format for providing information, the reply should, however essentially contain' these particulars, together with the details of the public authority to whom the application is transferred under <b>Section 6(3)<\/b>, and a concluding paragraph stating that a first appeal may be made to the First Appellate Authority within thirty days of receipt of the reply.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2143,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The concluding paragraph of a reply supplying information should state that a first appeal against the reply may be made to the First Appellate Authority:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"within fifteen days of receipt of the reply\",\r\n      \"within thirty days of receipt of the reply\",\r\n      \"within forty-five days of receipt of the reply\",\r\n      \"within ninety days of receipt of the reply\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (2), Para 1(v), under <b>Section 7<\/b> \u2014 'In the concluding Para. of the reply, it should be clearly mentioned that the First Appeal, if any, against the reply of the CPIO may be made to the First Appellate Authority within 30 days of receipt of reply of CPIO.' This mirrors <b>Section 19(1)<\/b>. The period of ninety days is the trap: it is the limitation for a second appeal to the Information Commission under <b>Section 19(3)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2144,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Where an applicant has requested certified copies of documents or records, the Public Information Officer is required to:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"endorse on the document that it is a true copy of the document or record supplied under the Act, sign it with the date, and affix a seal containing his name, designation and the name of the public authority\",\r\n      \"attest each page with his initials alone\",\r\n      \"obtain the counter-signature of the First Appellate Authority on each certified copy\",\r\n      \"supply an uncertified copy along with a covering letter stating that it is authentic\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (2), Para 2, under <b>Section 7<\/b> \u2014 'the CPIO should endorse on the document True copy of the document \/ record supplied under RTI Act, sign the document with date, above a seal containing name of the officer, CPIO and name of public authority.' The prescribed endorsement thus identifies the statutory source of supply, the certifying officer and the authority, so that the copy may be relied upon.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2145,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Where the documents to be certified and supplied are large in number:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the certification may be dispensed with altogether\",\r\n      \"the applicant may be required to have the copies certified at his own cost\",\r\n      \"the information should be supplied by the designated Public Information Officer, but certification of the documents may be done by another junior Gazetted officer\",\r\n      \"the supply may be refused as disproportionately diverting the resources of the public authority\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (2), Para 2, under <b>Section 7<\/b> \u2014 'in case the documents to be certified and supplied is large in number, information on RTI application should be supplied by a designated PIO but the certification of the documents, if need be, could be done by an other junior Gazetted officer.' The responsibility for supply thus remains with the PIO; only the mechanical act of certification may be delegated to a junior Gazetted officer.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2146,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The provisions under which fee may lawfully be charged from an applicant are:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Sections 6(1) and 7(3) only\",\r\n      \"Sections 7(1) and 7(3) only\",\r\n      \"Sections 6(1), 7(1) and 7(3)\",\r\n      \"Sections 6(1), 7(1) and 7(5)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (3), Para 2, under <b>Section 7<\/b>, quoting the Central Information Commission \u2014 'there is provision for charging of fee only under Section 6 (1) which is the application fee; Section 7 (1) which is the fee charged for photocopying, etc., and Section 7 (5) which is for getting information in printed or electronic format. But there is no provision for any further fee.' Section 7(3) confers no independent power: 'the further fee mentioned in Section 7 (3) only refers to the procedure in availing of the further fee already prescribed under 7 (5) of the Act.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2147,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following interests, prejudicial effect upon which attracts exemption from disclosure:\\n1. The sovereignty and integrity of India.\\n2. The security, strategic, scientific or economic interests of the State.\\n3. Relation with a foreign State.\\n4. Incitement of an offence.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8(1)(a)<\/b> exempts 'information, disclosure of which would prejudicially affect the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security, strategic, scientific or economic interests of the State, relation with foreign State or lead to incitement of an offence.' All four heads are contained in the single clause. This is also one of the three clauses which, under <b>Section 8(3)<\/b>, continue to protect information even after the lapse of twenty years.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2148,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Information which has been expressly forbidden to be published by a court of law or tribunal, or the disclosure of which may constitute contempt of court, is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"exempt from disclosure\",\r\n      \"disclosable only with the leave of that court or tribunal\",\r\n      \"disclosable after the lapse of twenty years in every case\",\r\n      \"disclosable if the larger public interest so warrants\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8(1)(b)<\/b> \u2014 there is no obligation to give any citizen 'information which has been expressly forbidden to be published by any court of law or tribunal or the disclosure of which may constitute contempt of court.' Unlike clauses (d), (e) and (j), this clause carries no express larger public interest override within itself, though the general public interest power in <b>Section 8(2)<\/b> remains. Clause (b) is not among the clauses saved from the twenty-year rule by <b>Section 8(3)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2149,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Information the disclosure of which would cause a breach of privilege of Parliament or the State Legislature is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"disclosable with the permission of the Speaker or the Chairman\",\r\n      \"exempt from disclosure\",\r\n      \"disclosable after the matter has been concluded in the House\",\r\n      \"disclosable only to a member of the House concerned\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8(1)(c)<\/b> \u2014 there is no obligation to give 'information, the disclosure of which would cause a breach of privilege of Parliament or the State Legislature.' This clause is one of the three, along with clauses (a) and (i), which are expressly saved by <b>Section 8(3)<\/b>, so that its protection endures even in respect of occurrences more than twenty years old. Contrast the proviso to <b>Section 8(1)(j)<\/b>, under which information that cannot be denied to the Legislature shall not be denied to any person.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2150,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Information including commercial confidence, trade secrets or intellectual property is exempt from disclosure where its disclosure would:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"cause loss of revenue to the public authority\",\r\n      \"involve infringement of copyright subsisting in the State\",\r\n      \"harm the competitive position of a third party, unless the competent authority is satisfied that larger public interest warrants the disclosure\",\r\n      \"be detrimental to the preservation of the record in question\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8(1)(d)<\/b> \u2014 the exemption covers 'information including commercial confidence, trade secrets or intellectual property, the disclosure of which would harm the competitive position of a third party, unless the competent authority is satisfied that larger public interest warrants the disclosure of such information.' Infringement of copyright is dealt with separately by <b>Section 9<\/b>, and then only where the copyright subsists 'in a person other than the State'.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2151,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Information available to a person in his fiduciary relationship is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"always disclosable, the Act having overriding effect\",\r\n      \"disclosable only after the lapse of twenty years\",\r\n      \"disclosable only with the consent of the person to whom the duty is owed\",\r\n      \"exempt from disclosure, unless the competent authority is satisfied that the larger public interest warrants its disclosure\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8(1)(e)<\/b> \u2014 there is no obligation to give 'information available to a person in his fiduciary relationship, unless the competent authority is satisfied that the larger public interest warrants the disclosure of such information.' The override is thus built into the clause itself and is exercisable by the competent authority. Legal advice tendered by a lawyer to his client is the classic illustration of a fiduciary or privileged communication protected by this clause.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2152,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Information received in confidence from a foreign Government is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"exempt from disclosure\",\r\n      \"disclosable with the concurrence of the Ministry of External Affairs\",\r\n      \"disclosable where the larger public interest so requires, as expressly provided in the clause\",\r\n      \"disclosable after the expiry of twenty years in every case\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8(1)(f)<\/b> \u2014 there is no obligation to give 'information received in confidence from foreign Government.' The clause contains no internal public interest override of the kind found in clauses (d), (e) and (j), although the general power in <b>Section 8(2)<\/b> to allow access where 'public interest in disclosure outweighs the harm to the protected interests' continues to operate over the whole of sub-section (1).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2153,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Information the disclosure of which would identify the source of information or assistance given in confidence for law enforcement or security purposes is exempt, along with information the disclosure of which would:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"impede the process of investigation or prosecution of offenders\",\r\n      \"endanger the life or physical safety of any person\",\r\n      \"cause a breach of privilege of Parliament\",\r\n      \"harm the competitive position of a third party\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8(1)(g)<\/b> \u2014 the exemption covers 'information, the disclosure of which would endanger the life or physical safety of any person or identify the source of information or assistance given in confidence for law enforcement or security purposes.' The two limbs \u2014 physical safety, and protection of confidential sources \u2014 appear in the same clause. Impeding investigation or prosecution is a separate ground under <b>Section 8(1)(h)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2154,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Information which would impede the process of investigation is exempt, and the same clause also protects information which would impede the process of:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"audit or inspection of the public authority\",\r\n      \"departmental disciplinary proceedings\",\r\n      \"apprehension or prosecution of offenders\",\r\n      \"collection of revenue by the State\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8(1)(h)<\/b> \u2014 there is no obligation to give 'information which would impede the process of investigation or apprehension or prosecution of offenders.' All three stages of the criminal process \u2014 investigation, apprehension and prosecution \u2014 are protected by the single clause. Departmental proceedings and audit find no place in it; information concerning complaints against an officer and action taken thereon is protected instead under <b>Section 8(1)(j)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2155,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The decisions of the Council of Ministers, the reasons thereof, and the material on the basis of which the decisions were taken are required to be made public:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"immediately upon the deliberations commencing\",\r\n      \"only after the expiry of twenty years from the date of the decision\",\r\n      \"only if the competent authority is satisfied that larger public interest so warrants\",\r\n      \"after the decision has been taken, and the matter is complete or over\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"First proviso to <b>Section 8(1)(i)<\/b> \u2014 'the decisions of Council of Ministers, the reasons thereof, and the material on the basis of which the decisions were taken shall be made public after the decision has been taken, and the matter is complete, or over.' The exemption in the main clause covers 'cabinet papers including records of deliberations of the Council of Ministers, Secretaries and other officers', which continue to be protected while the matter is pending.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2156,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Even after a decision of the Council of Ministers has been taken and the matter is complete:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"those matters which come under the exemptions specified in Section 8 shall not be disclosed\",\r\n      \"the entire record of deliberations must be disclosed without exception\",\r\n      \"disclosure may be made only with the approval of the Cabinet Secretariat\",\r\n      \"disclosure may be made only to a member of Parliament\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"Second proviso to <b>Section 8(1)(i)<\/b> \u2014 'Provided further that those matters which come under the exemptions specified in this section shall not be disclosed.' The opening of the Cabinet record after the matter is complete is therefore not absolute: material otherwise falling under clauses (a) to (j) remains protected. Clause (i) is also one of the three clauses saved from the twenty-year rule by <b>Section 8(3)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2157,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Personal information is exempt from disclosure where its disclosure:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"would in any manner relate to the service conditions of a public servant\",\r\n      \"has no relationship to any public activity or interest, or would cause unwarranted invasion of the privacy of the individual\",\r\n      \"is opposed by the individual concerned\",\r\n      \"would require the record to be severed\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8(1)(j)<\/b> \u2014 the exemption covers 'information which relates to personal information the disclosure of which has no relationship to any public activity or interest, or which would cause unwarranted invasion of the privacy of the individual unless the Central Public Information Officer or the State Public Information Officer or the Appellate Authority, as the case may be, is satisfied that the larger public interest justifies the disclosure of such information.' Note that here the satisfaction is that of the PIO or the Appellate Authority, and not of the 'competent authority' as in clauses (d) and (e).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2158,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Information which cannot be denied to Parliament or a State Legislature:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"may be denied to a citizen if it relates to personal information\",\r\n      \"may be denied to a citizen with the approval of the competent authority\",\r\n      \"shall not be denied to any person\",\r\n      \"may be supplied only after the information has been laid before the House\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"Proviso to <b>Section 8(1)(j)<\/b> \u2014 'Provided that the information which cannot be denied to the Parliament or a State Legislature shall not be denied to any person.' The proviso establishes parity between the citizen and the legislature as recipients of information, and is a significant limitation on the exemptions, since a public authority cannot claim a higher degree of confidentiality against a citizen than it could maintain before the House.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2159,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:\\n\\nList-I (Ground of exemption)\\nA. Information received in confidence from foreign Government\\nB. Information which would impede the process of investigation or apprehension or prosecution of offenders\\nC. Information available to a person in his fiduciary relationship\\nD. Cabinet papers including records of deliberations of the Council of Ministers, Secretaries and other officers\\n\\nList-II (Clause)\\n1. Clause (e)\\n2. Clause (f)\\n3. Clause (h)\\n4. Clause (i)\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3\",\r\n      \"A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8(1)<\/b> \u2014 clause (e) protects information held in a fiduciary relationship, subject to the larger public interest; clause (f) protects information received in confidence from a foreign Government; clause (h) protects information which would impede investigation, apprehension or prosecution of offenders; and clause (i) protects Cabinet papers, subject to the two provisos governing disclosure after the decision is taken and the matter is complete.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2160,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Notwithstanding the Official Secrets Act, 1923 and the exemptions available, a public authority may allow access to information where:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"public interest in disclosure outweighs the harm to the protected interests\",\r\n      \"the applicant undertakes not to publish the information\",\r\n      \"the information has already been disclosed to another applicant\",\r\n      \"the information relates to a matter more than ten years old\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8(2)<\/b> \u2014 'Notwithstanding anything in the Official Secrets Act, 1923 nor any of the exemptions permissible in accordance with sub-section (1), a public authority may allow access to information, if public interest in disclosure outweighs the harm to the protected interests.' The power is discretionary and extends over the whole of sub-section (1), being the general public interest override which supplements the clause-specific overrides in clauses (d), (e) and (j).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2161,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Information relating to any occurrence, event or matter which has taken place twenty years before the date on which a request is made:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"is exempt from disclosure in every case\",\r\n      \"is required to be provided, subject to the exemptions relating to sovereignty and integrity, breach of privilege, and Cabinet papers\",\r\n      \"is required to be provided without any exception whatsoever\",\r\n      \"is required to be provided only where the record has been retained beyond the retention schedule\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8(3)<\/b> \u2014 'Subject to the provisions of Clauses (a), (c) and (i) of sub-section (1), any information relating to any occurrence, event or matter which has taken place, occurred or happened twenty years before the date on which any request is made under Section 6 shall be provided to any person making a request under that section.' The three saved clauses are (a) sovereignty, security and allied interests, (c) breach of privilege, and (i) Cabinet papers.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2162,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Where a question arises as to the date from which the period of twenty years is to be computed, the decision shall be that of:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the public authority holding the information\",\r\n      \"the Central Information Commission\",\r\n      \"the Central Government, which shall be final, subject to the usual appeals provided for in the Act\",\r\n      \"the First Appellate Authority of the public authority concerned\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"Proviso to <b>Section 8(3)<\/b> \u2014 'Provided that where any question arises as to the date from which the said period of twenty years has to be computed, the decision of the Central Government shall be final, subject to the usual appeals provided for in this Act.' The finality is thus qualified: the Central Government's determination binds the public authority, but does not oust the appellate remedies under <b>Section 19<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2163,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the retention of records:\\n1. A record retention schedule is prescribed by the Act itself.\\n2. Records are to be retained by a public authority as per the record retention schedule applicable to that public authority.\\n3. Weeding out of a file does not necessarily result in destruction of the information contained in that file.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (2), Para 2, under <b>Section 8<\/b> \u2014 'The RTI Act does not prescribe a record retention schedule. The records are to be retained by a public authority as per the record retention schedule applicable to that public authority. It is, however, important to note that weeding out of a file or any other record does not necessarily result into destruction of the information contained in that file or record. It is possible that information generated in a file may be available in the form of an O.M. or a letter or in any other form even after the file has been weeded out.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2164,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following types of information which continue to be exempt even after the lapse of twenty years:\\n1. Information the disclosure of which would prejudicially affect the sovereignty and integrity of India.\\n2. Information the disclosure of which would cause a breach of privilege of Parliament or a State Legislature.\\n3. Cabinet papers including records of deliberations of the Council of Ministers, Secretaries and other officers.\\n4. Information available to a person in his fiduciary relationship.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (2), Para 2, under <b>Section 8<\/b> lists exactly three categories which continue to be exempt after twenty years, corresponding to clauses (a), (c) and (i) saved by <b>Section 8(3)<\/b>. Fiduciary information under clause (e) is not among them, and therefore ceases to be exempt once twenty years have elapsed from the occurrence to which it relates.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2165,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"In respect of the Annual Confidential Report of an employee, the position is that:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"it must be disclosed to the employee reported upon, though not to any other person\",\r\n      \"the public authority is not under an obligation to disclose it, but has a discretion to do so where public interest in disclosure outweighs the harm to the protected interests\",\r\n      \"it must be disclosed to any citizen after the lapse of twenty years\",\r\n      \"it is disclosable only with the consent of the reporting officer\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (1), Para 3, under <b>Section 8<\/b> \u2014 'the public authority is not under obligation to disclose ACRs of any employee to the employee himself or to any other person inasmuch as disclosure of ACRs is protected by Clause (j) of sub-section (1) of Section 8; and an ACR is a confidential document, disclosure of which is protected by the Official Secrets Act, 1923. However, the public authority has a discretion to disclose... if the public authority is satisfied that the public interest in disclosure outweighs the harm to the protected interests', that discretion flowing from <b>Section 8(2)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2166,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"In relation to the disclosure of notings recorded on a file, the position is that:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"file notings can never be disclosed, being internal deliberations\",\r\n      \"file notings can be disclosed only after the decision on the file has been implemented\",\r\n      \"file notings can be disclosed, except those containing information exempt from disclosure\",\r\n      \"file notings can be disclosed only to the person affected by the decision\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (3) under <b>Section 8<\/b> \u2014 'It is hereby clarified that file noting can be disclosed except file noting containing information exempt from disclosure under Section 8 of the Act.' Disclosure is thus the rule and exemption the exception, so that a noting may be withheld only if it independently attracts one of the clauses of Section 8(1). Where only part of a noting is exempt, <b>Section 10<\/b> permits severance.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2167,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Information about complaints made against a Government officer, and the action taken by the authorities on those complaints:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"must be disclosed as it relates to the discharge of public functions\",\r\n      \"is disclosable only to the complainant\",\r\n      \"must be disclosed after the disciplinary proceedings are concluded\",\r\n      \"qualifies as personal information, disclosable only if a larger public interest is served\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (4) under <b>Section 8<\/b>, applying Girish R. Deshpande v. Central Information Commission, SLP (C) No. 27734\/2012 \u2014 'The performance of an employee \/ Officer in an organization is primarily a matter between the employee and the employer and normally those aspects are governed by the service rules which fall under the expression personal information, the disclosure of which has no relationship to any public activity or public interest.' Such information could be disclosed 'only if it would serve a larger public interest' under <b>Section 8(1)(j)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2168,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following grounds of exemption which are, by their own terms, subject to disclosure where the larger public interest so warrants:\\n1. Information including commercial confidence, trade secrets or intellectual property.\\n2. Information available to a person in his fiduciary relationship.\\n3. Information received in confidence from a foreign Government.\\n4. Personal information the disclosure of which would cause unwarranted invasion of privacy.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"Clauses (d), (e) and (j) of <b>Section 8(1)<\/b> each contain an internal override \u2014 clauses (d) and (e) turning on the satisfaction of 'the competent authority', and clause (j) on that of the Public Information Officer or the Appellate Authority. Clause (f), covering information received in confidence from a foreign Government, contains no such internal override, though the general discretionary power in <b>Section 8(2)<\/b> continues to apply to it.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2169,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"A request for information may be rejected where providing access would involve an infringement of copyright subsisting in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the State\",\r\n      \"a person other than the State\",\r\n      \"any person, including the State\",\r\n      \"a foreign Government\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 9<\/b> \u2014 'Without prejudice to the provisions of Section 8, a Central Public Information Officer or a State Public Information Officer, as the case may be, may reject a request for information where such a request for providing access would involve an infringement of copyright subsisting in a person other than the State.' Copyright vesting in the State itself is therefore no ground for refusal \u2014 a distinction repeatedly tested in previous-year papers.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2170,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The ground of rejection based upon infringement of copyright operates:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"without prejudice to the grounds of exemption from disclosure of information\",\r\n      \"only where the exemptions from disclosure of information are not attracted\",\r\n      \"in supersession of the grounds of exemption from disclosure of information\",\r\n      \"only with the prior approval of the Information Commission\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 9<\/b> opens with the words 'Without prejudice to the provisions of Section 8', which means the copyright ground is an additional and independent ground of rejection, standing alongside the exemptions in Section 8 rather than displacing or being displaced by them. The language is also permissive \u2014 the officer 'may reject' \u2014 so the ground confers a discretion and not an absolute prohibition.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2171,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Where a request for access to information is rejected on the ground that it relates to information exempt from disclosure, access may nevertheless be provided to that part of the record which:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the applicant is able to identify with precision\",\r\n      \"has been in existence for more than twenty years\",\r\n      \"does not contain exempt information and which can reasonably be severed from the part containing exempt information\",\r\n      \"is already available in the public domain\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 10(1)<\/b> \u2014 'access may be provided to that part of the record which does not contain any information which is exempt from disclosure under this Act and which can reasonably be severed from any part that contains exempt information.' Two conditions operate together: the part must be non-exempt, and severance must be reasonably practicable. The sub-section opens with a non obstante clause, 'notwithstanding anything contained in this Act'.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2172,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following which the notice given to an applicant on providing partial access must contain:\\n1. That only part of the record requested, after severance of the exempt information, is being provided.\\n2. The reasons for the decision, including any findings on any material question of fact and the material on which those findings were based.\\n3. The name and designation of the person giving the decision.\\n4. The details of the fee calculated and the amount which the applicant is required to deposit.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 10(2)(a) to (d)<\/b> require exactly these four particulars in the notice, together with clause (e), which sets out the applicant's rights of review. The requirement of stating findings on material questions of fact and the material supporting them makes the severance decision a speaking one, and therefore capable of meaningful challenge in appeal.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2173,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The notice given on providing partial access is also required to state:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the number of pages of the record which have been withheld\",\r\n      \"the name and designation of the person giving the decision\",\r\n      \"the date on which the record was created\",\r\n      \"the retention period applicable to the record\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 10(2)(c)<\/b> \u2014 the notice must inform the applicant of 'the name and designation of the person giving the decision.' Identification of the deciding officer is essential because the first appeal under <b>Section 19(1)<\/b> lies to an officer senior in rank to him, and because the penalty under <b>Section 20(1)<\/b> is personal to the officer who took the decision.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2174,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The right of review of which an applicant must be informed where partial access is given extends to the decision regarding:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"non-disclosure of part of the information, the amount of fee charged, and the form of access provided\",\r\n      \"non-disclosure of part of the information alone\",\r\n      \"the amount of fee charged alone\",\r\n      \"the form of access provided alone\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 10(2)(e)<\/b> \u2014 the notice must inform the applicant of 'his or her rights with respect to review of the decision regarding non-disclosure of part of the information, the amount of fee charged or the form of access provided, including the particulars of the senior officer specified under sub-section (1) of Section 19 or the Central Information Commission or the State Information Commission, as the case may be, time-limit, process and any other form of access.' All three heads of grievance are covered.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2175,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Where a Public Information Officer intends to disclose information which relates to or has been supplied by a third party and has been treated as confidential by that third party, he is required to give written notice to that third party within:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"forty-eight hours from the receipt of the request\",\r\n      \"three days from the receipt of the request\",\r\n      \"five days from the receipt of the request\",\r\n      \"ten days from the receipt of the request\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 11(1)<\/b> \u2014 the officer 'shall, within five days from the receipt of the request, give a written notice to such third party of the request and of the fact that the Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer, as the case may be, intends to disclose the information or record, or part thereof.' Ten days is the trap: that is the period under <b>Section 11(2)<\/b> within which the third party may make its representation after receiving the notice.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2176,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The submission which a third party is invited to make regarding whether the information should be disclosed may be made:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"in writing only\",\r\n      \"orally only\",\r\n      \"through a legal practitioner only\",\r\n      \"in writing or orally\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 11(1)<\/b> \u2014 the officer shall 'invite the third party to make a submission in writing or orally, regarding whether the information should be disclosed, and such submission of the third party shall be kept in view while taking a decision about disclosure of information.' The submission is not binding: it must be 'kept in view', which is also reflected in <b>Section 7(7)<\/b>, requiring the representation to be taken into consideration before the decision under Section 7(1).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2177,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Disclosure of third party information may be allowed where the public interest in disclosure outweighs in importance any possible harm or injury to the interests of the third party, except in the case of:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"personal information relating to an individual\",\r\n      \"trade or commercial secrets protected by law\",\r\n      \"information supplied by another public authority\",\r\n      \"information relating to a matter more than twenty years old\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"Proviso to <b>Section 11(1)<\/b> \u2014 'Provided that except in the case of trade or commercial secrets protected by law, disclosure may be allowed if the public interest in disclosure outweighs in importance any possible harm or injury to the interests of such third party.' Trade and commercial secrets protected by law are therefore carved out of the public interest override available in respect of other third party information.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2178,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"A third party served with notice is required to be given the opportunity to make representation against the proposed disclosure within:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"ten days from the date of receipt of such notice\",\r\n      \"five days from the date of receipt of such notice\",\r\n      \"fifteen days from the date of receipt of such notice\",\r\n      \"thirty days from the date of receipt of such notice\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 11(2)<\/b> \u2014 'Where a notice is served by the Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer, as the case may be, under sub-section (1) to a third party in respect of any information or record or part thereof, the third party shall, within ten days from the date of receipt of such notice, be given the opportunity to make representation against the proposed disclosure.' Five days is the period for issuing the notice itself under Section 11(1).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2179,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Where a third party has been given an opportunity to make representation, the decision whether or not to disclose the information is required to be made within:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"thirty days after receipt of the request\",\r\n      \"thirty-five days after receipt of the request\",\r\n      \"forty days after receipt of the request\",\r\n      \"forty-five days after receipt of the request\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 11(3)<\/b> \u2014 'Notwithstanding anything contained in Section 7, the Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer, as the case may be, shall, within forty days after receipt of the request under Section 6, if the third party has been given an opportunity to make representation under sub-section (2), make a decision as to whether or not to disclose the information or record or part thereof and give in writing the notice of his decision to the third party.' The non obstante clause displaces the ordinary thirty-day period of Section 7(1).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2180,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"The notice of decision given to a third party is required to include a statement that the third party is entitled to:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"institute a suit in a civil court against the proposed disclosure\",\r\n      \"require the applicant to withdraw the request\",\r\n      \"be heard afresh by the public authority before disclosure is effected\",\r\n      \"prefer an appeal against the decision\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 11(4)<\/b> \u2014 'A notice given under sub-section (3) shall include a statement that the third party to whom the notice is given is entitled to prefer an appeal under Section 19 against the decision.' The remedy therefore lies within the machinery of the Act: a first appeal to the Departmental Appellate Authority and, if the third party remains dissatisfied, a second appeal to the concerned Information Commission.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2181,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding third party information:\\n1. Written notice is to be given to the third party within five days from the receipt of the request.\\n2. The third party is to be given the opportunity to make representation within ten days from the date of receipt of the notice.\\n3. The decision as to disclosure is to be made within forty days after receipt of the request.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Sections 11(1), 11(2) and 11(3)<\/b> respectively fix the periods of five days for notice, ten days for the third party's representation, and forty days for the decision. The forty-day period runs from receipt of the request under Section 6, and operates 'notwithstanding anything contained in Section 7', thereby extending the ordinary thirty-day period wherever the third party procedure has been followed.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2182,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"For the purpose of the procedure governing disclosure of information supplied in confidence, the expression 'third party':\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"includes a public authority\",\r\n      \"excludes a public authority in every case\",\r\n      \"is confined to individuals and does not extend to bodies corporate\",\r\n      \"means only the applicant seeking the information\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision, Para 3, under <b>Section 11<\/b> \u2014 'As defined in Clause (n) of Section 2 of the Act, third party includes a public authority.' The consequence is stated in the same paragraph: 'if a public authority X receives some information from another public authority Y which that public authority has treated as confidential, then X cannot disclose the information without consulting Y, the third party in respect of the information and without following the procedure prescribed in Section 11 of the Act.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2183,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Where confidential papers received from another public authority are proposed to be disclosed, non-compliance with the prescribed procedure:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"has no consequence, the Act having overriding effect over other laws\",\r\n      \"renders the disclosure voidable only at the instance of the applicant\",\r\n      \"is a failure to observe a statutory requirement which may make the Public Information Officer liable to action\",\r\n      \"may be regularised by a subsequent ratification by the appellate authority\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision, Para 3, under <b>Section 11<\/b> \u2014 following the Section 11 procedure before disclosing information treated as confidential by another public authority 'is a statutory requirement, non-compliance of which may make the PIO liable to action.' Para 2 adds that 'the PIO cannot disclose such information unless the procedure prescribed in Section 11 is completed', the third party having a right of first appeal and thereafter a second appeal to the Information Commission.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2184,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Arrange the following steps in the correct chronological order in which they occur where information relating to a third party is proposed to be disclosed:\\n1. Written notice is given to the third party of the request and of the intention to disclose.\\n2. The third party makes a representation against the proposed disclosure.\\n3. A decision is made as to whether or not to disclose the information.\\n4. Notice of the decision, including the third party's entitlement to prefer an appeal, is given to the third party.\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"2-1-3-4\",\r\n      \"1-3-2-4\",\r\n      \"1-2-3-4\",\r\n      \"1-2-4-3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"The sequence follows <b>Section 11<\/b>. Under sub-section (1) the notice is issued within five days of the request; under sub-section (2) the third party is given ten days from receipt of that notice to make its representation; under sub-section (3) the decision is made within forty days of receipt of the request and notice of it given in writing to the third party; and under sub-section (4) that notice must include a statement of the entitlement to prefer an appeal under Section 19.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2185,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. The right to information is conferred on all citizens.\\n2. An applicant is not required to give any reason for requesting the information.\\n3. An applicant is not required to give any personal details whatsoever.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 3<\/b> confers the right on 'all citizens', and <b>Section 6(2)<\/b> forbids requiring any reason. Statement 3 overstates Section 6(2), which excepts 'those that may be necessary for contacting him'. It was on this very exception that the High Court of Kolkata proceeded in Avishek Goenka's case, holding that a post-box number suffices where it establishes contact.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2186,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following obligations of a public authority:\\n1. To maintain all its records duly catalogued and indexed.\\n2. To computerise all records that are appropriate to be computerised, subject to availability of resources.\\n3. To connect computerised records through a network all over the country on different systems.\\n4. To create information which does not exist, where an applicant so requires.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1)(a)<\/b> supports the first three. Statement 4 is contrary to the scheme of the Act: GoI Decision (1) under <b>Section 7<\/b> holds that the Public Information Officer 'is not required to do research on behalf of the citizen to deduce anything from the material', and GoI Decision (2) under <b>Section 6<\/b> adds that a public authority is not required to collect information from other public authorities.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2187,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following categories of information required to be published by every public authority:\\n1. The particulars of its organization, functions and duties.\\n2. The powers and duties of its officers and employees.\\n3. The procedure followed in the decision making process, including channels of supervision and accountability.\\n4. The norms set by it for the discharge of its functions.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1)(b)(i) to (iv)<\/b> reproduce these four categories in this order. Clauses (iii) and (iv) are two of the four sub-clauses singled out for detailed elaboration in Para 3.2 of the Guidelines on suo motu disclosure, the other two being clause (xi) on budget and clause (xiv) on information held in electronic form.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2188,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. The specified categories of information were required to be published within one hundred and twenty days from the enactment of the Act.\\n2. Public Information Officers were required to be designated within one hundred days of the enactment of the Act.\\n3. Assistant Public Information Officers were required to be designated within one hundred and twenty days of the enactment of the Act.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1)(b)<\/b> fixes one hundred and twenty days for first publication, and <b>Sections 5(1) and 5(2)<\/b> both fix one hundred days \u2014 for Public Information Officers and Assistant Public Information Officers alike. Statement 3 therefore substitutes the Section 4 period for the Section 5 period, which is the standard trap in this area.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2189,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding dissemination of information by a public authority:\\n1. Every information is to be disseminated widely and in such form and manner as is easily accessible to the public.\\n2. All materials are to be disseminated only in the local language.\\n3. Dissemination includes making information known through notice boards, media broadcasts and inspection of offices.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(3)<\/b> supports Statement 1 and the Explanation to Sections 4(3) and 4(4) supports Statement 3. Statement 2 misstates <b>Section 4(4)<\/b>, under which local language is one of three considerations, alongside 'the cost effectiveness' and 'the most effective method of communication in that local area' \u2014 the sub-section nowhere confines dissemination to the local language.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2190,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding proactive disclosure of details of official tours:\\n1. The disclosure covers Ministers and officials of the rank of Joint Secretary and above and Heads of Departments.\\n2. The disclosure covers tours undertaken since 1st January, 2012 and is updated once every quarter.\\n3. The disclosure is required to state the number of people included in the official delegation and the total cost of the travel.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (5) under <b>Section 4<\/b> supports all three, disclosure being advised for tours 'since 1st January, 2012', to be updated 'once every quarter starting from 1st July, 2012', and to contain 'nature of the official tour, places visited, the period, number of people included in the official delegation and total cost of such travel undertaken.' Second Schedule organisations and Chief Vigilance Officers are excluded from the advisory.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2191,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding proactive disclosure relating to procurement:\\n1. The monetary limit presently fixed for such disclosure is ten lakh rupees.\\n2. In the case of procurement through rate contracts of the Directorate General of Supplies and Disposals, only award details need be published.\\n3. Information about procurement which falls within the exemptions from disclosure is nevertheless required to be published.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 1.1.1 of the Guidelines on suo motu disclosure<\/b> supports Statements 1 and 2. Statement 3 reverses the closing words of the same paragraph \u2014 'information about procurement which fall within the purview of Section 8 of the RTI Act would be exempt.' The proactive disclosure regime nowhere overrides the exemptions in Section 8.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2192,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. Applications for information and appeals received, and the responses to them, are to be proactively disclosed on the websites of public authorities.\\n2. Such disclosure is to be supported by a search facility based on key words.\\n3. Paragraphs of the Comptroller and Auditor General may be disclosed as soon as they are received by the Ministry.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 1.4.1 of the Guidelines<\/b> supports Statements 1 and 2, subject to the exclusion of applications relating to the personal information of an individual. Statement 3 contradicts Para 1.5.1, under which such paragraphs and the Action Taken Reports may be disclosed 'only after these have been laid on the table of both the Houses of the Parliament.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2193,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following periodicities prescribed in relation to proactive disclosure:\\n1. Disclosure of details of official tours \u2014 quarterly.\\n2. Report on performance against the benchmarks set in the Citizens Charter \u2014 six-monthly.\\n3. Uploading of funds released to autonomous and statutory organisations \u2014 quarterly.\\n4. Audit of the proactive disclosure package by a third party \u2014 annual.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correctly matched?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (5) under <b>Section 4<\/b> fixes the quarterly updating of tour details; Para 1.6.1 of the Guidelines requires a six-monthly Citizens Charter performance report; Para 3.5.1(c) requires funds released to subordinate bodies to be put on the website 'on a quarterly basis'; and Para 4.4 requires the proactive disclosure package to be audited by a third party 'every year'. All four are correctly matched.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2194,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the Nodal Officer for proactive disclosure:\\n1. He is to be an officer not below the rank of Joint Secretary.\\n2. In the case of attached offices he is to be not below the rank of Additional Head of Department.\\n3. He works under the supervision of the Secretary of the Ministry or the Head of the Department, as the case may be.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 5.1 of the Guidelines on suo motu disclosure<\/b> contains all three requirements, and adds that the Nodal Officer must ensure that formations below the Ministry, Department or attached office also disclose information as required. The 76th Report of the Department Related Parliamentary Standing Committee recommended that this direction 'should be followed in letter and spirit.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2195,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the compliance mechanism for proactive disclosure:\\n1. The guidelines were to be fully operationalised within six months of their issue.\\n2. The Action Taken Report, along with the URL link, was to be sent to the Department of Personnel and Training and the Central Information Commission.\\n3. The Central Information Commission is to carry out a sample audit of a few Ministries or public authorities each year.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Paras 4.1, 4.3 and 4.6 of the Guidelines<\/b> support all three. Para 4.5 additionally requires the Commission to examine the third-party audit reports and offer advice or recommendations, and Para 4.7 requires compliance and its audit to be included as a target in the Result Framework Document.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2196,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the designation of officers under the Act:\\n1. Public Information Officers are designated in all administrative units or offices of the public authority.\\n2. Assistant Public Information Officers are designated at each sub-divisional or other sub-district level.\\n3. An Assistant Public Information Officer decides whether the information sought may be disclosed.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Sections 5(1) and 5(2)<\/b> support Statements 1 and 2. Statement 3 misdescribes the function of the Assistant Public Information Officer, which under Section 5(2) is confined to receiving applications and appeals 'for forwarding the same forthwith' to the Public Information Officer, the senior officer specified under Section 19(1), or the Commission. He takes no decision on disclosure.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2197,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. Where an application is given to an Assistant Public Information Officer, five days are added in computing the period for response.\\n2. A Public Information Officer may seek the assistance of any other officer as he considers necessary.\\n3. The officer whose assistance is so sought is treated as a Public Information Officer for all purposes of the Act.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"The proviso to <b>Section 5(2)<\/b> supports Statement 1 and <b>Section 5(4)<\/b> supports Statement 2. Statement 3 overstates <b>Section 5(5)<\/b>, under which such an officer is treated as a Public Information Officer only 'for the purposes of any contravention of the provisions of this Act' \u2014 that is, for liability, and not for the exercise of powers.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2198,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following practices of public authorities, each of which has been held to contravene the law:\\n1. Not designating Public Information Officers or Assistant Public Information Officers.\\n2. Refusing to accept the fee tendered by way of an Indian Postal Order.\\n3. Refusing to accept a demand draft drawn in the name of the Accounts Officer of the public authority.\\n4. Insisting that an application be submitted in a format prescribed by the public authority.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (1) under <b>Section 5<\/b> lists exactly these four defaults. The first contravenes Sections 5(1) and 5(2); the second and third contravene the Right to Information (Regulation of Fee and Cost) Rules, 2005 as amended in 2006, under which payment is to be made to the Accounts Officer; and the fourth contravenes <b>Section 6(1)<\/b>, since neither the Act nor the Rules prescribe any format.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2199,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the central point for receiving applications and appeals:\\n1. It is required to be created by public authorities having more than one Public Information Officer.\\n2. Applications and appeals received at the central point are to be sent to the concerned officers on the same day.\\n3. The Central Registry Section may maintain a separate register for the purpose.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (3) under <b>Section 5<\/b> supports all three, requiring that an officer 'be made responsible to ensure that all the RTI applications \/ appeals received at the central point are sent to the concerned Public Information Officers \/ Appellate Authorities, on the same day', that the Receipt and Issue or Central Registry Section 'may maintain a separate register for the purpose', and that the Branch Officer ensure same-day distribution.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2200,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding a request for information:\\n1. It may be made in writing or through electronic means.\\n2. It may be made in English, Hindi or the official language of the area in which the application is being made.\\n3. Where it cannot be made in writing, the Public Information Officer shall render all reasonable assistance to reduce it to writing.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 6(1)<\/b> and its proviso contain all three propositions. The three permitted languages are exhaustive, so a request in a language which is neither English, Hindi nor the local official language does not comply with the sub-section. The proviso is what enables an illiterate person to exercise the right effectively.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2201,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the transfer of an application:\\n1. Transfer is required where the information is held by another public authority.\\n2. Transfer is required where the subject matter is more closely connected with the functions of another public authority.\\n3. The transfer is to be made in no case later than five days from the date of receipt of the application.\\n4. The applicant is to be informed immediately about the transfer.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"All four\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"Only two\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 6(3)<\/b> and its proviso contain all four elements. Note the asymmetry deliberately built into the sub-section: intimation to the applicant must be 'immediate', while the transfer itself must be effected 'as soon as practicable but in no case later than five days from the date of receipt of the application.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2202,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following courses of action open to a Public Information Officer:\\n1. Where a part of the information is with him and a part concerns another public authority, he supplies what he holds and sends a copy of the application to that other authority.\\n2. Where the information is scattered among several other public authorities, he advises the applicant to make separate applications.\\n3. Where the information concerns a public authority under a State Government, he transfers the application to that State Government.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (2), Para 3(ii) and (iii), under <b>Section 6<\/b> supports Statements 1 and 2. Statement 3 reverses Para 3(iv), which directs that the applicant be informed 'that the information may be had from the concerned State Government \/ UT Administration', adding that the application 'need not be transferred to the State Government \/ UT Administration.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2203,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. The provision for transfer of applications refers to 'another public authority' in the singular.\\n2. A public authority is not required to collect information from different public authorities in order to supply it to an applicant.\\n3. Collection of information per se amounts to creation of information.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (2), Para 3(iii), under <b>Section 6<\/b> emphasises the singular form, and GoI Decision (3), Para 3, clarifies that the earlier Office Memorandum 'does not propose to say that collection of information per se amounts to creation of information', the point being only that the public authority approached 'is not required to collect information from different public authorities to supply it to the applicant.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2204,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements arising from the order of the High Court of Kolkata in the matter of an information activist:\\n1. The authority should not insist upon the detailed whereabouts of an applicant who furnishes a post-box number.\\n2. Where the authority finds difficulty with a post-box number, it may insist upon personal details.\\n3. In such a case it is under a solemn duty to hide such information, particularly from its website.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"The order dated 20-11-2013 in W.P. 33290 (W) of 2013, Avishek Goenka v. Union of India, reproduced as GoI Decision (5) under <b>Section 6<\/b>, contains all three propositions. The reasoning rests squarely on <b>Section 6(2)<\/b>, and the Court directed circulation of the order so that authorities might take measures to avoid harassment of activists by persons having vested interests.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2205,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the disposal of a request for information:\\n1. The request is to be disposed of as expeditiously as possible and in any case within thirty days of its receipt.\\n2. Where the information concerns the life or liberty of a person, it is to be provided within forty-eight hours.\\n3. Failure to give a decision within the period specified results in a deemed refusal.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 7(1)<\/b>, its proviso and <b>Section 7(2)<\/b> support all three. The deeming provision is of practical importance because it supplies the starting point for a first appeal under <b>Section 19(1)<\/b>, which may be preferred 'within thirty days from the expiry of such period'.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2206,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding a demand for further fee:\\n1. The intimation must give the details of the further fee together with the calculations made to arrive at the amount.\\n2. The period between the despatch of the intimation and the payment of the fee is excluded in computing the period of thirty days.\\n3. The intimation must inform the applicant of his right to seek review of the decision as to the amount of fee or the form of access.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 7(3)(a) and (b)<\/b> contain all three requirements, clause (b) further requiring the intimation to state 'the particulars of the appellate authority, time-limit, process and any other forms.' Disclosure of the calculation is what makes the demand capable of being reviewed.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2207,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding fee under the Act:\\n1. No fee is chargeable from persons who are of below poverty line.\\n2. Information is to be provided free of charge where the public authority fails to comply with the prescribed time-limits.\\n3. A sensorily disabled person is exempt from payment of fee.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"The proviso to <b>Section 7(5)<\/b> supports Statement 1 and <b>Section 7(6)<\/b> supports Statement 2. Statement 3 confuses fee exemption with assistance: <b>Section 7(4)<\/b> entitles a sensorily disabled person to 'such assistance as may be appropriate for the inspection', but confers no exemption from fee.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2208,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the form in which information is supplied:\\n1. Information is ordinarily to be provided in the form in which it is sought.\\n2. It may be refused in that form if supply in that form would disproportionately divert the resources of the public authority.\\n3. The provision requires the Public Information Officer to reshape the information into a pro forma devised by the applicant.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 7(9)<\/b> supports Statements 1 and 2, the other permitted ground of refusal being that supply in that form 'would be detrimental to the safety or preservation of the record in question'. Statement 3 is expressly negatived by GoI Decision (1) under Section 7: 'It does not mean that the PIO shall reshape the information.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2209,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following which a reply supplying information should essentially contain:\\n1. The application number, its date and the date of its receipt in the public authority.\\n2. The name, designation, official telephone number and e-mail ID of the Public Information Officer.\\n3. Where the information is denied, detailed reasons quoting the relevant sections.\\n4. The particulars of the First Appellate Authority.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"All four\",\r\n      \"Only three\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (2) under <b>Section 7<\/b> lists all four, together with the details of any public authority to which the application has been transferred under Section 6(3), and a concluding paragraph stating that a first appeal may be made within thirty days of receipt of the reply. Item 3 mirrors the statutory obligation in <b>Section 7(8)(i)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2210,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding fee under the Act:\\n1. Fee may be charged under sub-section (1) of Section 6, and under sub-sections (1) and (5) of Section 7.\\n2. Sub-section (3) of Section 7 confers an independent power to charge a further fee.\\n3. A Public Information Officer may charge the applicant for the cost of manpower deployed in supplying the information.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (3) under <b>Section 7<\/b> establishes Statement 1, and negatives the other two \u2014 'The further fee mentioned in Section 7 (3) only refers to the procedure in availing of the further fee already prescribed under 7 (5) of the Act', and the Public Information Officer 'should not ask the Applicant to pay fee on such account' as the cost of deployment of manpower.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2211,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following grounds on which there is no obligation to give information to a citizen:\\n1. Disclosure would prejudicially affect the sovereignty and integrity of India.\\n2. Disclosure would cause a breach of privilege of Parliament or a State Legislature.\\n3. Disclosure would endanger the life or physical safety of any person.\\n4. Disclosure would impede the process of investigation or apprehension or prosecution of offenders.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"All four\",\r\n      \"Only three\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8(1)(a), (c), (g) and (h)<\/b> respectively cover these four grounds. Clause (g) additionally protects information which would 'identify the source of information or assistance given in confidence for law enforcement or security purposes.' All four operate independently of one another.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2212,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the exemptions from disclosure:\\n1. Information available to a person in his fiduciary relationship is exempt unless the competent authority is satisfied that the larger public interest warrants disclosure.\\n2. Information received in confidence from a foreign Government is exempt.\\n3. Information forbidden to be published by a court of law is exempt only until the proceeding is concluded.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8(1)(e) and (f)<\/b> support Statements 1 and 2. Statement 3 adds a qualification which <b>Section 8(1)(b)<\/b> does not contain: the clause exempts information 'expressly forbidden to be published by any court of law or tribunal or the disclosure of which may constitute contempt of court', without reference to the conclusion of any proceeding.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2213,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding Cabinet papers:\\n1. Cabinet papers, including records of deliberations of the Council of Ministers, Secretaries and other officers, are exempt from disclosure.\\n2. The decisions of the Council of Ministers, the reasons thereof, and the material on the basis of which they were taken, are to be made public after the decision has been taken and the matter is complete or over.\\n3. Even thereafter, matters which come under the exemptions specified in the section shall not be disclosed.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8(1)(i)<\/b> and its two provisos contain all three propositions. The clause is also one of the three \u2014 along with clauses (a) and (c) \u2014 which are saved by <b>Section 8(3)<\/b>, so that its protection endures even in respect of matters more than twenty years old.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2214,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. Personal information whose disclosure has no relationship to any public activity or interest is exempt from disclosure.\\n2. Information which cannot be denied to Parliament or a State Legislature shall not be denied to any person.\\n3. A public authority may allow access to information if public interest in disclosure outweighs the harm to the protected interests.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8(1)(j)<\/b> supports Statement 1, its proviso supports Statement 2, and <b>Section 8(2)<\/b> supports Statement 3, that sub-section operating 'Notwithstanding anything in the Official Secrets Act, 1923 nor any of the exemptions permissible in accordance with sub-section (1).' Note that under clause (j) the satisfaction is that of the Public Information Officer or the Appellate Authority, not of the competent authority.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2215,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding information relating to an occurrence which took place more than twenty years before the date of the request:\\n1. It is required to be provided, subject to the exemptions relating to sovereignty and integrity, breach of privilege and Cabinet papers.\\n2. Where a question arises as to the date from which the period is to be computed, the decision of the Central Government is final, subject to the usual appeals under the Act.\\n3. The Act prescribes a record retention schedule of twenty years for this purpose.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8(3)<\/b> and its proviso support Statements 1 and 2. Statement 3 is negatived by GoI Decision (2) under Section 8 \u2014 'The RTI Act does not prescribe a record retention schedule. The records are to be retained by a public authority as per the record retention schedule applicable to that public authority.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2216,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the Annual Confidential Report of an employee:\\n1. A public authority is not under an obligation to disclose it, whether to the employee himself or to any other person.\\n2. It is protected both as personal information and as a confidential document.\\n3. A public authority has no discretion to disclose it in any circumstances.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (1) under <b>Section 8<\/b> supports Statements 1 and 2, the protection resting on <b>Section 8(1)(j)<\/b> and on the Official Secrets Act, 1923. Statement 3 is contrary to the same Decision, which records that 'the public authority has a discretion to disclose the Annual Confidential Reports... if the public authority is satisfied that the public interest in disclosure outweighs the harm to the protected interests', that discretion flowing from Section 8(2).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2217,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. Notings on a file may be disclosed except where they contain information exempt from disclosure.\\n2. Complaints made against a Government officer and the action taken on them qualify as personal information.\\n3. The performance of an employee in an organisation is primarily a matter between the employee and the employer.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"GoI Decision (3) under <b>Section 8<\/b> supports Statement 1, and GoI Decision (4), applying Girish R. Deshpande v. Central Information Commission, SLP (C) No. 27734\/2012, supports Statements 2 and 3 \u2014 such matters 'are governed by the service rules which fall under the expression personal information', disclosable only where a larger public interest is served.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2218,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. A request may be rejected where providing access would involve an infringement of copyright subsisting in a person other than the State.\\n2. This ground operates without prejudice to the exemptions from disclosure of information.\\n3. Infringement of copyright subsisting in the State is also a ground for rejection.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 9<\/b> supports Statements 1 and 2, opening as it does with the words 'Without prejudice to the provisions of Section 8'. Statement 3 reverses the express limitation in the section, which confines the ground to copyright subsisting 'in a person other than the State'. The section is also permissive, the officer 'may reject' the request.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2219,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following which the notice given to an applicant on the grant of partial access must contain:\\n1. That only part of the record requested, after severance of the exempt information, is being provided.\\n2. The reasons for the decision, including any findings on any material question of fact.\\n3. The name and designation of the person giving the decision.\\n4. The applicant's rights with respect to review of the decision.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"All four\",\r\n      \"Only three\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 10(2)(a), (b), (c) and (e)<\/b> contain these four requirements, the remaining clause (d) requiring the details of the fee calculated and the amount to be deposited. Clause (e) extends the right of review to the non-disclosure of part of the information, the amount of fee charged and the form of access provided.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2220,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding severability:\\n1. Access may be provided to that part of the record which does not contain exempt information.\\n2. Such part must be capable of being reasonably severed from the part containing exempt information.\\n3. The provision operates notwithstanding anything contained in the Act.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 10(1)<\/b> contains all three elements \u2014 'notwithstanding anything contained in this Act, access may be provided to that part of the record which does not contain any information which is exempt from disclosure under this Act and which can reasonably be severed from any part that contains exempt information.' Severability is thus the statutory answer to a record which is only partly protected.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2221,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding third party information:\\n1. Written notice is to be given to the third party within five days from the receipt of the request.\\n2. The third party is to be given the opportunity to make representation within ten days from the date of receipt of the notice.\\n3. The decision whether or not to disclose is to be made within forty days after receipt of the request.\\n4. The notice of decision must state that the third party is entitled to prefer an appeal.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"All four\",\r\n      \"Only three\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Sections 11(1), 11(2), 11(3) and 11(4)<\/b> respectively support these four propositions. The forty-day period in Section 11(3) operates 'Notwithstanding anything contained in Section 7', and therefore displaces the ordinary thirty-day period wherever the third party procedure has been gone through.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2222,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding third party information:\\n1. The submission of a third party may be made in writing or orally.\\n2. Such submission is to be kept in view while taking a decision about disclosure.\\n3. Disclosure may be allowed in the public interest even in the case of trade or commercial secrets protected by law.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 11(1)<\/b> supports Statements 1 and 2. Statement 3 reverses its proviso, under which disclosure in the public interest is permissible 'except in the case of trade or commercial secrets protected by law' \u2014 those secrets being carved out of the public interest override available for other third party information.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2223,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. A public authority is included within the expression 'third party'.\\n2. Where a public authority receives confidential information from another public authority, it may disclose that information without consulting the latter.\\n3. Non-compliance with the prescribed third party procedure may make the Public Information Officer liable to action.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"The GoI Decision under <b>Section 11<\/b> supports Statements 1 and 3, noting that 'as defined in Clause (n) of Section 2 of the Act, third party includes a public authority' and that the procedure 'is a statutory requirement, non-compliance of which may make the PIO liable to action.' Statement 2 reverses the same Decision, under which authority 'X cannot disclose the information without consulting Y'.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2224,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 2: Right to Information and Obligations of Public Authorities\",\r\n    question: \"Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:\\n\\nList-I (Period)\\nA. Transfer of an application to another public authority\\nB. Notice to a third party of the intention to disclose\\nC. Representation by a third party against the proposed disclosure\\nD. Decision on disclosure where a third party has been heard\\n\\nList-II\\n1. Five days from receipt of the request\\n2. Five days from receipt of the application\\n3. Ten days from receipt of the notice\\n4. Forty days from receipt of the request\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3\",\r\n      \"A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"The proviso to <b>Section 6(3)<\/b> fixes five days from receipt of the application for transfer; <b>Section 11(1)<\/b> fixes five days from receipt of the request for notice to the third party; <b>Section 11(2)<\/b> gives the third party ten days from receipt of that notice; and <b>Section 11(3)<\/b> requires the decision within forty days after receipt of the request.\"\r\n  },\r\n\r\n  \/* ------------------------------------------------------------------------\r\n     CHAPTER III \u2014 The Central Information Commission (Ss. 12-14)\r\n     56 questions   |   ids 3001 - 3056\r\n     --------------------------------------------------------------------- *\/\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3001,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the Central Information Commission:\\n1. It is constituted by the Central Government by notification in the Official Gazette.\\n2. Its members are appointed by the President.\\n3. It consists of the Chief Information Commissioner and such number of Central Information Commissioners, not exceeding ten, as may be deemed necessary.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 12(1)<\/b> vests the constitution of the body in the Central Government by notification, <b>Section 12(3)<\/b> vests the appointment of the members in the President, and <b>Section 12(2)<\/b> fixes the composition. The distinction between constituting the body and appointing its members is a favourite testing point, the two being done by different authorities.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3002,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"The maximum number of members which the Central Information Commission may have, including the Chief Information Commissioner, is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"ten\",\r\n      \"eleven\",\r\n      \"twelve\",\r\n      \"such number as the Central Government may notify\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 12(2)<\/b> provides that the Commission shall consist of 'the Chief Information Commissioner' and 'such number of Central Information Commissioners, not exceeding ten, as may be deemed necessary.' The ceiling of ten therefore applies to the Information Commissioners alone, giving a maximum strength of eleven. The words 'as may be deemed necessary' leave the actual number to be settled according to workload.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3003,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following members of the committee on whose recommendation the Chief Information Commissioner and the Information Commissioners are appointed:\\n1. The Prime Minister, who shall be the Chairperson of the committee.\\n2. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha.\\n3. A Union Cabinet Minister to be nominated by the Prime Minister.\\n4. The Chief Justice of India.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 12(3)<\/b> constitutes a three-member committee of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. The Chief Justice of India has no role, unlike the selection processes under certain other statutes \u2014 a distinction repeatedly set in previous-year papers.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3004,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Where the Leader of Opposition in the House of the People has not been recognised as such, the person deemed to be the Leader of Opposition for the purpose of the selection committee is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the Deputy Speaker of the House of the People\",\r\n      \"the Leader of the single largest group in opposition of the Government in the House of the People\",\r\n      \"the senior-most member of the principal opposition party\",\r\n      \"a member nominated by the Speaker\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"The Explanation to <b>Section 12(3)<\/b> \u2014 'where the Leader of Opposition in the House of the People has not been recognised as such, the Leader of the single largest group in opposition of the Government in the House of the People shall be deemed to be the Leader of Opposition.' The provision ensures that the opposition is represented on the committee even where no party crosses the threshold for formal recognition.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3005,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the management of the affairs of the Central Information Commission:\\n1. The general superintendence, direction and management vest in the Chief Information Commissioner.\\n2. The Chief Information Commissioner is assisted by the Information Commissioners.\\n3. The Commission functions autonomously without being subjected to directions by any other authority under the Act.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 12(4)<\/b> contains all three propositions in a single sentence, the Chief Information Commissioner being empowered to 'exercise all such powers and do all such acts and things which may be exercised or done by the Central Information Commission autonomously without being subjected to directions by any other authority under this Act.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3006,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following fields in which wide knowledge and experience qualifies a person for appointment to the Central Information Commission:\\n1. Law, and science and technology.\\n2. Social service and management.\\n3. Journalism and mass media.\\n4. Administration and governance.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"All four\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"Only two\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 12(5)<\/b> requires the appointees to be 'persons of eminence in public life with wide knowledge and experience in law, science and technology, social service, management, journalism, mass media or administration and governance.' Fields not named \u2014 military service, for instance, or medicine \u2014 do not independently qualify, though experience in administration and governance may cover much of the same ground.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3007,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following as conditions of eligibility for appointment as an Information Commissioner:\\n1. The person must be of eminence in public life.\\n2. The person must have wide knowledge and experience in one of the specified fields.\\n3. The person must have attained a prescribed minimum age.\\n4. The person must have served in Government for a prescribed minimum period.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 12(5)<\/b> lays down only two requirements \u2014 eminence in public life and wide knowledge and experience in the specified fields. Neither a minimum age nor any period of Government service is prescribed, and no formal educational qualification is laid down anywhere in the section.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3008,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following which a Chief Information Commissioner or an Information Commissioner is prohibited from being or doing:\\n1. Being a Member of Parliament.\\n2. Being a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union territory.\\n3. Holding any other office of profit or being connected with any political party.\\n4. Carrying on any business or pursuing any profession.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"All four\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"Only two\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 12(6)<\/b> imposes all these disqualifications in a single sentence. They operate for the duration of the office and secure both the independence and the whole-time character of the post. Breach of the prohibition on paid employment is separately made a ground of removal by <b>Section 14(3)(c)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3009,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. An Information Commissioner may not be connected with any political party.\\n2. An Information Commissioner may not carry on any business.\\n3. An Information Commissioner is expressly prohibited from writing books or articles.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 12(6)<\/b> supports Statements 1 and 2. Statement 3 adds a prohibition which the sub-section does not contain: the bar is on holding an office of profit, carrying on any business or pursuing any profession, and writing as an intellectual activity rather than as a business or profession is not caught by those words.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3010,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the location of the Central Information Commission:\\n1. Its headquarters shall be at Delhi.\\n2. It may establish offices at other places in India.\\n3. Such offices may be established with the previous approval of the Central Government.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 12(7)<\/b> \u2014 'The headquarters of the Central Information Commission shall be at Delhi and the Central Information Commission may, with the previous approval of the Central Government, establish offices at other places in India.' The location of the headquarters is fixed by the statute itself, unlike a State Information Commission, whose headquarters is notified by the State Government under Section 15(7).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3011,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:\\n\\nList-I\\nA. Constitution of the Central Information Commission\\nB. Appointment of the Chief Information Commissioner by the President\\nC. General superintendence, direction and management of the affairs of the Commission\\nD. Headquarters of the Commission\\n\\nList-II\\n1. Section 12(1)\\n2. Section 12(3)\\n3. Section 12(4)\\n4. Section 12(7)\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3\",\r\n      \"A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 12<\/b> is arranged in this order \u2014 sub-section (1) constitution, (2) composition, (3) appointment and the selection committee, (4) superintendence and autonomy, (5) qualifications, (6) disqualifications and (7) headquarters. Keeping the sub-section order in mind disposes of most questions which merely ask for the provision.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3012,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the term of office of the Chief Information Commissioner:\\n1. He holds office for such term as may be prescribed by the Central Government.\\n2. He shall not be eligible for reappointment.\\n3. He shall not hold office as such after he has attained the age of sixty-five years.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 13(1)<\/b> and its proviso, as substituted by the Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019, contain all three propositions. Before that amendment the sub-section fixed a term of five years from the date on which he entered upon his office; the age ceiling of sixty-five years was not altered and continues to operate as an outer limit.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3013,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the term of office of an Information Commissioner:\\n1. He holds office for such term as may be prescribed by the Central Government, or till he attains the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier.\\n2. He shall not be eligible for reappointment as such Information Commissioner.\\n3. On vacating his office he is eligible for appointment as the Chief Information Commissioner.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 13(2)<\/b> and its first proviso support all three, the appointment as Chief Information Commissioner being made 'in the manner specified in sub-section (3) of section 12' \u2014 that is, through the same selection committee and by the President.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3014,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Where an Information Commissioner is appointed as the Chief Information Commissioner, his term of office shall not be more than:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"three years in aggregate\",\r\n      \"five years in aggregate as Information Commissioner and Chief Information Commissioner\",\r\n      \"five years as Chief Information Commissioner, in addition to his earlier term\",\r\n      \"such period as the Central Government may prescribe, without any aggregate limit\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"Second proviso to <b>Section 13(2)<\/b> \u2014 'where the Information Commissioner is appointed as the Chief Information Commissioner, his term of office shall not be more than five years in aggregate as the Information Commissioner and the Chief Information Commissioner.' The aggregate ceiling operates in addition to the age ceiling of sixty-five years, and whichever is reached first brings the tenure to an end.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3015,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"An Information Commissioner who has held office for four years is thereafter appointed as the Chief Information Commissioner. The maximum further period for which he may hold office as Chief Information Commissioner is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"five years\",\r\n      \"two years\",\r\n      \"one year\",\r\n      \"such period as may be prescribed, without any limit\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"The second proviso to <b>Section 13(2)<\/b> caps the aggregate at five years as Information Commissioner and Chief Information Commissioner taken together. Four years having been served, only one year remains. The age ceiling in the proviso to Section 13(1) continues to operate independently, so the tenure would end earlier if he attained sixty-five years within that year.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3016,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the oath or affirmation to be made before entering upon office:\\n1. It is made before the President or some other person appointed by him in that behalf.\\n2. It is made according to the form set out in the First Schedule.\\n3. It is required to be made before the person enters upon his office.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 13(3)<\/b> contains all three requirements. The corresponding provision for a State Chief Information Commissioner is <b>Section 16(3)<\/b>, under which the oath is made before the Governor or a person appointed by him; the form in the First Schedule is common to both, which is why that Schedule bears the marginal reference '[See Sections 13 (3) and 16 (3)]'.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3017,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding resignation from the office of Chief Information Commissioner:\\n1. He may resign at any time.\\n2. The resignation is to be by writing under his hand addressed to the President.\\n3. The provision for resignation is without prejudice to the power of removal under Section 14.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 13(4)<\/b> and its proviso support all three \u2014 'The Chief Information Commissioner or an Information Commissioner may, at any time, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign from his office: Provided that the Chief Information Commissioner or an Information Commissioner may be removed in the manner specified under section 14.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3018,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the salaries and allowances of the Chief Information Commissioner and the Information Commissioners:\\n1. They are such as may be prescribed by the Central Government.\\n2. They shall not be varied to their disadvantage after their appointment.\\n3. They are fixed by the Act itself at the level of the Chief Election Commissioner.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 13(5)<\/b>, as substituted in 2019, and its first proviso support Statements 1 and 2. Statement 3 states the pre-amendment position, under which the salary of the Chief Information Commissioner was equated with that of the Chief Election Commissioner and that of an Information Commissioner with that of an Election Commissioner; that linkage no longer subsists.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3019,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"The protection that the salaries, allowances and other conditions of service shall not be varied to the disadvantage of the holders of office operates:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"from the date of the notification constituting the Commission\",\r\n      \"after their appointment\",\r\n      \"only during the first year of the term\",\r\n      \"only with the concurrence of the Central Information Commission\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"First proviso to <b>Section 13(5)<\/b> \u2014 'the salaries, allowances and other conditions of service of the Chief Information Commissioner or the Information Commissioners shall not be varied to their disadvantage after their appointment.' The protection is one-way: a variation to their advantage is not barred. Its object is to insulate the office-holders from financial pressure during their tenure.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3020,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Persons appointed as Chief Information Commissioner or Information Commissioner before the commencement of the Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"were required to opt afresh for the amended terms within six months\",\r\n      \"continue to be governed by the provisions of the Act and the rules as if that Amendment Act had not come into force\",\r\n      \"had their terms of office recomputed from the date of the amendment\",\r\n      \"ceased to hold office on the commencement of that Amendment Act\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"Second proviso to <b>Section 13(5)<\/b> \u2014 such persons 'shall continue to be governed by the provisions of this Act and the rules made thereunder as if the Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019 had not come into force.' This grandfathering clause preserves the fixed five-year term and the salary linkage for those already in office when the amendment took effect.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3021,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"The officers and employees necessary for the efficient performance of the functions of the Central Information Commission are provided by:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the Chief Information Commissioner by direct recruitment\",\r\n      \"the Central Government\",\r\n      \"the Union Public Service Commission\",\r\n      \"the Ministry administratively concerned with the applicant's request\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 13(6)<\/b> \u2014 'The Central Government shall provide the Chief Information Commissioner and the Information Commissioners with such officers and employees as may be necessary for the efficient performance of their functions under this Act', their salaries, allowances and conditions of service being 'such as may be prescribed'. This is consistent with <b>Section 27(2)(d)<\/b>, which lists that matter among the subjects of rules.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3022,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:\\n\\nList-I\\nA. Term of office and ineligibility for reappointment\\nB. Oath or affirmation before entering upon office\\nC. Resignation from office\\nD. Provision of officers and employees\\n\\nList-II\\n1. Section 13(1)\\n2. Section 13(3)\\n3. Section 13(4)\\n4. Section 13(6)\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3\",\r\n      \"A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 13<\/b> is arranged as follows \u2014 sub-section (1) term of office of the Chief Information Commissioner, (2) term of office of an Information Commissioner, (3) oath or affirmation, (4) resignation, (5) salaries, allowances and conditions of service, and (6) officers and employees.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3023,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding removal from the office of Chief Information Commissioner:\\n1. The removal is by order of the President.\\n2. The grounds are proved misbehaviour or incapacity.\\n3. The order may be made only after the Supreme Court, on a reference made to it by the President, has on inquiry reported that he ought to be removed.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 14(1)<\/b> contains all three elements. The sub-section opens with the words 'Subject to the provisions of sub-section (3)', which preserves the separate route of removal for the objectively ascertainable grounds listed in Section 14(3), where no reference to the Supreme Court is required.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3024,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. The reference for inquiry into proved misbehaviour or incapacity is made by the President.\\n2. The inquiry is conducted by the Supreme Court.\\n3. The Supreme Court itself passes the order of removal on the conclusion of the inquiry.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 14(1)<\/b> supports Statements 1 and 2. Statement 3 misdescribes the scheme: the Supreme Court inquires and reports, but the removal is effected 'only by order of the President'. The Court's function is advisory in form, though the President may act only if the report is that the office-holder ought to be removed.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3025,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following actions which the President may take in respect of a person against whom a reference has been made to the Supreme Court:\\n1. Suspend him from office.\\n2. Prohibit him from attending the office during the inquiry, if deemed necessary.\\n3. Remove him from office before the report is received.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 14(2)<\/b> permits suspension and, if deemed necessary, prohibition from attending the office during the inquiry. Removal cannot precede the report, since <b>Section 14(1)<\/b> permits removal on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity only 'after the Supreme Court... has, on inquiry, reported' that the person ought to be removed.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3026,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"A suspension ordered pending a reference to the Supreme Court continues:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"for a maximum period of six months\",\r\n      \"until the Supreme Court concludes its inquiry\",\r\n      \"until the President has passed orders on receipt of the report of the Supreme Court on such reference\",\r\n      \"until the expiry of the term of office of the person suspended\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 14(2)<\/b> \u2014 the suspension operates 'until the President has passed orders on receipt of the report of the Supreme Court on such reference.' The suspension therefore does not lapse merely on the submission of the report; it continues until the President acts upon it. No maximum period is prescribed.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3027,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following grounds on which the President may remove a Chief Information Commissioner by order, without any reference to the Supreme Court:\\n1. He is adjudged an insolvent.\\n2. He has been convicted of an offence which, in the opinion of the President, involves moral turpitude.\\n3. He engages during his term of office in any paid employment outside the duties of his office.\\n4. He has acquired such financial or other interest as is likely to affect prejudicially his functions.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 14(3)(a), (b), (c) and (e)<\/b> reproduce these four grounds, the remaining ground being clause (d), unfitness to continue 'by reason of infirmity of mind or body'. The sub-section opens with the words 'Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section (1)', which is what dispenses with the requirement of a Supreme Court inquiry.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3028,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. Removal for proved misbehaviour requires a reference to the Supreme Court.\\n2. Removal for insolvency does not require any such reference.\\n3. Removal for incapacity does not require any such reference.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 14(1)<\/b> requires a reference for 'proved misbehaviour or incapacity', so Statement 3 is incorrect \u2014 incapacity stands with misbehaviour and not with the Section 14(3) grounds. Insolvency is listed in <b>Section 14(3)(a)<\/b> and is therefore dealt with by direct order of the President. The distinction between 'incapacity' in Section 14(1) and 'infirmity of mind or body' in Section 14(3)(d) is a fine one and is often tested.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3029,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"For a conviction to found an order of removal, the offence must be one which involves moral turpitude in the opinion of:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the convicting court\",\r\n      \"the Supreme Court\",\r\n      \"the President\",\r\n      \"the selection committee which recommended the appointment\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 14(3)(b)<\/b> \u2014 removal may follow where the person 'has been convicted of an offence which, in the opinion of the President, involves moral turpitude.' Two steps are therefore involved: a conviction recorded by a competent court, and the President's own assessment that the offence involves moral turpitude. The same formula of subjective satisfaction appears in clause (d) in relation to infirmity of mind or body.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3030,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding a Chief Information Commissioner who is concerned or interested in a contract made by or on behalf of the Government of India:\\n1. He is deemed to be guilty of misbehaviour.\\n2. The deeming operates for the purposes of sub-section (1) of Section 14.\\n3. An interest held as a member, and in common with the other members, of an incorporated company is excepted.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 14(4)<\/b> contains all three propositions. The practical consequence of the deeming operating 'for the purposes of sub-section (1)' is important: such conduct does not permit removal by direct order, but must go through a reference to the Supreme Court, since it is treated as misbehaviour and not as one of the Section 14(3) grounds.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3031,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following forms of involvement which attract the deeming provision relating to Government contracts:\\n1. Being in any way concerned or interested in any contract or agreement made by or on behalf of the Government of India.\\n2. Participating in any way in the profit of such a contract or agreement.\\n3. Participating in any benefit or emolument arising therefrom.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 14(4)<\/b> covers a person who is 'in any way, concerned or interested in any contract or agreement made by or on behalf of the Government of India or participates in any way in the profit thereof or in any benefit or emolument arising therefrom', the only exception being participation 'as a member and in common with the other members of an incorporated company.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3032,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following is NOT a ground on which the President may remove a Chief Information Commissioner by direct order?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Being adjudged an insolvent\",\r\n      \"Unfitness to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body\",\r\n      \"Proved misbehaviour\",\r\n      \"Acquiring such financial or other interest as is likely to affect prejudicially his functions\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"Insolvency, infirmity of mind or body, and the acquisition of a prejudicial financial interest are grounds under <b>Section 14(3)(a), (d) and (e)<\/b>, on which the President may act by order. Proved misbehaviour falls under <b>Section 14(1)<\/b> and can lead to removal only after a reference to the Supreme Court and a report that the person ought to be removed.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3033,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. Engaging in paid employment outside the duties of his office is a ground of removal.\\n2. Carrying on any business is a disqualification attaching to the office.\\n3. Loss of confidence of the Central Government is a ground of removal.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 14(3)(c)<\/b> makes paid employment a ground of removal and <b>Section 12(6)<\/b> prohibits carrying on any business during the term of office. Statement 3 finds no support anywhere in Sections 12 to 14: the exhaustive character of the grounds is precisely what secures the independence of the Commission.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3034,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Arrange the following steps in the correct chronological order in which they arise where a Chief Information Commissioner is sought to be removed for proved misbehaviour:\\n1. Reference by the President to the Supreme Court.\\n2. Suspension from office during the inquiry.\\n3. Report of the Supreme Court that he ought to be removed.\\n4. Order of removal passed by the President.\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"2-1-3-4\",\r\n      \"1-2-3-4\",\r\n      \"1-3-2-4\",\r\n      \"1-3-4-2\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"The sequence follows <b>Sections 14(1) and 14(2)<\/b>. The reference must precede the suspension, since Section 14(2) permits suspension only of a person 'in respect of whom a reference has been made to the Supreme Court under sub-section (1)'. The report follows the inquiry, and the President's order concludes the process, the suspension continuing until that order is passed.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3035,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:\\n\\nList-I\\nA. Removal on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity\\nB. Suspension pending inquiry\\nC. Removal by direct order on the ground of insolvency\\nD. Interest in a Government contract deemed to be misbehaviour\\n\\nList-II\\n1. Section 14(1)\\n2. Section 14(2)\\n3. Section 14(3)\\n4. Section 14(4)\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3\",\r\n      \"A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 14<\/b> is arranged in this order \u2014 sub-section (1) removal for proved misbehaviour or incapacity after a Supreme Court inquiry, (2) suspension and prohibition from attending office during the inquiry, (3) the five grounds of removal by direct order, and (4) the deeming provision in respect of Government contracts.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3036,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the authorities involved in relation to the Central Information Commission:\\n1. The Commission is constituted by the Central Government.\\n2. Its members are appointed and removed by the President.\\n3. Its officers and employees are provided by the Central Government.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 12(1)<\/b>, <b>Sections 12(3) and 14<\/b>, and <b>Section 13(6)<\/b> respectively support the three statements. The division of functions is deliberate: the Government constitutes and staffs the body, while appointment and removal of its members are reserved to the President, acting in the one case on the recommendation of a committee and in the other on specified grounds.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3037,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the Chief Information Commissioner:\\n1. He holds office during the pleasure of the President.\\n2. He may be removed only in the manner specified in Section 14.\\n3. He may resign at any time by writing addressed to the President.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"Statement 1 is a classic distractor: the office is not held during pleasure, the holder enjoying a fixed tenure terminable only through the procedure in <b>Section 14<\/b>, as the proviso to <b>Section 13(4)<\/b> confirms. Statements 2 and 3 follow from Section 13(4) and its proviso. Security of tenure is the principal safeguard of the Commission's independence.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3038,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the position after the Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019:\\n1. The term of office of the Chief Information Commissioner is such as may be prescribed by the Central Government.\\n2. The salaries and allowances of the Information Commissioners are such as may be prescribed by the Central Government.\\n3. The age ceiling of sixty-five years was raised to seventy years.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"The Amendment Act substituted the opening words of <b>Sections 13(1) and 13(2)<\/b> and the whole of <b>Section 13(5)<\/b>, replacing the fixed five-year term and the statutory salary linkage with terms to be prescribed by the Central Government. The age ceiling of sixty-five years in the provisos to Sections 13(1) and 13(2) was left untouched.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3039,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. The Chief Information Commissioner is not eligible for reappointment.\\n2. An Information Commissioner is not eligible for reappointment as an Information Commissioner.\\n3. An Information Commissioner who has vacated his office is eligible for appointment as the Chief Information Commissioner.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 13(1)<\/b> bars reappointment of the Chief Information Commissioner; <b>Section 13(2)<\/b> bars reappointment 'as such Information Commissioner'; and the first proviso to Section 13(2) preserves eligibility for appointment as Chief Information Commissioner. The elevation is subject to the aggregate ceiling of five years in the second proviso.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3040,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the functioning of the Central Information Commission:\\n1. It exercises its powers autonomously, without being subjected to directions by any other authority under the Act.\\n2. The Chief Information Commissioner is empowered by the Act to constitute Benches of the Commission.\\n3. The Chief Information Commissioner is assisted by the Information Commissioners.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 12(4)<\/b> supports Statements 1 and 3. Statement 2 is not borne out: the Government of India, on the advice of the Department of Legal Affairs, has taken the position that a Commission could function through Benches only if there were a specific provision in the Act to that effect, and Section 12(4) confers no such power.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3041,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the exercise of powers by the Central Information Commission:\\n1. Its decisions in appeals are binding.\\n2. It may impose a penalty on a Public Information Officer.\\n3. It may entertain, in the first instance, an application for information.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(7)<\/b> makes the decision binding and <b>Section 20(1)<\/b> confers the power to impose a penalty. Statement 3 is incorrect: under <b>Section 6(1)<\/b> an application must be addressed to the Public Information Officer or the Assistant Public Information Officer of the concerned public authority, the Commission's jurisdiction arising only at the stage of a complaint under Section 18 or a second appeal under Section 19(3).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3042,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements comparing the Central and the State Information Commissions:\\n1. Both may have a maximum of ten Information Commissioners besides the Chief.\\n2. Both are constituted by the Central Government.\\n3. Both function autonomously without being subjected to directions by any other authority under the Act.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Sections 12(2) and 15(2)<\/b> fix the same ceiling of ten, and <b>Sections 12(4) and 15(4)<\/b> are in identical terms as to autonomy. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Central Information Commission is constituted by the Central Government under Section 12(1), but a State Information Commission is constituted by the State Government under Section 15(1).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3043,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the appointment process:\\n1. The Prime Minister is the Chairperson of the selection committee.\\n2. The appointment is made by the President on the recommendation of the committee.\\n3. The Central Government is not bound by the recommendation of the committee.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 12(3)<\/b> supports Statements 1 and 2, providing that the appointments 'shall be appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee'. Statement 3 has no foundation in the sub-section, which makes the recommendation the very basis of the appointment; the Act contemplates no independent power of appointment outside that process.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3044,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding a person appointed to the Central Information Commission:\\n1. He may not hold any other office of profit during his term.\\n2. He may not be a Member of the Legislature of a Union territory.\\n3. He may pursue his profession so long as it does not interfere with his duties.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 12(6)<\/b> supports Statements 1 and 2. Statement 3 reverses the closing words of the same sub-section, which prohibit 'carrying on any business or pursuing any profession' without any qualification as to interference with duties. The prohibition is absolute for the duration of the office.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3045,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the oath prescribed for the Chief Information Commissioner:\\n1. He swears or affirms that he will bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India as by law established.\\n2. He swears or affirms that he will uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India.\\n3. He swears or affirms that he will perform the duties of his office without fear or favour, affection or ill-will.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"The <b>First Schedule<\/b>, referable to <b>Sections 13(3) and 16(3)<\/b>, contains all three undertakings, the oath closing with the words 'and that I will uphold the Constitution and the laws.' The maker may either swear in the name of God or solemnly affirm.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3046,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. The number of Information Commissioners actually appointed is left to be determined as may be deemed necessary.\\n2. The Commission may function even where fewer than ten Information Commissioners have been appointed.\\n3. The Act prescribes a quorum for the Commission.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 12(2)<\/b> speaks of 'such number of Central Information Commissioners, not exceeding ten, as may be deemed necessary', which supports Statements 1 and 2. No quorum is prescribed anywhere in Sections 12 to 14, and the procedure for deciding appeals is left to rules under <b>Section 19(10)<\/b> read with Section 27(2)(e).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3047,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the qualifications for appointment:\\n1. Eminence in public life is required.\\n2. Wide knowledge and experience in law is one of the qualifying descriptions.\\n3. Wide knowledge and experience in military service is one of the qualifying descriptions.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 12(5)<\/b> names law, science and technology, social service, management, journalism, mass media and administration and governance. Military service is not among the descriptions, though a person with such a background may qualify through experience in administration and governance. Eminence in public life is a separate and cumulative requirement.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3048,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. The Chief Information Commissioner may not hold office after attaining the age of sixty-five years.\\n2. An Information Commissioner may not hold office after attaining the age of sixty-five years.\\n3. Where an Information Commissioner is elevated, the age ceiling ceases to apply to him.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"The provisos to <b>Sections 13(1) and 13(2)<\/b> impose the same ceiling of sixty-five years on both offices. Statement 3 has no foundation: on elevation the office-holder becomes subject to the proviso to Section 13(1), and in addition to the aggregate limit of five years in the second proviso to Section 13(2), whichever expires first.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3049,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the interest of a Commissioner in a company which has contracts with the Government of India:\\n1. Holding shares as a member, in common with the other members of the company, is excepted.\\n2. A special arrangement for participation in the profits of a Government contract is not excepted.\\n3. The exception is available only where the value of the contract is below a prescribed limit.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 14(4)<\/b> excepts only participation 'as a member and in common with the other members of an incorporated company', which supports Statements 1 and 2. No monetary threshold appears in the sub-section, so Statement 3 introduces a limitation which the Act does not contain.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3050,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the composition of the selection committee:\\n1. It consists of three members.\\n2. Two of its three members are drawn from the Council of Ministers.\\n3. Its recommendation is made to the President.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 12(3)<\/b> names the Prime Minister, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. Two of the three \u2014 the Prime Minister and the nominated Cabinet Minister \u2014 belong to the Council of Ministers, and the appointment is made by the President 'on the recommendation' of that committee.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3051,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the powers of the Chief Information Commissioner under Section 12(4):\\n1. He exercises general superintendence, direction and management of the affairs of the Commission.\\n2. He may exercise all such powers and do all such things as may be exercised or done by the Commission.\\n3. He is subject to the directions of the Central Government in administrative matters.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 12(4)<\/b> supports Statements 1 and 2. Statement 3 contradicts the closing words of the same sub-section, under which those powers are exercised 'autonomously without being subjected to directions by any other authority under this Act'. The Central Government's role is confined to constituting the Commission, providing its staff and prescribing terms of service.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3052,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. Resignation is addressed to the President, who is also the appointing authority.\\n2. Removal is by order of the President.\\n3. Suspension pending inquiry is ordered by the Chief Information Commissioner.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Sections 13(4), 12(3) and 14(1)<\/b> support Statements 1 and 2. Statement 3 is incorrect: <b>Section 14(2)<\/b> vests the power of suspension, and of prohibiting attendance at office during the inquiry, in the President alone. The Chief Information Commissioner has no disciplinary authority over his colleagues.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3053,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the conditions of service of the officers and other employees of the Central Information Commission:\\n1. They are provided by the Central Government.\\n2. Their salaries, allowances and terms and conditions of service are such as may be prescribed.\\n3. They are appointed by the Union Public Service Commission.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 13(6)<\/b> supports Statements 1 and 2, and <b>Section 27(2)(d)<\/b> lists that matter among the subjects on which the appropriate Government may make rules. The Union Public Service Commission finds no mention in Sections 12 to 14 in relation to the staff of the Commission.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3054,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding a reference made to the Supreme Court under Section 14:\\n1. It may be made only by the President.\\n2. It relates to the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.\\n3. Conduct which is deemed to be misbehaviour by reason of an interest in a Government contract may found such a reference.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 14(1)<\/b> supports Statements 1 and 2, and <b>Section 14(4)<\/b> supports Statement 3, since the deeming operates expressly 'for the purposes of sub-section (1)'. Conduct falling within Section 14(4) therefore cannot be dealt with by direct order under Section 14(3) and must go through the reference procedure.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3055,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. The Central Information Commission is constituted by a notification published in the Official Gazette.\\n2. The Commission exercises the powers conferred on, and performs the functions assigned to, it under the Act.\\n3. The Commission may be dissolved by the Central Government by a similar notification.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 12(1)<\/b> supports Statements 1 and 2, the Commission being constituted 'to exercise the powers conferred on, and to perform the functions assigned to, it under this Act'. No power of dissolution is conferred anywhere in the Act; the power of amendment by notification which the Central Government does possess relates to the Second Schedule under <b>Section 24(2)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3056,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 3: The Central Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the safeguards which secure the independence of the Central Information Commission:\\n1. A fixed tenure terminable only in the manner specified in Section 14.\\n2. A bar on variation of salaries and conditions of service to the disadvantage of the holders of office after their appointment.\\n3. Autonomy from the directions of any other authority under the Act.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"The three safeguards are found in the proviso to <b>Section 13(4)<\/b> read with <b>Section 14<\/b>, in the first proviso to <b>Section 13(5)<\/b>, and in <b>Section 12(4)<\/b> respectively. Taken together with the disqualifications in Section 12(6), they constitute the statutory scheme for insulating the Commission from executive and political pressure.\"\r\n  },\r\n\r\n  \/* ------------------------------------------------------------------------\r\n     CHAPTER IV \u2014 The State Information Commission (Ss. 15-17)\r\n     45 questions   |   ids 4001 - 4045\r\n     --------------------------------------------------------------------- *\/\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4001,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, which authority constitutes the State Information Commission?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The Governor of the State\",\r\n      \"The High Court of the State\",\r\n      \"The State Legislature\",\r\n      \"The State Government\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 15(1)<\/b> \u2014 'Every State Government shall, by notification in the Official Gazette, constitute a body to be known as the ......... (name of the State) Information Commission.' The distinction is important: the State Government <i>constitutes<\/i> the body, while the Governor <i>appoints<\/i> its members under Section 15(3). Neither the State Legislature nor the High Court has any role.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4002,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, the State Information Commission shall consist of:\\n1. The State Chief Information Commissioner\\n2. Such number of State Information Commissioners not exceeding ten\\n3. A Secretary appointed by the State Government\\n4. Representatives from civil society\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"All of the above\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 15(2)<\/b> \u2014 the Commission shall consist of '(a) the State Chief Information Commissioner, and (b) such number of State Information Commissioners, not exceeding ten, as may be deemed necessary.' No Secretary and no civil society representative forms part of the Commission. Maximum strength is therefore eleven.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4003,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, who appoints the State Chief Information Commissioner and State Information Commissioners?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The Chief Minister of the State\",\r\n      \"The State Legislature\",\r\n      \"The President of India\",\r\n      \"The Governor of the State\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 15(3)<\/b> \u2014 they 'shall be appointed by the Governor on the recommendation of a committee' consisting of the Chief Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Legislative Assembly, and a Cabinet Minister nominated by the Chief Minister. The Chief Minister chairs the committee but does not make the appointment; the President appoints only at the Central level under Section 12(3).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4004,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, the committee that recommends appointments to the State Information Commission consists of:\\n1. The Chief Minister as Chairperson\\n2. The Leader of Opposition in the Legislative Assembly\\n3. The Leader of Opposition in the Legislative Council\\n4. A Cabinet Minister nominated by the Chief Minister\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"All of the above\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 15(3)(i) to (iii)<\/b> name only three members \u2014 the Chief Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Legislative Assembly, and a Cabinet Minister nominated by the Chief Minister. The Legislative Council finds no mention, even in bicameral States, so Statement 3 is incorrect.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4005,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, if the Leader of Opposition in the Legislative Assembly has not been recognised as such, who becomes a member of the selection committee?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly\",\r\n      \"A member nominated by the Governor\",\r\n      \"The Deputy Chief Minister\",\r\n      \"The Leader of the single largest group in opposition in the Legislative Assembly\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"Explanation to <b>Section 15(3)<\/b> \u2014 'where the Leader of Opposition in the Legislative Assembly has not been recognised as such, the Leader of the single largest group in opposition of the Government in the Legislative Assembly shall be deemed to be the Leader of Opposition.' An identically worded Explanation governs the Central selection committee under Section 12(3).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4006,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, who has the general superintendence, direction and management of the affairs of the State Information Commission?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The State Government\",\r\n      \"The Governor\",\r\n      \"The State Chief Information Commissioner\",\r\n      \"All State Information Commissioners collectively\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 15(4)<\/b> \u2014 'The general superintendence, direction and management of the affairs of the State Information Commission shall vest in the State Chief Information Commissioner who shall be assisted by the State Information Commissioners', those powers being exercised 'autonomously without being subjected to directions by any other authority under this Act.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4007,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, which of the following qualifications are required for appointment as State Chief Information Commissioner or State Information Commissioner?\\n1. Must be a person of eminence in public life\\n2. Must have wide knowledge and experience in law, science and technology, social service, management, journalism, mass media or administration and governance\\n3. Must be at least 45 years of age\\n4. Must have served in government for at least 10 years\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"All of the above\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 15(5)<\/b> lays down only two requirements \u2014 eminence in public life, and wide knowledge and experience in the specified fields. No minimum age and no period of prior Government service is prescribed anywhere in Section 15. The qualifications are identical to those for the Central Commission under Section 12(5).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4008,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, which of the following disqualifications apply to the State Chief Information Commissioner and State Information Commissioners?\\n1. Cannot be a Member of Parliament\\n2. Cannot be a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union territory\\n3. Cannot hold any other office of profit\\n4. Cannot carry on any business\\n5. Cannot be connected with any political party\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 5 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3, 4 and 5 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3, 4 and 5\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 15(6)<\/b> imposes all five disqualifications in a single sentence, and adds a sixth \u2014 'pursuing any profession'. They operate for the duration of the office and secure both the independence and the whole-time character of the post.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4009,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, where shall the headquarters of the State Information Commission be located?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"At the state capital only\",\r\n      \"At such place as the High Court may direct\",\r\n      \"At such place as the Governor may decide\",\r\n      \"At such place in the State as the State Government may specify by notification\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 15(7)<\/b> \u2014 the headquarters 'shall be at such place in the State as the State Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, specify.' There is no requirement that it be at the State capital. Contrast <b>Section 12(7)<\/b>, under which the headquarters of the Central Commission is fixed by the statute itself at Delhi.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4010,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, what is required for the State Information Commission to establish offices at places other than its headquarters?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Approval of the Governor\",\r\n      \"No approval is required\",\r\n      \"Approval of the State Legislature\",\r\n      \"Previous approval of the State Government\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 15(7)<\/b> \u2014 the Commission 'may, with the previous approval of the State Government, establish offices at other places in the State.' The words 'previous approval' mean the approval must be obtained before the office is set up. Section 12(7) requires the previous approval of the Central Government in the case of the Central Commission.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4011,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, what is the maximum total number of members (including the State Chief Information Commissioner) that a State Information Commission can have?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"10 members\",\r\n      \"As decided by the State Government\",\r\n      \"12 members\",\r\n      \"11 members\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 15(2)<\/b> \u2014 one State Chief Information Commissioner plus 'such number of State Information Commissioners, not exceeding ten, as may be deemed necessary', giving a maximum of eleven. The ceiling of ten applies to the Information Commissioners alone. The Central Commission has the same maximum under Section 12(2).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4012,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, consider the following statements:\\nStatement I: The State Information Commission operates autonomously without being subjected to directions by any other authority.\\nStatement II: The State Chief Information Commissioner exercises powers independently without assistance from State Information Commissioners.\\n\\nWhich of the above statements is\/are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Statement I only\",\r\n      \"Statement II only\",\r\n      \"Both Statement I and Statement II\",\r\n      \"Neither Statement I nor Statement II\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 15(4)<\/b> supports Statement I in terms. Statement II misreads the same sub-section, which provides that the State Chief Information Commissioner 'shall be assisted by the State Information Commissioners' \u2014 the functioning is collaborative, though superintendence vests in the Chief.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4013,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, which of the following fields of expertise can qualify a person for appointment as State Chief Information Commissioner?\\n1. Law\\n2. Science and technology\\n3. Social service\\n4. Management\\n5. Journalism and mass media\\n6. Administration and governance\\n7. Military service\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only\",\r\n      \"All of the above\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3, 5 and 7 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 15(5)<\/b> names law, science and technology, social service, management, journalism, mass media and administration and governance. Military service is not an independently qualifying field, though such experience may fall within administration and governance.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4014,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, who is the Chairperson of the committee that recommends appointments to the State Information Commission?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The Governor\",\r\n      \"The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly\",\r\n      \"The Chief Justice of the High Court\",\r\n      \"The Chief Minister\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 15(3)(i)<\/b> \u2014 'the Chief Minister, who shall be the Chairperson of the committee.' The Governor appoints on the committee's recommendation but is not a member of it, mirroring the position of the President and the Prime Minister at the Central level under Section 12(3).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4015,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, which of the following comparisons between Central Information Commission and State Information Commission is\/are correct?\\n1. Both have the same maximum number of Information Commissioners (excluding the Chief)\\n2. Both require appointment by the President\\n3. Both operate autonomously without directions from any other authority\\n4. Both have headquarters fixed by statute\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"All of the above\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Sections 12(2) and 15(2)<\/b> fix the same ceiling of ten, and <b>Sections 12(4) and 15(4)<\/b> are in identical terms as to autonomy. Statement 2 is wrong because State Commissioners are appointed by the Governor under Section 15(3); Statement 4 is wrong because only the Central Commission's headquarters is fixed by statute, the State Commission's being notified by the State Government under Section 15(7).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4016,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, who prescribes the term of office for the State Chief Information Commissioner?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The State Government\",\r\n      \"The State Legislature\",\r\n      \"The Governor\",\r\n      \"The Central Government\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 16(1)<\/b>, as substituted by the Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019 \u2014 he 'shall hold office for such term as may be prescribed by the Central Government and shall not be eligible for reappointment.' Before the amendment the sub-section itself fixed a term of five years.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4017,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, which of the following statements regarding the State Chief Information Commissioner's term is\/are correct?\\n1. The term is prescribed by the Central Government\\n2. The State Chief Information Commissioner is not eligible for reappointment\\n3. No State Chief Information Commissioner shall hold office after attaining 65 years\\n4. The maximum term is fixed at 5 years\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"All of the above\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 16(1)<\/b> and its proviso support Statements 1, 2 and 3. Statement 4 states the pre-2019 position: the fixed five-year term was replaced by a term 'as may be prescribed by the Central Government', though the age ceiling of sixty-five years continues to operate.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4018,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, every State Information Commissioner shall hold office for such term as prescribed by the Central Government or till he attains which age, whichever is earlier?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"60 years\",\r\n      \"62 years\",\r\n      \"65 years\",\r\n      \"70 years\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 16(2)<\/b> \u2014 'or till he attains the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier, and shall not be eligible for reappointment as such State Information Commissioner.' The same ceiling applies to the State Chief Information Commissioner under the proviso to Section 16(1).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4019,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, which of the following statements about a State Information Commissioner's eligibility for appointment as State Chief Information Commissioner is correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"A State Information Commissioner is never eligible for appointment as State Chief Information Commissioner\",\r\n      \"A State Information Commissioner is eligible for appointment as State Chief Information Commissioner on vacating office\",\r\n      \"A State Information Commissioner must wait 2 years after vacating office before becoming eligible\",\r\n      \"A State Information Commissioner can only be appointed as State Chief if they have served less than 3 years\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"First proviso to <b>Section 16(2)<\/b> \u2014 'every State Information Commissioner shall, on vacating his office under this sub-section, be eligible for appointment as the State Chief Information Commissioner in the manner specified in sub-section (3) of section 15.' No cooling-off period is prescribed, though the second proviso caps the aggregate tenure.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4020,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, if a State Information Commissioner is appointed as State Chief Information Commissioner, what is the maximum aggregate term of office?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"3 years\",\r\n      \"5 years\",\r\n      \"7 years\",\r\n      \"10 years\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"Second proviso to <b>Section 16(2)<\/b> \u2014 'his term of office shall not be more than five years in aggregate as the State Information Commissioner and the State Chief Information Commissioner.' The aggregate ceiling operates alongside the age ceiling of sixty-five years, and whichever is reached first ends the tenure.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4021,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, before whom does the State Chief Information Commissioner or State Information Commissioner make and subscribe an oath before entering office?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The Chief Minister\",\r\n      \"The Chief Justice of the High Court\",\r\n      \"The Governor or some other person appointed by the Governor\",\r\n      \"The President\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 16(3)<\/b> \u2014 the oath or affirmation is made 'before the Governor or some other person appointed by him in that behalf... according to the form set out for the purpose in the First Schedule.' At the Central level the oath is made before the President under Section 13(3).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4022,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, how can the State Chief Information Commissioner or State Information Commissioner resign from office?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"By oral communication to the Governor\",\r\n      \"By writing under his hand addressed to the Governor\",\r\n      \"By writing to the Chief Minister\",\r\n      \"By notification in the State Gazette\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 16(4)<\/b> \u2014 he 'may, at any time, by writing under his hand addressed to the Governor, resign from his office', the proviso adding that he 'may be removed in the manner specified under section 17.' Resignation and removal are thus distinct routes by which the office may be vacated.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4023,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, who prescribes the salaries and allowances payable to State Chief Information Commissioner and State Information Commissioners?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The State Government\",\r\n      \"The Central Government\",\r\n      \"The Governor\",\r\n      \"The State Legislature\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 16(5)<\/b>, as substituted in 2019 \u2014 the salaries, allowances and other terms and conditions of service 'shall be such as may be prescribed by the Central Government.' Before the amendment they were linked by the Act itself to those of an Election Commissioner. Central control on this point secures uniformity across the States.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4024,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, which of the following statements regarding variation of salaries and conditions of service is\/are correct?\\n1. Salaries can be varied to the advantage of State Information Commissioners after appointment\\n2. Allowances cannot be varied to the disadvantage of State Chief Information Commissioners after appointment\\n3. Other conditions of service can be varied to the disadvantage if approved by the State Legislature\\n4. The Central Government has unlimited power to vary salaries at any time\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"All of the above\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"First proviso to <b>Section 16(5)<\/b> \u2014 the salaries, allowances and other conditions of service 'shall not be varied to their disadvantage after their appointment.' The bar is one-way, so a favourable variation is permissible (Statement 1) while a disadvantageous one is not (Statement 2). No exception exists for approval by the State Legislature, and the proviso limits the Central Government's power.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4025,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, what special provision was made for State Chief Information Commissioners and State Information Commissioners appointed before the commencement of the Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"They were required to accept revised terms within 6 months\",\r\n      \"They continue to be governed by the provisions of the original Act as if the 2019 Amendment had not come into force\",\r\n      \"Their salaries were automatically reduced to match new appointees\",\r\n      \"They were given a one-time option to resign with full benefits\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"Second proviso to <b>Section 16(5)<\/b> \u2014 such persons 'shall continue to be governed by the provisions of this Act and the rules made there under as if the Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019 had not come into force.' This grandfathering clause preserves the fixed five-year term and the earlier salary linkage for those already in office.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4026,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, which authority provides the State Chief Information Commissioner and State Information Commissioners with officers and employees for efficient performance of functions?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The Central Government\",\r\n      \"The State Government\",\r\n      \"The Governor\",\r\n      \"The Commission recruits them directly\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 16(6)<\/b> \u2014 'The State Government shall provide the State Chief Information Commissioner and the State Information Commissioners with such officers and employees as may be necessary for the efficient performance of their functions', their salaries and conditions of service being 'such as may be prescribed.' Note the contrast with the term and salary of the Commissioners themselves, which the Central Government prescribes.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4027,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, consider the following statements:\\nStatement I: The State Chief Information Commissioner is not eligible for reappointment as State Chief Information Commissioner.\\nStatement II: A State Information Commissioner is not eligible for reappointment as State Information Commissioner but is eligible for appointment as State Chief Information Commissioner.\\n\\nWhich of the above statements is\/are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Statement I only\",\r\n      \"Statement II only\",\r\n      \"Both Statement I and Statement II\",\r\n      \"Neither Statement I nor Statement II\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 16(1)<\/b> bars reappointment of the State Chief Information Commissioner, and <b>Section 16(2)<\/b> bars reappointment 'as such State Information Commissioner' while its first proviso preserves eligibility for appointment as State Chief Information Commissioner. That elevation remains subject to the aggregate ceiling of five years in the second proviso.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4028,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, if a State Information Commissioner has served for 4 years and is then appointed as State Chief Information Commissioner, for how many more years can he serve?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"As prescribed by the Central Government with no limit\",\r\n      \"5 years\",\r\n      \"1 year\",\r\n      \"Until he attains 65 years of age with no other limit\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"The second proviso to <b>Section 16(2)<\/b> caps the combined tenure at five years. Four years having been served as State Information Commissioner, only one year remains, subject always to the age ceiling of sixty-five years in the proviso to Section 16(1), whichever is reached first.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4029,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, the form of oath or affirmation to be taken by State Chief Information Commissioner and State Information Commissioners is set out in which schedule?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"First Schedule\",\r\n      \"Second Schedule\",\r\n      \"Third Schedule\",\r\n      \"It is prescribed by the State Government\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 16(3)<\/b> refers to 'the form set out for the purpose in the First Schedule.' That Schedule carries the marginal reference '[See Sections 13 (3) and 16 (3)]' and is common to Central and State Commissioners alike. The Second Schedule, by contrast, lists the organisations excluded by Section 24.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4030,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, which of the following aspects of State Information Commission are prescribed by the Central Government rather than the State Government?\\n1. Term of office of State Chief Information Commissioner\\n2. Salaries and allowances of State Information Commissioners\\n3. Headquarters location of State Information Commission\\n4. Qualifications for appointment\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"All of the above\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Sections 16(1), 16(2) and 16(5)<\/b> place the term of office and the salaries in the hands of the Central Government. The headquarters is notified by the State Government under <b>Section 15(7)<\/b>, and the qualifications are fixed by <b>Section 15(5)<\/b> of the Act itself and cannot be altered by executive action at all.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4031,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, on what grounds can the State Chief Information Commissioner or State Information Commissioner be removed after inquiry by the Supreme Court?\\n1. Proved misbehaviour\\n2. Incapacity\\n3. Inefficiency in discharging duties\\n4. Loss of confidence of the State Government\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"All of the above\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 17(1)<\/b> permits removal 'on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity after the Supreme Court, on a reference made to it by the Governor, has on inquiry, reported' that he ought to be removed. Neither inefficiency nor loss of governmental confidence is a ground \u2014 their exclusion is what secures the independence of the office.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4032,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, which authority conducts the inquiry before the State Chief Information Commissioner or State Information Commissioner can be removed on grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The State Legislature\",\r\n      \"The High Court of the State\",\r\n      \"The Supreme Court\",\r\n      \"A committee appointed by the Governor\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 17(1)<\/b> requires the inquiry to be conducted by the Supreme Court on a reference made by the Governor. The High Court has no role, even though the office is a State-level one \u2014 a point on which questions are frequently set. The corresponding provision for the Central Commission is Section 14(1).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4033,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, who makes the reference to the Supreme Court for inquiry into the removal of State Chief Information Commissioner or State Information Commissioner?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The Chief Minister\",\r\n      \"The President\",\r\n      \"The Governor\",\r\n      \"The State Legislature\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 17(1)<\/b> \u2014 the inquiry follows 'a reference made to it by the Governor', who also passes the final order of removal. At the Central level the reference is made by the President under Section 14(1). The constitutional head of the respective Government thus initiates and concludes the process.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4034,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, what action can the Governor take after making a reference to the Supreme Court but before receiving the Supreme Court's report?\\n1. Suspend the State Chief Information Commissioner or State Information Commissioner from office\\n2. Prohibit them from attending office during inquiry if deemed necessary\\n3. Remove them immediately without waiting for the report\\n4. Transfer them to a different position\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"All of the above\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 17(2)<\/b> permits the Governor to 'suspend from office, and if deem necessary prohibit also from attending the office during inquiry.' Removal cannot precede the report, since Section 17(1) allows it only 'after the Supreme Court... has on inquiry, reported'. No power of transfer is conferred.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4035,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, which of the following grounds allow the Governor to remove the State Chief Information Commissioner or State Information Commissioner WITHOUT a Supreme Court inquiry?\\n1. Adjudged an insolvent\\n2. Convicted of an offence involving moral turpitude in the opinion of the Governor\\n3. Engagement in paid employment outside official duties\\n4. Infirmity of mind or body making them unfit\\n5. Proved misbehaviour\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3, 4 and 5\",\r\n      \"2, 3, 4 and 5 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 17(3)(a) to (e)<\/b> list insolvency, conviction for an offence involving moral turpitude, paid employment outside the duties of office, infirmity of mind or body, and the acquisition of a prejudicial financial or other interest. Proved misbehaviour falls under Section 17(1) and requires a reference to the Supreme Court.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4036,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, in whose opinion must a convicted offence involve 'moral turpitude' for the Governor to remove a State Information Commissioner under Section 17(3)(b)?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"In the opinion of the Supreme Court\",\r\n      \"In the opinion of the Governor\",\r\n      \"In the opinion of the Chief Minister\",\r\n      \"In the opinion of the convicting court\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 17(3)(b)<\/b> \u2014 removal may follow where the person 'has been convicted of an offence which, in the opinion of the Governor, involves moral turpitude.' Two steps are involved: a conviction recorded by a competent court, and the Governor's own assessment of moral turpitude. Clause (d) uses the same formula for infirmity of mind or body.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4037,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, if the State Chief Information Commissioner has acquired a financial interest likely to affect prejudicially his functions, what is the procedure for removal?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The Governor must refer the matter to the Supreme Court for inquiry\",\r\n      \"The Governor can directly remove by order without Supreme Court inquiry\",\r\n      \"The State Legislature must pass a resolution for removal\",\r\n      \"The matter must be decided by the High Court of the State\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 17(3)(e)<\/b> is one of the grounds on which the Governor 'may by order remove from office', the sub-section opening with the words 'Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section (1)' \u2014 which is what dispenses with the requirement of a reference to the Supreme Court.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4038,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, if the State Chief Information Commissioner is concerned or interested in a contract made by the State Government, what is the consequence under Section 17(4)?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"He shall be immediately removed from office\",\r\n      \"He shall be deemed to be guilty of misbehaviour for purposes of Section 17(1)\",\r\n      \"He shall be suspended pending inquiry\",\r\n      \"He shall pay a penalty to the State Government\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 17(4)<\/b> \u2014 such a person 'shall, for the purposes of sub-section (1), be deemed to be guilty of misbehaviour.' The practical consequence is significant: the matter must go through a reference to the Supreme Court under Section 17(1), and cannot be dealt with by direct order under Section 17(3).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4039,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, until when can the Governor suspend a State Information Commissioner after making a reference to the Supreme Court?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"For a maximum period of 6 months\",\r\n      \"Until the Supreme Court completes its inquiry\",\r\n      \"Until the Governor has passed orders on receipt of the Supreme Court's report\",\r\n      \"For a period determined by the State Legislature\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 17(2)<\/b> \u2014 the suspension operates 'until the Governor has passed orders on receipt of the report of the Supreme Court on such reference.' It therefore does not lapse merely on submission of the report; it continues until the Governor acts upon it. No maximum period is prescribed.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4040,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, which of the following comparisons between removal procedures for Central and State Information Commissioners is\/are correct?\\n1. Both require Supreme Court inquiry for proved misbehaviour\\n2. Central commissioners' inquiry reference is made by President while State commissioners' reference is made by Governor\\n3. For insolvency, both can be removed without Supreme Court inquiry\\n4. State commissioners can be removed by State High Court while Central commissioners by Supreme Court\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Sections 14(1) and 17(1)<\/b> both require a Supreme Court inquiry for proved misbehaviour, the reference being made by the President and the Governor respectively; and <b>Sections 14(3)(a) and 17(3)(a)<\/b> both permit direct removal for insolvency. Statement 4 is wrong: the High Court has no role in either case.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4041,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, consider the following statements:\\nStatement I: For removal of State Information Commissioner on grounds of proved misbehaviour, the Governor must obtain a Supreme Court inquiry report.\\nStatement II: For removal of State Information Commissioner on grounds of engagement in paid employment, the Governor can remove directly without Supreme Court inquiry.\\n\\nWhich of the above statements is\/are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Statement I only\",\r\n      \"Statement II only\",\r\n      \"Both Statement I and Statement II\",\r\n      \"Neither Statement I nor Statement II\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 17(1)<\/b> supports Statement I and <b>Section 17(3)(c)<\/b> supports Statement II. The two together illustrate the dual mechanism \u2014 a judicial inquiry for the evaluative grounds of misbehaviour and incapacity, and direct removal by order for the objectively ascertainable grounds in Section 17(3).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4042,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, which of the following is NOT a ground for removal of State Chief Information Commissioner without Supreme Court inquiry under Section 17(3)?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Convicted of an offence involving moral turpitude in the opinion of the Governor\",\r\n      \"Acquired financial interest likely to affect functions prejudicially\",\r\n      \"Incapacity to discharge duties\",\r\n      \"Engaged in paid employment outside official duties\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"Conviction involving moral turpitude, a prejudicial financial interest and paid employment are grounds under <b>Section 17(3)(b), (e) and (c)<\/b> respectively. Incapacity stands with proved misbehaviour in <b>Section 17(1)<\/b> and requires a reference to the Supreme Court. It is to be distinguished from 'infirmity of mind or body' in clause (d), which is a narrower and more objective ground.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4043,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, who ultimately issues the order of removal of the State Chief Information Commissioner or State Information Commissioner?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The Supreme Court\",\r\n      \"The Governor\",\r\n      \"The State Legislature\",\r\n      \"The Chief Minister\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"Both <b>Section 17(1)<\/b> and <b>Section 17(3)<\/b> provide for removal 'by order of the Governor'. The Supreme Court only inquires and reports where Section 17(1) applies. Since the Governor also appoints under Section 15(3), appointment and removal rest with the same constitutional authority.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4044,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, what is the exception to the prohibition on State Information Commissioners being interested in State Government contracts?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"If the contract value is less than Rs. 10 lakhs\",\r\n      \"If the interest is held as a member in common with other members of an incorporated company\",\r\n      \"If prior approval is obtained from the Governor\",\r\n      \"If disclosed in writing to the State Government\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 17(4)<\/b> excepts participation 'otherwise than as a member and in common with the other members of an incorporated company.' Ordinary shareholding is therefore permissible, while a direct personal interest or a special profit-sharing arrangement is not. No monetary threshold and no approval mechanism appears in the sub-section.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4045,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 4: The State Information Commission\",\r\n    question: \"In the context of the Right to Information Act, 2005, if a State Information Commissioner engages in paid employment outside official duties during the term of office, what procedure must be followed for removal?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Governor must refer to Supreme Court, which conducts inquiry, then Governor removes based on report\",\r\n      \"Governor can directly remove by order without Supreme Court inquiry\",\r\n      \"State Legislature must pass resolution, then Governor removes\",\r\n      \"Chief Minister recommends, Governor removes after Cabinet approval\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 17(3)(c)<\/b> permits removal by direct order of the Governor, the sub-section operating 'notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section (1)'. The ground is an objectively verifiable one, and it also breaches the disqualification in <b>Section 15(6)<\/b> against holding any other office of profit, carrying on business or pursuing a profession.\"\r\n  },\r\n\r\n  \/* ------------------------------------------------------------------------\r\n     CHAPTER V \u2014 Powers, functions, appeal and penalties (Ss. 18-20)\r\n     58 questions   |   ids 5001 - 5058\r\n     --------------------------------------------------------------------- *\/\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5001,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"The duty of an Information Commission to receive and inquire into a complaint arises in respect of a complaint from:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"any citizen\",\r\n      \"only a person aggrieved by a decision of a Public Information Officer\",\r\n      \"only the applicant who made the request for information\",\r\n      \"any person\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 18(1)<\/b> \u2014 'it shall be the duty of the Central Information Commission or State Information Commission, as the case may be, to receive and inquire into a complaint from any person.' The expression used is 'any person', which is deliberately wider than the word 'citizen' used in <b>Section 3<\/b> for the substantive right to information. Note also the contrast with <b>Section 19(1)<\/b>, where a first appeal lies at the instance of 'any person' who is aggrieved or who receives no decision.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5002,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"A complaint may be made to an Information Commission by a person who has been unable to submit a request by reason that:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the public authority holds no record on the subject\",\r\n      \"the information sought relates to a third party\",\r\n      \"the prescribed fee has been revised upwards\",\r\n      \"no Public Information Officer has been appointed\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 18(1)(a)<\/b> covers two distinct situations \u2014 inability to submit a request 'either by reason that no such officer has been appointed under this Act, or because the Central Assistant Public Information Officer or State Assistant Public Information Officer... has refused to accept his or her application for information or appeal.' Non-existence of the record is not a ground under clause (a); a grievance about fee falls under clause (d), and third party information is governed by <b>Section 11<\/b> read with <b>Section 19(2)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5003,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"A complaint in respect of fee lies where a person has been required to pay an amount of fee:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"which the Information Commission determines to be unreasonable\",\r\n      \"which exceeds the amount prescribed by the rules\",\r\n      \"which he or she considers unreasonable\",\r\n      \"which has not been calculated in the manner laid down in Section 7(3)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 18(1)(d)<\/b> \u2014 a complaint lies from a person 'who has been required to pay an amount of fee which he or she considers unreasonable.' The test at the threshold is the complainant's own perception; the Commission's own view of reasonableness comes only at the stage of decision. The requirement of disclosing calculations arises separately under <b>Section 7(3)(a)<\/b>, and the ceiling of reasonableness is fixed by the proviso to <b>Section 7(5)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5004,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:\\n\\nList-I (Ground of complaint)\\nA. Refused access to any information requested\\nB. Not given a response within the time-limit specified\\nC. Required to pay an amount of fee considered unreasonable\\nD. Believes he has been given incomplete, misleading or false information\\n\\nList-II (Clause)\\n1. Clause (b)\\n2. Clause (c)\\n3. Clause (d)\\n4. Clause (e)\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3\",\r\n      \"A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 18(1)<\/b> arranges the grounds in this exact order \u2014 clause (b) refusal of access; clause (c) no response within the time-limit; clause (d) fee considered unreasonable; clause (e) incomplete, misleading or false information. Clause (a) covers inability to submit a request at all, and clause (f) is the residuary ground, 'in respect of any other matter relating to requesting or obtaining access to records under this Act.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5005,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following as grounds on which a complaint may be entertained by an Information Commission:\\n1. Refusal by an Assistant Public Information Officer to accept an application for forwarding.\\n2. Supply of information in a form other than that in which it was sought.\\n3. Belief that the information supplied is incomplete, misleading or false.\\n4. Any other matter relating to requesting or obtaining access to records.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"Statements 1, 3 and 4 correspond to <b>Sections 18(1)(a), 18(1)(e) and 18(1)(f)<\/b> respectively. Statement 2 is not an independent ground: <b>Section 7(9)<\/b> itself permits departure from the form sought where compliance 'would disproportionately divert the resources of the public authority or would be detrimental to the safety or preservation of the record', and the remedy for a grievance about form lies in appeal under <b>Section 19<\/b>, where <b>Section 19(8)(a)(i)<\/b> empowers the Commission to require access 'in a particular form'.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5006,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"The powers of a civil court conferred on an Information Commission are exercisable:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"in respect of every matter arising in the course of the inquiry\",\r\n      \"only in second appeals and not in complaints\",\r\n      \"only with the concurrence of the appropriate Government\",\r\n      \"in respect of the matters specified, and any other matter which may be prescribed\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 18(3)<\/b> confers the powers of a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 'in respect of the following matters, namely' \u2014 and then enumerates clauses (a) to (e), closing with clause (f), 'any other matter which may be prescribed.' The list is therefore closed except to the extent that rules made under <b>Section 27<\/b> or <b>Section 28<\/b> add to it; the Commission does not acquire the general powers of a civil court.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5007,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"While inquiring into a matter, an Information Commission may compel the attendance of a person and require him:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"to give oral or written evidence on oath and to produce documents or things\",\r\n      \"to give oral evidence alone, documents being obtainable only through the public authority\",\r\n      \"to give evidence only in writing and on affidavit\",\r\n      \"to appear through a legal practitioner duly authorised in that behalf\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 18(3)(a)<\/b> \u2014 the power extends to 'summoning and enforcing the attendance of persons and compel them to give oral or written evidence on oath and to produce the documents or things.' Evidence on affidavit is a separate power under clause (c), and clause (e) separately authorises 'issuing summons for examination of witnesses or documents.' Nothing in the section requires appearance through counsel.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5008,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"The power of an Information Commission to requisition any public record or copies thereof extends to records held by:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the public authority against which the complaint is made only\",\r\n      \"any public authority under the same appropriate Government\",\r\n      \"any court or office\",\r\n      \"any office other than a court\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 18(3)(d)<\/b> \u2014 the Commission may exercise the power of a civil court in respect of 'requisitioning any public record or copies thereof from any court or office.' The words 'any court or office' are unqualified, so the power is not confined to the public authority complained against, nor are courts excluded from its reach.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5009,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"All of the following are powers expressly conferred on an Information Commission while inquiring into a matter EXCEPT:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"receiving evidence on affidavit\",\r\n      \"requiring the discovery and inspection of documents\",\r\n      \"granting an injunction restraining a public authority from disclosing information\",\r\n      \"issuing summons for examination of witnesses or documents\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 18(3)<\/b> lists receiving evidence on affidavit (clause c), discovery and inspection of documents (clause b), and issuing summons for examination of witnesses or documents (clause e). No power of injunction is conferred. A third party who apprehends disclosure has a different remedy \u2014 an appeal under <b>Section 19(2)<\/b> against the order made under <b>Section 11<\/b>, and a right of hearing before the Commission under <b>Section 19(4)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5010,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"The power of an Information Commission to examine records during an inquiry operates notwithstanding anything inconsistent contained in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the Official Secrets Act, 1923 alone\",\r\n      \"the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908\",\r\n      \"the rules made under the Act\",\r\n      \"any other Act of Parliament or State Legislature\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 18(4)<\/b> opens with the words 'Notwithstanding anything inconsistent contained in any other Act of Parliament or State Legislature, as the case may be.' The non obstante clause is therefore general and is not confined to the Official Secrets Act, 1923 \u2014 which is separately overridden, for all purposes of the Act, by <b>Section 22<\/b>. The same sub-section closes with the words 'no such record may be withheld from it on any grounds.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5011,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"The bar against withholding any record from an Information Commission on any ground is available:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"during the inquiry of any complaint under the Act\",\r\n      \"at all times, whether or not any proceeding is pending\",\r\n      \"only where the public authority consents to production\",\r\n      \"only in the course of hearing a second appeal\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 18(4)<\/b> permits the Commission, 'during the inquiry of any complaint under this Act', to examine 'any record to which this Act applies which is under the control of the public authority, and no such record may be withheld from it on any grounds.' Two limitations are therefore built in: the record must be one to which the Act applies, and it must be under the control of the public authority. The power is exercisable in the course of an inquiry, not at large.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5012,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding an inquiry by an Information Commission:\\n1. It may examine any record to which the Act applies which is under the control of the public authority.\\n2. No such record may be withheld from it on any grounds.\\n3. It may examine records of a private body which are not accessible to any public authority under any law.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 18(4)<\/b> supports Statements 1 and 2 in terms. Statement 3 goes beyond the sub-section, which is confined to 'any record to which this Act applies'. Under <b>Section 2(f)<\/b>, information relating to a private body falls within the Act only where it 'can be accessed by a public authority under any other law for the time being in force'; a record outside that description is outside the Act and therefore outside Section 18(4).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5013,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"A first appeal lies where a person does not receive a decision within the time specified in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"sub-section (3) of Section 6\",\r\n      \"sub-section (6) of Section 19\",\r\n      \"sub-section (3) of Section 11\",\r\n      \"sub-section (1) or clause (a) of sub-section (3) of Section 7\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(1)<\/b> \u2014 an appeal lies at the instance of a person 'who does not receive a decision within the time specified in sub-section (1) or Clause (a) of sub-section (3) of Section 7, or is aggrieved by a decision' of the Public Information Officer. Section 7(1) fixes the ordinary period of thirty days, while Section 7(3)(a) governs the position where further fee has been demanded and the intervening period stands excluded.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5014,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"The period of thirty days for preferring a first appeal is reckoned from:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the date of the application for information in every case\",\r\n      \"the date on which the applicant becomes aware of the decision, however late\",\r\n      \"the date on which the appellate authority is designated\",\r\n      \"the expiry of the period specified for decision, or from the receipt of the decision\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(1)<\/b> \u2014 the appeal may be preferred 'within thirty days from the expiry of such period or from the receipt of such a decision.' Two starting points are therefore provided, one for deemed refusal under <b>Section 7(2)<\/b> and one for an actual decision. The proviso softens the limitation: the appellate officer 'may admit the appeal after the expiry of the period of thirty days if he or she is satisfied that the appellant was prevented by sufficient cause from filing the appeal in time.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5015,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"In the case of an appeal by a third party against an order to disclose third party information, the period of thirty days is computed from:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the date of receipt of the order by the third party\",\r\n      \"the date on which disclosure is actually effected\",\r\n      \"the date of the request for information\",\r\n      \"the date of the order\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(2)<\/b> \u2014 'the appeal by the concerned third party shall be made within thirty days from the date of the order.' This is a deliberate departure from <b>Section 19(1)<\/b>, where the period runs from receipt of the decision. The appeal contemplated is one against an order made by a Public Information Officer 'under Section 11 to disclose third party information', and the entitlement to appeal must be stated in the notice of decision under <b>Section 11(4)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5016,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"The period of ninety days for a second appeal is computed from the date on which the decision:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"was communicated to the public authority\",\r\n      \"should have been made or was actually received\",\r\n      \"was pronounced in the presence of the appellant\",\r\n      \"of the Public Information Officer was originally made\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(3)<\/b> \u2014 'A second appeal against the decision under sub-section (1) shall lie within ninety days from the date on which the decision should have been made or was actually received, with the Central Information Commission or the State Information Commission.' The alternative starting point protects an appellant whose first appeal has not been decided within the period fixed by <b>Section 19(6)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5017,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"A second appeal presented after the expiry of ninety days:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"is barred in every case\",\r\n      \"may be admitted if the Commission is satisfied that the appellant was prevented by sufficient cause from filing it in time\",\r\n      \"may be admitted only with the consent of the public authority\",\r\n      \"may be admitted only where the delay does not exceed a further thirty days\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"Proviso to <b>Section 19(3)<\/b> \u2014 'the Central Information Commission or the State Information Commission, as the case may be, may admit the appeal after the expiry of the period of ninety days if it is satisfied that the appellant was prevented by sufficient cause from filing the appeal in time.' No outer limit is placed on the condonable delay; the test is sufficiency of cause. An identically worded proviso governs first appeals under Section 19(1).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5018,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"In appeal proceedings, the onus to prove that a denial of a request was justified lies on:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the public authority as a body\",\r\n      \"the Public Information Officer who denied the request\",\r\n      \"the First Appellate Authority which upheld the denial\",\r\n      \"the appellant, who must show that the exemption was wrongly invoked\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(5)<\/b> \u2014 'In any appeal proceedings, the onus to prove that a denial of a request was justified shall be on the Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer, as the case may be, who denied the request.' The burden is thus personal to the officer who took the decision, and not on the public authority generally. A comparable personal burden appears in the second proviso to <b>Section 20(1)<\/b>, where the officer must prove that he acted reasonably and diligently.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5019,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"The requirement that an appeal be disposed of within thirty days, extendable to a total of forty-five days, applies to appeals under:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"sub-section (3) of Section 19 alone\",\r\n      \"sub-section (1) or sub-section (2) of Section 19\",\r\n      \"every appeal and every complaint under the Act\",\r\n      \"complaints under Section 18 alone\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(6)<\/b> \u2014 'An appeal under sub-section (1) or sub-section (2) shall be disposed of within thirty days of the receipt of the appeal or within such extended period not exceeding a total of forty-five days from the date of filing thereof.' The sub-section governs first appeals and third party appeals only. The Act fixes no corresponding time-limit for disposal of a second appeal or a complaint by the Commission itself.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5020,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding disposal of a first appeal:\\n1. The period of thirty days is computed from the receipt of the appeal.\\n2. The extended period, not exceeding forty-five days in total, is computed from the date of filing.\\n3. Reasons for taking the extended period are required to be recorded in writing.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(6)<\/b> contains all three elements \u2014 disposal 'within thirty days of the receipt of the appeal or within such extended period not exceeding a total of forty-five days from the date of filing thereof, as the case may be, for reasons to be recorded in writing.' The change of the starting point between the ordinary and the extended period is deliberate, and is a favourite testing point. The Government of India's Decision under Section 19 adds that the extended course is meant for exceptional cases only.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5021,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"The steps which an Information Commission may require a public authority to take in order to secure compliance with the Act are:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"exhaustively enumerated in the Act\",\r\n      \"illustrative, the enumeration being introduced by the word 'including'\",\r\n      \"subject to prior approval of the appropriate Government\",\r\n      \"confined to the provision of access to the information in question\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(8)(a)<\/b> empowers the Commission to 'require the public authority to take any such steps as may be necessary to secure compliance with the provisions of this Act, including' six enumerated measures. The governing words are 'any such steps as may be necessary', and the word 'including' makes the six sub-clauses illustrative rather than exhaustive. No approval of the appropriate Government is contemplated, the decision being binding under <b>Section 19(7)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5022,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following steps which an Information Commission may require a public authority to take:\\n1. Appointing a Public Information Officer.\\n2. Making necessary changes to its practices in relation to the maintenance, management and destruction of records.\\n3. Enhancing the provision of training on the right to information for its officials.\\n4. Providing it with an annual report in compliance with Clause (b) of sub-section (1) of Section 4.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(8)(a)(ii), (iv), (v) and (vi)<\/b> reproduce these four measures verbatim. The remaining two sub-clauses are (i), providing access to information 'if so requested, in a particular form', and (iii), 'publishing certain information or categories of information'. Sub-clause (vi) is notable because it links the Commission's remedial power directly to the proactive disclosure obligation in Section 4(1)(b).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5023,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"Compensation for any loss or other detriment suffered by a complainant is required to be paid by:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the Public Information Officer personally\",\r\n      \"the public authority\",\r\n      \"the appropriate Government\",\r\n      \"the Information Commission out of its own budget\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(8)(b)<\/b> \u2014 the Commission has the power to 'require the public authority to compensate the complainant for any loss or other detriment suffered.' The liability is institutional. This is to be contrasted with the penalty under <b>Section 20(1)<\/b>, which is imposed on the Central or State Public Information Officer personally, and with the recommendation of disciplinary action under <b>Section 20(2)<\/b>, which again operates against the officer.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5024,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. A penalty under the Act is imposed on the Public Information Officer.\\n2. Compensation for loss or detriment is required to be paid by the public authority.\\n3. Both the penalty and the compensation are payable to the appropriate Government.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 20(1)<\/b> directs the penalty against the Central or State Public Information Officer, while <b>Section 19(8)(b)<\/b> requires the public authority 'to compensate the complainant for any loss or other detriment suffered.' Statement 3 is wrong on the second limb: compensation is expressly payable to the complainant, not to the appropriate Government. Both powers are exercisable by the Commission in the same decision under Section 19(8).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5025,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following is NOT a power available to an Information Commission in its decision?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"To require access to information to be provided in a particular form, if so requested\",\r\n      \"To impose any of the penalties provided under the Act\",\r\n      \"To direct the prosecution of the Public Information Officer before a criminal court\",\r\n      \"To reject the application\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(8)(a)(i), (c) and (d)<\/b> respectively provide for access in a particular form, imposition of penalties, and rejection of the application. There is no power to direct prosecution: the only personal consequences for a defaulting officer are the monetary penalty under <b>Section 20(1)<\/b> and a recommendation for disciplinary action under <b>Section 20(2)<\/b>. <b>Section 21<\/b> in fact bars suits and prosecutions for anything done in good faith under the Act.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5026,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"The notice of its decision which an Information Commission is required to give must include:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the dissenting opinion, if any, of the Information Commissioners\",\r\n      \"any right of appeal\",\r\n      \"the particulars of the officer who conducted the inquiry\",\r\n      \"the amount of fee collected by the public authority in the matter\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(9)<\/b> \u2014 the Commission 'shall give notice of its decision, including any right of appeal, to the complainant and the public authority.' Two recipients only are named. The requirement of stating the right of appeal parallels <b>Section 7(8)(iii)<\/b>, under which a Public Information Officer rejecting a request must communicate the particulars of the appellate authority, and <b>Section 11(4)<\/b> in the case of a third party.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5027,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"An Information Commission is required to decide an appeal in accordance with:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908\",\r\n      \"the Indian Evidence Act, 1872\",\r\n      \"such procedure as may be prescribed\",\r\n      \"such procedure as the Chief Information Commissioner may determine in each case\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(10)<\/b> \u2014 'The Central Information Commission or State Information Commission, as the case may be, shall decide the appeal in accordance with such procedure as may be prescribed.' The rule-making power for this purpose is expressly conferred by <b>Section 27(2)(e)<\/b>. The Code of Civil Procedure is relevant only to the extent that <b>Section 18(3)<\/b> borrows certain civil-court powers for the purpose of an inquiry.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5028,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"Arrange the following steps in the correct chronological order in which they arise:\\n1. Rejection of the request by the Public Information Officer.\\n2. Appeal to an officer senior in rank to the Public Information Officer.\\n3. Second appeal to the Information Commission.\\n4. Notice of the decision, including any right of appeal, to the complainant and the public authority.\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1-2-4-3\",\r\n      \"2-1-3-4\",\r\n      \"1-2-3-4\",\r\n      \"1-3-2-4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"The sequence follows <b>Sections 7(1), 19(1), 19(3) and 19(9)<\/b>. Rejection or deemed refusal comes first; the first appeal lies within thirty days to an officer senior in rank to the Public Information Officer in the same public authority; the second appeal lies within ninety days to the Commission; and the Commission then gives notice of its decision, including any right of appeal, to the complainant and the public authority.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5029,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"Where the decision appealed against relates to information of a third party, the Information Commission is required to:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"remit the matter to the Public Information Officer for a fresh notice under Section 11\",\r\n      \"give a reasonable opportunity of being heard to that third party\",\r\n      \"decline to hear the appeal until the third party files its own appeal\",\r\n      \"obtain the written consent of the third party before deciding\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(4)<\/b> \u2014 'If the decision of the Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer, as the case may be, against which an appeal is preferred relates to information of a third party, the Central Information Commission or State Information Commission, as the case may be, shall give a reasonable opportunity of being heard to that third party.' The obligation is mandatory and arises irrespective of whether the third party has itself appealed under Section 19(2).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5030,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. The decision of an Information Commission is binding.\\n2. An order made under the Act may be called in question otherwise than by way of an appeal under the Act.\\n3. In deciding an appeal, the Commission may require the public authority to publish certain information or categories of information.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(7)<\/b> makes the decision binding, and <b>Section 19(8)(a)(iii)<\/b> permits the Commission to secure compliance 'by publishing certain information or categories of information'. Statement 2 reverses <b>Section 23<\/b>, which provides that no court shall entertain any suit, application or other proceeding in respect of any order made under the Act 'and no such order shall be called in question otherwise than by way of an appeal under this Act.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5031,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following practices of first Appellate Authorities and Public Information Officers which have been brought to notice as defaults:\\n1. First Appellate Authorities not disposing of appeals within the time-frame prescribed.\\n2. Appellate Authorities expressing agreement with the decision of the Public Information Officer mechanically, without judicious examination.\\n3. Public Information Officers not complying with the directions of the first Appellate Authority to furnish information to the appellant.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"All three\",\r\n      \"None\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"The Government of India's Decision under <b>Section 19<\/b> records that the Central Information Commission brought to notice cases where Appellate Authorities 'do not dispose of the appeals within the time-frame prescribed by the Act', where they 'do not examine the appeals judiciously and express their agreement with the decision of the Central Public Information Officer mechanically', and where Central Public Information Officers 'do not comply with the directions of the first Appellate Authority to furnish information to the Appellant.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5032,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"The taking of forty-five days for disposal of a first appeal is intended to be resorted to:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"as a matter of routine wherever the record is voluminous\",\r\n      \"in exceptional cases, subject to the Appellate Authority recording in writing the reasons for the delay\",\r\n      \"only where the appellant consents to the extension\",\r\n      \"only where the Information Commission grants prior permission\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"The Government of India's Decision under <b>Section 19<\/b>, Para 2 \u2014 'In exceptional cases, the Appellate Authority may take forty-five days to dispose of the appeal subject to the condition that he shall record in writing the reasons for delay in deciding the appeal.' It further directs that each Appellate Authority 'should ensure that an appeal received by him is disposed of within 30 days', and that even in exceptional cases 'its disposal should not take more than 45 days.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5033,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"The function of deciding appeals under the Act has been described as:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"a purely administrative function\",\r\n      \"an executive function incidental to office administration\",\r\n      \"a quasi-judicial function\",\r\n      \"an advisory function exercisable at the discretion of the officer\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"The Government of India's Decision under <b>Section 19<\/b>, Para 3 \u2014 'Deciding appeals under the RTI Act is a quasi-judicial function. It is, therefore, necessary that the Appellate Authority should see to it that the justice is not only done but it should also appear to have been done.' The direct consequence drawn in the same paragraph is that 'the order passed by the Appellate Authority should be a speaking order giving justification for the decision arrived at.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5034,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"An order passed by a first Appellate Authority is required to be:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"a speaking order giving justification for the decision arrived at\",\r\n      \"confined to a bare statement allowing or rejecting the appeal\",\r\n      \"in the form prescribed by the Information Commission\",\r\n      \"countersigned by the head of the public authority\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"The Government of India's Decision under <b>Section 19<\/b>, Para 3 \u2014 'the order passed by the Appellate Authority should be a speaking order giving justification for the decision arrived at.' The requirement flows from the quasi-judicial character of the function and from <b>Section 19(5)<\/b>, under which the officer who denied the request bears the onus of proving that the denial was justified \u2014 a burden which can only be adjudicated upon by a reasoned order.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5035,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"Where an Appellate Authority concludes that the appellant should be supplied information in addition to what has already been supplied, the course which has been described as the better one is that:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"he should direct the Public Information Officer to give such information to the appellant\",\r\n      \"he should himself furnish the information to the appellant along with the order passed by him\",\r\n      \"he should remit the application to the Public Information Officer for fresh consideration\",\r\n      \"he should forward the appeal to the Information Commission for directions\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"The Government of India's Decision under <b>Section 19<\/b>, Para 4 \u2014 the Appellate Authority may either direct the Public Information Officer to give the information, or 'he himself may give information to the appellant while disposing of the appeal.' It adds: 'It would, however, be better if the Appellate Authority chooses the second course of action and he himself furnishes the information along with the order passed by him in the matter.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5036,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"Where an Appellate Authority orders the Public Information Officer to supply information, he is required to ensure that the information so ordered is supplied to the appellant:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"within thirty days of the order\",\r\n      \"within forty-five days of the order\",\r\n      \"immediately\",\r\n      \"before the expiry of the period for filing a second appeal\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"The Government of India's Decision under <b>Section 19<\/b>, Para 4 \u2014 where the first course is adopted, 'the Appellate Authority should ensure that the information ordered by him to be supplied is supplied to the Appellant immediately.' The Decision was issued precisely because Public Information Officers were found not to be complying with the directions of first Appellate Authorities.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5037,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"The concern expressed regarding the appointment of very junior officers as Appellate Authorities was that such officers:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"lack the academic qualifications prescribed by the Act\",\r\n      \"are not in a position to enforce their orders\",\r\n      \"cannot be held liable to any penalty under the Act\",\r\n      \"are not entitled to examine the records of the public authority\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"The Government of India's Decision under <b>Section 19<\/b>, Para 5 \u2014 'The Central Information Commission has also pointed out that some of the Ministries \/ Departments have appointed very junior officers as Appellate Authorities who are not in a position to enforce their orders.' The Decision recalls that the Act requires the first Appellate Authority to be 'an officer senior in rank to the CPIO', so that he would be 'an officer in a commanding position vis-a-vis the CPIO.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5038,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"Where a Public Information Officer does not implement the order of the Appellate Authority and the intervention of a higher authority is felt necessary, the Appellate Authority should:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"bring the matter to the notice of the officer in the public authority competent to take action against the Public Information Officer\",\r\n      \"refer the matter directly to the appropriate Government\",\r\n      \"file a complaint before the Information Commission under Section 18\",\r\n      \"institute a proceeding before the civil court having jurisdiction\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"The Government of India's Decision under <b>Section 19<\/b>, Para 5 \u2014 'if, in any case, the CPIO does not implement the order passed by the Appellate Authority and the Appellate Authority feels that intervention of higher authority is required to get his order implemented, he should bring the matter to the notice of the officer in the public authority competent to take action against the CPIO. Such competent officer shall take necessary action so as to ensure implementation of the provisions of the RTI Act.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5039,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the first Appellate Authority:\\n1. He is an officer senior in rank to the Public Information Officer in the same public authority.\\n2. He is therefore an officer in a commanding position vis-a-vis the Public Information Officer.\\n3. He is empowered to impose a penalty on the Public Information Officer for delay in furnishing information.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(1)<\/b> supports Statement 1, and the Government of India's Decision under Section 19, Para 5, supports Statement 2 in terms. Statement 3 is incorrect: the power to impose a penalty under <b>Section 20(1)<\/b> vests exclusively in the Central or State Information Commission, exercisable 'at the time of deciding any complaint or appeal' before it. The Appellate Authority's remedy against an unwilling officer is to move the officer competent to take action against him.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5040,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the time allowed for disposal of a first appeal:\\n1. The ordinary period is thirty days from the receipt of the appeal.\\n2. The extended period may in no case exceed a total of forty-five days from the date of filing.\\n3. Where the extended period is taken, reasons need not be recorded so long as the appeal is decided within forty-five days.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(6)<\/b> supports Statements 1 and 2. Statement 3 is contradicted by the same sub-section, which permits the extended period only 'for reasons to be recorded in writing.' The Government of India's Decision under Section 19 reinforces this: 'In such cases, the Appellate Authority should record, in writing, the reasons for not deciding the appeal within 30 days.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5041,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following acts of a Public Information Officer which attract the imposition of a penalty:\\n1. Refusing to receive an application for information.\\n2. Not furnishing information within the time specified.\\n3. Mala fidely denying the request for information.\\n4. Destroying information which was the subject of the request.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 20(1)<\/b> lists six penalty-attracting acts, of which these are four \u2014 the officer who 'without any reasonable cause, refused to receive an application for information or has not furnished information within the time specified under sub-section (1) of Section 7 or mala fidely denied the request for information or knowingly given incorrect, incomplete or misleading information or destroyed information which was the subject of the request or obstructed in any manner in furnishing the information.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5042,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"The penalty imposable on a defaulting Public Information Officer is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"two hundred rupees for each day of default, subject to a maximum of twenty thousand rupees\",\r\n      \"two hundred and fifty rupees for each day of default, subject to a maximum of twenty-five thousand rupees\",\r\n      \"a lump sum of twenty-five thousand rupees\",\r\n      \"such sum as the Information Commission may consider just in the circumstances\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 20(1)<\/b> \u2014 the Commission 'shall impose a penalty of two hundred and fifty rupees each day till application is received or information is furnished, so however, the total amount of such penalty shall not exceed twenty-five thousand rupees.' The penalty is thus a daily accrual with a ceiling, and not a flat sum; describing it as a one-time fine of twenty-five thousand rupees is a standard distractor in previous-year papers.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5043,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"The daily penalty under the Act continues to run until:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the application is received or the information is furnished\",\r\n      \"the ceiling of twenty-five thousand rupees is reached in every case\",\r\n      \"the appeal or complaint is finally decided by the Commission\",\r\n      \"disciplinary proceedings are initiated against the officer\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 20(1)<\/b> \u2014 the penalty of two hundred and fifty rupees is imposed 'each day till application is received or information is furnished.' The terminal point is therefore the removal of the default itself, whichever form it took. The ceiling of twenty-five thousand rupees operates only as an outer limit on the aggregate, not as the measure of the penalty.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5044,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the imposition of a penalty on a Public Information Officer:\\n1. The Information Commission must form the opinion at the time of deciding a complaint or an appeal.\\n2. The default must have occurred without any reasonable cause.\\n3. Once the opinion is formed, the Commission has a discretion whether or not to impose the penalty.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 20(1)<\/b> supports Statements 1 and 2 \u2014 the opinion is formed 'at the time of deciding any complaint or appeal', and the conduct must be 'without any reasonable cause'. Statement 3 is incorrect: the words used are 'it shall impose a penalty', which are mandatory once the opinion has been formed. The discretion of the Commission is exhausted at the stage of forming the opinion, not thereafter.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5045,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following safeguards available to a Public Information Officer in penalty proceedings:\\n1. He shall be given a reasonable opportunity of being heard before any penalty is imposed on him.\\n2. The burden of proving that he acted reasonably and diligently lies on him.\\n3. The burden of proving that he acted without reasonable cause lies on the complainant.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"The two provisos to <b>Section 20(1)<\/b> support Statements 1 and 2 \u2014 'the Central Public Information Officer... shall be given a reasonable opportunity of being heard before any penalty is imposed on him' and 'the burden of proving that he acted reasonably and diligently shall be on the Central Public Information Officer.' Statement 3 reverses the second proviso; the complainant bears no such burden, consistently with <b>Section 19(5)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5046,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"The burden of proving that he acted reasonably and diligently lies upon:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the complainant or appellant, as the case may be\",\r\n      \"the public authority concerned\",\r\n      \"the Public Information Officer\",\r\n      \"the First Appellate Authority whose order is under challenge\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"Second proviso to <b>Section 20(1)<\/b> \u2014 'Provided further that the burden of proving that he acted reasonably and diligently shall be on the Central Public Information Officer or the State Public Information Officer, as the case may be.' This complements <b>Section 19(5)<\/b>, under which the onus of proving that a denial was justified also rests on the officer who denied the request.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5047,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"The additional element which must be established before a recommendation for disciplinary action can be made against a Public Information Officer is that he acted:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"mala fide\",\r\n      \"without any reasonable cause and persistently\",\r\n      \"in disobedience of an order of the Information Commission\",\r\n      \"after the expiry of the maximum penalty of twenty-five thousand rupees\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 20(2)<\/b> applies where the officer 'has, without any reasonable cause and persistently, failed to receive an application for information or has not furnished information within the time specified' and so on. The catalogue of defaults is the same as in Section 20(1); the distinguishing element is persistence. The consequence is that the Commission 'shall recommend for disciplinary action against the Central Public Information Officer... under the service rules applicable to him.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5048,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements distinguishing the two sub-sections dealing with the consequences of default by a Public Information Officer:\\n1. A monetary penalty is imposed where the default is without any reasonable cause.\\n2. A recommendation for disciplinary action is made where the default is without any reasonable cause and persistent.\\n3. The disciplinary action is recommended under the service rules applicable to the officer.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 20(1)<\/b> provides for the daily penalty where the default is 'without any reasonable cause'; <b>Section 20(2)<\/b> provides for a recommendation of disciplinary action where the officer has acted 'without any reasonable cause and persistently'; and the same sub-section directs that the recommendation be made 'under the service rules applicable to him.' All three propositions are express.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5049,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:\\n\\nList-I\\nA. Penalty of two hundred and fifty rupees per day\\nB. Recommendation for disciplinary action\\nC. Compensation for loss or other detriment suffered\\nD. Requirement to publish certain categories of information\\n\\nList-II\\n1. Section 19(8)(a)(iii)\\n2. Section 19(8)(b)\\n3. Section 20(1)\\n4. Section 20(2)\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1\",\r\n      \"A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1\",\r\n      \"A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2\",\r\n      \"A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 20(1)<\/b> carries the daily penalty; <b>Section 20(2)<\/b> the recommendation of disciplinary action for persistent default; <b>Section 19(8)(b)<\/b> the power to 'require the public authority to compensate the complainant for any loss or other detriment suffered'; and <b>Section 19(8)(a)(iii)<\/b> the power to secure compliance 'by publishing certain information or categories of information'. Note that the first two operate against the officer, the last two against the public authority.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5050,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. A penalty under the Act may be imposed only by the Central or State Information Commission.\\n2. The Information Commission may sentence a defaulting Public Information Officer to imprisonment not exceeding three months.\\n3. A recommendation of disciplinary action may be made by the Information Commission.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Sections 20(1) and 20(2)<\/b> vest both powers exclusively in the Central or State Information Commission. Statement 2 is a recurring trap: the Act confers no power of imprisonment anywhere. The only sanctions against a defaulting officer are the monetary penalty of two hundred and fifty rupees per day subject to a ceiling of twenty-five thousand rupees, and a recommendation for disciplinary action under his service rules.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5051,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"The supply of incorrect, incomplete or misleading information attracts a penalty where such information has been given:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"in any circumstances whatever\",\r\n      \"knowingly\",\r\n      \"after the expiry of thirty days from the request\",\r\n      \"without the approval of the First Appellate Authority\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 20(1)<\/b> \u2014 the ground is that the officer has 'knowingly given incorrect, incomplete or misleading information.' The mental element is express, so an innocent error is not by itself penal, though it may still found a complaint under <b>Section 18(1)(e)<\/b> by a person who 'believes that he or she has been given incomplete, misleading or false information.' The overarching requirement that the act be 'without any reasonable cause' also continues to apply.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5052,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"All of the following are grounds on which a Public Information Officer may be penalised EXCEPT:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"obstructing in any manner the furnishing of the information\",\r\n      \"destroying information which was the subject of the request\",\r\n      \"refusing information on a ground of exemption which is found to be applicable\",\r\n      \"refusing to receive an application for information\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"The three other options are drawn verbatim from <b>Section 20(1)<\/b>. A refusal founded on an exemption which is in fact applicable is a refusal with reasonable cause, and the sub-section operates only where the officer has acted 'without any reasonable cause'. The correctness of the refusal is tested in appeal, where under <b>Section 19(5)<\/b> the officer bears the onus of proving that the denial was justified.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5053,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. The penalty under the Act is imposed on the Public Information Officer personally.\\n2. Compensation for loss or detriment is required to be paid by the public authority.\\n3. Both the penalty and the compensation may be ordered in the course of deciding the same appeal.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 20(1)<\/b> directs the penalty against the officer; <b>Section 19(8)(b)<\/b> requires the public authority to compensate the complainant; and <b>Section 19(8)(c)<\/b> expressly empowers the Commission, in its decision, to 'impose any of the penalties provided under this Act.' All three heads of relief may therefore be worked out in a single decision under Section 19(8).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5054,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the powers of the Information Commissions:\\n1. They may examine any record to which the Act applies which is under the control of the public authority.\\n2. They may require a public authority to enhance the provision of training on the right to information for its officials.\\n3. They may direct the appropriate Government to frame rules on a specified subject.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 18(4)<\/b> supports Statement 1 and <b>Section 19(8)(a)(v)<\/b> supports Statement 2. Statement 3 finds no support: the rule-making power under <b>Section 27<\/b> belongs to the appropriate Government and under <b>Section 28<\/b> to the competent authority, and no provision empowers a Commission to direct its exercise. The Commission's remedial powers under Section 19(8) run against the public authority, not against the Government in its legislative capacity.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5055,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding proceedings before an Information Commission:\\n1. In deciding a complaint, it may impose a penalty on the Public Information Officer.\\n2. In deciding an appeal, it may reject the application.\\n3. Its decision is required to be given effect to notwithstanding any right of appeal.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 20(1)<\/b> permits the penalty to be imposed 'at the time of deciding any complaint or appeal', which supports Statement 1, and <b>Section 19(8)(d)<\/b> expressly permits the Commission to 'reject the application'. Statement 3 overstates <b>Section 19(7)<\/b> and <b>Section 19(9)<\/b> read together: the decision is binding, but the sub-section requires notice of the decision 'including any right of appeal' to be given, which presupposes that the remedy may be pursued.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5056,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding a complaint and a second appeal:\\n1. A complaint may be made by any person, whereas a second appeal lies against a decision on a first appeal.\\n2. No period of limitation is prescribed by the Act for making a complaint.\\n3. A second appeal must be preferred within ninety days.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 18(1)<\/b> speaks of 'a complaint from any person' and prescribes no limitation, while <b>Section 19(3)<\/b> provides that 'a second appeal against the decision under sub-section (1) shall lie within ninety days'. All three statements are therefore accurate. The absence of a limitation period for complaints, contrasted with the express periods in Section 19, is a frequently tested distinction.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5057,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. A penalty may be imposed where information has not been furnished within the time specified under sub-section (1) of Section 7.\\n2. The penalty may be imposed where the officer has obstructed in any manner the furnishing of the information.\\n3. The penalty may be imposed where the officer has sought the assistance of another officer under sub-section (4) of Section 5.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"Statements 1 and 2 are drawn from <b>Section 20(1)<\/b>. Statement 3 misreads <b>Section 5(4)<\/b>, which positively permits a Public Information Officer to 'seek the assistance of any other officer as he or she considers it necessary for the proper discharge of his or her duties.' Under <b>Section 5(5)<\/b> it is the officer whose assistance is sought, and who fails to render it, who becomes exposed to liability by being treated as a Public Information Officer.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5058,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 5: Powers and Functions of the Information Commissions, Appeal and Penalties\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following periods prescribed under the Act:\\n1. Time for preferring a first appeal.\\n2. Time for a third party to appeal against an order to disclose third party information.\\n3. Maximum time for disposal of a first appeal.\\n4. Time for preferring a second appeal.\\n\\nArrange the above in ascending order of duration:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1-2-3-4\",\r\n      \"3-1-2-4\",\r\n      \"1-3-2-4\",\r\n      \"2-3-1-4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(1)<\/b> and <b>Section 19(2)<\/b> both prescribe thirty days, for the first appeal and for the third party appeal respectively; <b>Section 19(6)<\/b> permits disposal within an extended period 'not exceeding a total of forty-five days from the date of filing'; and <b>Section 19(3)<\/b> prescribes ninety days for the second appeal. The order is therefore 30, 30, 45 and 90 days.\"\r\n  },\r\n\r\n  \/* ------------------------------------------------------------------------\r\n     CHAPTER VI \u2014 Miscellaneous (Ss. 21-31 and both Schedules)\r\n     87 questions   |   ids 6001 - 6087\r\n     --------------------------------------------------------------------- *\/\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6001,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"The protection against legal proceedings under the Act extends to anything which is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"done under the Act, whether in good faith or otherwise\",\r\n      \"done in good faith under the Act, but not to anything merely intended to be done\",\r\n      \"in good faith done or intended to be done under the Act or any rule made thereunder\",\r\n      \"done by a Public Information Officer alone, and not by any other person\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 21<\/b> \u2014 'No suit, prosecution or other legal proceeding shall lie against any person for anything which is in good faith done or intended to be done under this Act or any rule made thereunder.' Three features are notable: the protection is available to 'any person', it covers acts merely intended to be done, and it extends to rules as well as to the Act. Good faith is the indispensable qualifier.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6002,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the protection of action taken in good faith:\\n1. It bars any suit, prosecution or other legal proceeding.\\n2. It is available to any person and not merely to officers of a public authority.\\n3. It covers acts done under the rules made under the Act as well as under the Act itself.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 21<\/b> supports all three \u2014 'No suit, prosecution or other legal proceeding shall lie against any person for anything which is in good faith done or intended to be done under this Act or any rule made thereunder.' A statement of this protection which omits the words 'in good faith' misstates the section, and is a classic distractor set in previous-year papers.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6003,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following over which the provisions of the Act have overriding effect:\\n1. The Official Secrets Act, 1923.\\n2. Any other law for the time being in force.\\n3. Any instrument having effect by virtue of any law other than the Act.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"All three\",\r\n      \"None\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 22<\/b> \u2014 'The provisions of this Act shall have effect notwithstanding anything inconsistent therewith contained in the Official Secrets Act, 1923, and any other law for the time being in force or in any instrument having effect by virtue of any law other than this Act.' All three categories are expressly named, the third being the widest, covering documents such as contracts, rules and orders which derive their force from some other law.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6004,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"The overriding effect given to the Act operates in respect of provisions which are:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"inconsistent with the Act\",\r\n      \"later in point of time than the Act\",\r\n      \"of a general nature only\",\r\n      \"contained in Central legislation only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 22<\/b> gives the Act effect 'notwithstanding anything inconsistent therewith' contained in the specified sources. The trigger is inconsistency, not chronology, generality, or the Central or State character of the competing law. Where there is no inconsistency, the other law continues to operate alongside the Act.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6005,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. The Act has effect notwithstanding anything inconsistent contained in the Official Secrets Act, 1923.\\n2. A public authority may allow access to information if public interest in disclosure outweighs the harm to the protected interests, notwithstanding that Act.\\n3. Annual Confidential Reports have been held to be protected as confidential documents by reference to that Act.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 22<\/b> supports Statement 1 and <b>Section 8(2)<\/b> supports Statement 2 \u2014 'Notwithstanding anything in the Official Secrets Act, 1923 nor any of the exemptions permissible in accordance with sub-section (1), a public authority may allow access to information, if public interest in disclosure outweighs the harm to the protected interests.' The Government of India's Decision on Annual Confidential Reports supports Statement 3, noting that 'the Official Secrets Act, 1923 is not completely superseded by the Right to Information Act.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6006,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the bar of jurisdiction of courts:\\n1. No court shall entertain any suit, application or other proceeding in respect of any order made under the Act.\\n2. No order made under the Act shall be called in question otherwise than by way of an appeal under the Act.\\n3. The bar extends to the writ jurisdiction of the High Courts and the Supreme Court.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 23<\/b> supports Statements 1 and 2 in terms. Statement 3 overstates the section: a statutory bar cannot oust the constitutional jurisdiction conferred by Articles 226 and 32, and orders under the Act therefore remain amenable to judicial review by writ. Previous-year papers have repeatedly treated the blanket proposition that no order may be questioned before any High Court as incorrect.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6007,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"An applicant aggrieved by the refusal of information by a public authority:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"may institute a suit in a civil court of competent jurisdiction\",\r\n      \"may move the Information Commission only after obtaining leave of the civil court\",\r\n      \"must pursue the appellate remedy provided by the Act\",\r\n      \"may apply to the appropriate Government for a direction to the public authority\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 23<\/b> bars any suit, application or other proceeding before a court in respect of an order made under the Act, and provides that no such order shall be called in question 'otherwise than by way of an appeal under this Act.' The remedy therefore lies in the two-tier mechanism of <b>Section 19<\/b> \u2014 a first appeal to an officer senior in rank to the Public Information Officer, and a second appeal to the Information Commission.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6008,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the exclusion of certain organisations from the operation of the Act:\\n1. The exclusion covers the intelligence and security organisations specified in the Second Schedule which have been established by the Central Government.\\n2. It also covers any information furnished by such organisations to that Government.\\n3. It covers all information held by any organisation engaged in security duties, whether or not specified in the Second Schedule.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 24(1)<\/b> \u2014 'Nothing contained in this Act shall apply to the intelligence and security organizations specified in the Second Schedule, being organizations established by the Central Government or any information furnished by such organizations to that Government.' Specification in the Second Schedule is therefore indispensable; the nature of an organisation's duties, by itself, confers no exclusion.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6009,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding information which is not excluded even in the case of organisations specified in the Second Schedule:\\n1. Information pertaining to allegations of corruption.\\n2. Information pertaining to allegations of human rights violations.\\n3. Information relating to the recruitment and promotion of the employees of such organisations.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"First proviso to <b>Section 24(1)<\/b> \u2014 'Provided that the information pertaining to the allegations of corruption and human rights violations shall not be excluded under this sub-section.' Only these two subjects are carved out. Service matters such as recruitment and promotion enjoy no such exception in the case of an excluded organisation, though for other public authorities the Committee of experts recommended that such information be placed in the public domain promptly.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6010,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding information sought in respect of allegations of violation of human rights from an organisation specified in the Second Schedule:\\n1. It shall be provided only after the approval of the Central Information Commission.\\n2. It shall be provided within forty-five days from the date of the receipt of the request.\\n3. This period operates notwithstanding anything contained in Section 7.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"Second proviso to <b>Section 24(1)<\/b> \u2014 'in the case of information sought for is in respect of allegations of violation of human rights, the information shall only be provided after the approval of the Central Information Commission, and notwithstanding anything contained in Section 7, such information shall be provided within forty-five days from the date of the receipt of request.' Note that no such approval or extended period is prescribed for corruption-related information.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6011,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. Information relating to allegations of corruption in an organisation specified in the Second Schedule requires the approval of the Information Commission before it is provided.\\n2. Information relating to allegations of human rights violations in such an organisation requires such approval.\\n3. In the latter case, the information is to be provided within forty-five days.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"The second proviso to <b>Section 24(1)<\/b> confines the requirement of prior approval, and the special period of forty-five days, to information 'in respect of allegations of violation of human rights'. Corruption-related information is taken out of the exclusion by the first proviso, but no approval mechanism or extended period is prescribed for it, so Statement 1 is incorrect and Statements 2 and 3 are correct.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6012,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"The power to amend the Second Schedule by including or omitting an intelligence or security organisation established by the Central Government is exercisable by:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Parliament, by an amending Act\",\r\n      \"the Central Information Commission, by order\",\r\n      \"the Central Government, by notification in the Official Gazette\",\r\n      \"the Cabinet Committee on Security, by resolution\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 24(2)<\/b> \u2014 'The Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, amend the Schedule by including therein any other intelligence or security organization established by that Government or omitting therefrom any organization already specified therein and on the publication of such notification, such organization shall be deemed to be included in or, as the case may be, omitted from the Schedule.' The change takes effect on publication.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6013,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding notifications relating to excluded organisations:\\n1. A notification amending the Second Schedule is required to be laid before each House of Parliament.\\n2. A notification by a State Government specifying its own intelligence and security organisations is required to be laid before the State Legislature.\\n3. Such notifications take effect only after they have been approved by resolution of the House concerned.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 24(3)<\/b> requires every notification under Section 24(2) to be laid before each House of Parliament, and <b>Section 24(5)<\/b> requires every notification under Section 24(4) to be laid before the State Legislature. Neither sub-section conditions the operation of the notification on an affirmative resolution: under Section 24(2) the organisation is deemed included or omitted 'on the publication of such notification.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6014,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"In relation to intelligence and security organisations established by a State Government, the Act does not apply to such organisations as:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"are specified in the Second Schedule\",\r\n      \"the State Information Commission may recommend for exclusion\",\r\n      \"the State Government may, from time to time, by notification in the Official Gazette, specify\",\r\n      \"the Central Government may notify on the request of the State Government\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 24(4)<\/b> \u2014 'Nothing contained in this Act shall apply to such intelligence and security organization being organizations established by the State Government, as that Government may, from time to time, by notification in the Official Gazette, specify.' The Second Schedule lists only organisations established by the Central Government; State organisations are excluded by State notification, which must be laid before the State Legislature under Section 24(5).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6015,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding an intelligence organisation established by a State Government and duly notified:\\n1. Information pertaining to allegations of corruption shall not be excluded.\\n2. Information in respect of allegations of violation of human rights shall be provided only after the approval of the State Information Commission.\\n3. Such human rights information shall be provided within forty-five days from the date of receipt of the request.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"The two provisos to <b>Section 24(4)<\/b> reproduce, for State organisations, the scheme applicable to Central organisations under Section 24(1), with the substitution of the State Information Commission for the Central Information Commission. The forty-five day period again operates 'notwithstanding anything contained in Section 7', displacing the ordinary period of thirty days.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6016,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:\\n\\nList-I\\nA. Power of the Central Government to amend the Second Schedule\\nB. Laying of a notification amending the Second Schedule before each House of Parliament\\nC. Exclusion of intelligence organisations established by a State Government\\nD. Laying of a State notification before the State Legislature\\n\\nList-II\\n1. Section 24(2)\\n2. Section 24(3)\\n3. Section 24(4)\\n4. Section 24(5)\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3\",\r\n      \"A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 24<\/b> is arranged in this sequence \u2014 sub-section (2) confers the amending power on the Central Government, sub-section (3) requires the notification to be laid before each House of Parliament, sub-section (4) empowers a State Government to notify its own intelligence and security organisations, and sub-section (5) requires that notification to be laid before the State Legislature.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6017,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. The exclusion of intelligence and security organisations operates by reference to a Schedule to the Act.\\n2. The relevant Schedule is the Second Schedule.\\n3. The First Schedule contains the form of oath or affirmation for the Information Commissioners.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 24(1)<\/b> read with the <b>Second Schedule<\/b>, which is headed 'Intelligence and security organization established by the Central Government' and carries the marginal reference '[See Section 24]', supports Statements 1 and 2. The <b>First Schedule<\/b>, referable to Sections 13(3) and 16(3), sets out the form of oath or affirmation. The Act has exactly two Schedules.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6018,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following organisations:\\n1. Intelligence Bureau.\\n2. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence.\\n3. Central Bureau of Investigation.\\n4. Central Vigilance Commission.\\n\\nHow many of the above are specified in the Second Schedule?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"The <b>Second Schedule<\/b> lists the Intelligence Bureau at entry 1, the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence at entry 3 and the Central Bureau of Investigation at entry 23. The Central Vigilance Commission is not listed and remains a public authority fully subject to the Act \u2014 indeed, the Government of India's Decision on official tours refers separately to the Chief Vigilance Officers of public authorities.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6019,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"The Aviation Research Centre is specified in the Second Schedule as the technical wing of:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the Intelligence Bureau\",\r\n      \"the Research and Analysis Wing of the Cabinet Secretariat\",\r\n      \"the National Technical Research Organization\",\r\n      \"the Defence Research and Development Organization\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"Entry 2 of the <b>Second Schedule<\/b> reads 'Research and Analysis Wing including its technical wing namely, the Aviation Research Centre of the Cabinet Secretariat.' The Special Frontier Force of the Cabinet Secretariat is separately listed at entry 8, while the National Technical Research Organization and the Defence Research and Development Organization appear at entries 17 and 20 respectively.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6020,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following armed forces of the Union:\\n1. Border Security Force.\\n2. Central Industrial Security Force.\\n3. Sashastra Seema Bal.\\n4. Assam Rifles.\\n\\nHow many of the above are specified in the Second Schedule?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"All four\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"Only one\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"All four appear in the <b>Second Schedule<\/b> \u2014 the Border Security Force at entry 9, the Central Industrial Security Force at entry 12, Assam Rifles at entry 14 and Sashastra Seema Bal at entry 15. The Schedule also lists the Central Reserve Police Force, the Indo-Tibetan Border Police and the National Security Guards. Even for these forces, the provisos to Section 24 preserve access to corruption and human rights information.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6021,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following bodies:\\n1. Financial Intelligence Unit, India.\\n2. Special Protection Group.\\n3. National Intelligence Grid.\\n4. National Human Rights Commission.\\n\\nHow many of the above are specified in the Second Schedule?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"The <b>Second Schedule<\/b> lists the Financial Intelligence Unit, India at entry 18, the Special Protection Group at entry 19 and the National Intelligence Grid at entry 25. The National Human Rights Commission is not listed; it is a public authority within <b>Section 2(h)<\/b>, being a body established by law made by Parliament, and remains fully subject to the Act.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6022,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following is NOT specified in the Second Schedule?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Narcotics Control Bureau\",\r\n      \"Directorate of Enforcement\",\r\n      \"Comptroller and Auditor General of India\",\r\n      \"National Investigation Agency\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"The <b>Second Schedule<\/b> lists the Narcotics Control Bureau at entry 6, the Directorate of Enforcement at entry 5 and the National Investigation Agency at entry 24. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is a constitutional authority and a public authority under <b>Section 2(h)<\/b>; indeed, Para 1.5.1 of the Guidelines on suo motu disclosure requires public authorities to disclose CAG paragraphs once they have been laid before both Houses of Parliament.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6023,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. Directorate General of Income Tax (Investigation) is specified in the Second Schedule.\\n2. Border Road Development Board is specified in the Second Schedule.\\n3. Strategic Forces Command is specified in the Second Schedule.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"The <b>Second Schedule<\/b> lists the Directorate General of Income Tax (Investigation) at entry 16, the Border Road Development Board at entry 21 and the Strategic Forces Command at entry 26. Entries 22 and 23 are the National Security Council Secretariat and the Central Bureau of Investigation. Entry 7 stands omitted.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6024,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the operation of the Act in relation to excluded organisations:\\n1. An organisation may be added to the Second Schedule without any amendment of the Act.\\n2. An organisation already specified may be omitted from the Second Schedule in the same manner.\\n3. One of the entries in the Second Schedule presently stands omitted.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 24(2)<\/b> permits the Central Government, by notification, to amend the Schedule 'by including therein any other intelligence or security organization established by that Government or omitting therefrom any organization already specified therein', which supports Statements 1 and 2. Statement 3 is borne out by the text of the <b>Second Schedule<\/b> itself, in which entry 7 appears as 'Omitted.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6025,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"The report on the implementation of the provisions of the Act during a year is required to be prepared by:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the appropriate Government\",\r\n      \"each Ministry or Department in respect of the public authorities within its jurisdiction\",\r\n      \"the Central or State Information Commission, as the case may be\",\r\n      \"the nodal officer appointed by each public authority\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 25(1)<\/b> \u2014 'The Central Information Commission or State Information Commission, as the case may be, shall, as soon as practicable after the end of each year, prepare a report on the implementation of the provisions of this Act during that year and forward a copy thereof to the appropriate Government.' Ministries and Departments have the different duty, under Section 25(2), of collecting and providing the information required for the report.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6026,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding monitoring and reporting under the Act:\\n1. The report is to be prepared as soon as practicable after the end of each year.\\n2. A copy of the report is to be forwarded to the appropriate Government.\\n3. Each Ministry or Department is to collect and provide the information required for the report in relation to the public authorities within its jurisdiction.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Sections 25(1) and 25(2)<\/b> support all three. Section 25(2) further requires each Ministry or Department to 'comply with the requirements concerning the furnishing of that information and keeping of records for the purposes of this section', so the duty extends beyond collection to the maintenance of records that make the report possible.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6027,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following particulars which the annual report is required to state in respect of the year to which it relates:\\n1. The number of requests made to each public authority.\\n2. The number of decisions where applicants were not entitled to access, the provisions under which those decisions were made, and the number of times such provisions were invoked.\\n3. The number of appeals referred to the Information Commission for review, the nature of the appeals and their outcome.\\n4. The amount of charges collected by each public authority.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 25(3)(a), (b), (c) and (e)<\/b> reproduce these four particulars. The remaining items are clause (d), 'particulars of any disciplinary action taken against any officer in respect of the administration of this Act'; clause (f), facts indicating an effort by public authorities to administer and implement the spirit and intention of the Act; and clause (g), recommendations for reform.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6028,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"The annual report is required to state particulars of any disciplinary action taken against any officer in respect of:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the administration of the Act\",\r\n      \"any breach of the service rules applicable to him\",\r\n      \"any matter reported by the Comptroller and Auditor General\",\r\n      \"any complaint received from a member of the public\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 25(3)(d)<\/b> \u2014 the report shall state 'particulars of any disciplinary action taken against any officer in respect of the administration of this Act.' The nexus with the administration of the Act is essential; general disciplinary matters fall outside the reporting requirement. The provision links back to <b>Section 20(2)<\/b>, under which the Commission recommends disciplinary action for persistent default.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6029,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following which the annual report is required to state:\\n1. Any facts which indicate an effort by the public authorities to administer and implement the spirit and intention of the Act.\\n2. Recommendations for reform, including recommendations in respect of particular public authorities.\\n3. The names of the Public Information Officers penalised during the year.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 25(3)(f) and (g)<\/b> support Statements 1 and 2, the latter extending to recommendations 'for the development, improvement, modernization, reform or amendment to this Act or other legislation or common law or any other matter relevant for operationalizing the right to access information.' Clause (d) requires only 'particulars of any disciplinary action', not the names of penalised officers, so Statement 3 is incorrect.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6030,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"A copy of the report of the Information Commission is required to be laid before Parliament or the State Legislature, as the case may be, by:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the Information Commission itself\",\r\n      \"the Central Government or the State Government, as the case may be\",\r\n      \"the Ministry or Department administratively concerned\",\r\n      \"the Speaker or the Chairman of the House concerned\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 25(4)<\/b> \u2014 'The Central Government or the State Government, as the case may be, may, as soon as practicable after the end of each year, cause a copy of the report of the Central Information Commission or the State Information Commission... to be laid before each House of Parliament or, as the case may be, before each House of the State Legislature, where there are two Houses, and where there is one House of the State Legislature before that House.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6031,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the laying of the annual report:\\n1. It is laid before each House of Parliament in the case of the Central Information Commission.\\n2. Where a State Legislature has two Houses, it is laid before each House.\\n3. Where a State Legislature has one House, it is laid before that House.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 25(4)<\/b> provides for all three situations in a single sentence, distinguishing bicameral from unicameral State Legislatures. The corresponding obligation on public authorities is that of <b>Section 25(2)<\/b>, to supply the information required for the report, failing which the Report cannot be compiled or laid in time.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6032,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Where it appears to an Information Commission that the practice of a public authority in relation to the exercise of its functions does not conform with the provisions or spirit of the Act, the Commission may:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"impose a penalty on the head of that public authority\",\r\n      \"give to the authority a recommendation specifying the steps which ought in its opinion to be taken for promoting such conformity\",\r\n      \"direct the appropriate Government to withhold its budgetary allocation\",\r\n      \"declare the practice void with effect from the date of its adoption\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 25(5)<\/b> \u2014 'If it appears to the Central Information Commission or State Information Commission, as the case may be, that the practice of a public authority in relation to the exercise of its functions under this Act does not conform with the provisions or spirit of this Act, it may give to the authority a recommendation specifying the steps which ought in its opinion to be taken for promoting such conformity.' The power is recommendatory, unlike the binding decision under Section 19(7).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6033,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. A decision of an Information Commission in an appeal is binding.\\n2. A recommendation of an Information Commission regarding the practice of a public authority is binding.\\n3. A recommendation regarding practice may specify the steps which ought in the Commission's opinion to be taken.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(7)<\/b> makes a decision in an appeal binding, and <b>Section 25(5)<\/b> permits a recommendation specifying the steps for promoting conformity. Statement 2 confuses the two: Section 25(5) uses the word 'recommendation' and confers no binding force. The distinction between a binding decision and a recommendation runs through the Act, and reappears in <b>Section 20(2)<\/b>, where the Commission recommends disciplinary action rather than imposing it.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6034,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"The web-based system developed for uploading the annual return by public authorities is known as:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the RTI Management Information System\",\r\n      \"the RTI Annual Report Information System\",\r\n      \"the RTI Online Portal\",\r\n      \"the Central Public Procurement Portal\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"The Government of India's Decision under <b>Section 25<\/b> \u2014 'The Central Information Commission has developed a web-based system through which the public authorities may upload the Annual Return on the website of the Commission direct. The software developed by the Commission is known as the RTI Annual Report Information System which is accessible on the website www.cic.gov.in.' The RTI Online portal, by contrast, is the facility for filing applications and appeals online.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6035,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"The information for the annual return is required to be posted on the system developed by the Commission:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"on a monthly basis\",\r\n      \"on a quarterly basis\",\r\n      \"on a half-yearly basis\",\r\n      \"once at the end of the financial year\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"The Government of India's Decision under <b>Section 25<\/b> \u2014 'The information has to be posted on quarterly basis.' The same Decision requires Ministries and Departments to ensure that 'the quarterly returns of all public authorities under their jurisdiction is uploaded on the Annual Report Information System... in time every year', the final return being due by a separate date.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6036,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"The final return for a year is required to be uploaded on the Annual Report Information System latest by:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the 31st March of the same financial year\",\r\n      \"the 15th April of the subsequent financial year\",\r\n      \"the 30th June of the subsequent financial year\",\r\n      \"the 12th October of the subsequent financial year\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"The Government of India's Decision under <b>Section 25<\/b> \u2014 'The final return for the year should be uploaded latest by the 15th April of the subsequent financial year.' The date of 30th June was a one-time extension, the Decision providing that 'the public authorities who have not uploaded their final returns in respect of the year 2010-11 may upload the same on the website latest by 30th June, 2011.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6037,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following consequences of public authorities not uploading the annual return in time:\\n1. Delay in the preparation of the Annual Report.\\n2. Consequential delay in laying the Report before the Houses of Parliament.\\n3. Automatic imposition of a penalty on the Public Information Officer concerned.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"The Government of India's Decision under <b>Section 25<\/b> records that failure to upload in time 'results in the delay of the preparation of the Annual Report and consequently in laying the Report before the Houses of the Parliament.' No automatic penalty follows: the penalty under <b>Section 20(1)<\/b> is confined to the enumerated defaults of a Public Information Officer in dealing with a request for information.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6038,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"The non-inclusion of complete information in the Annual Report was traced to the failure of some Ministries and Departments to:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"designate Public Information Officers in all administrative units\",\r\n      \"register all the public authorities under their jurisdiction with the Central Information Commission\",\r\n      \"appoint Nodal Officers of the rank of Joint Secretary\",\r\n      \"publish their proactive disclosure package on their websites\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"The Government of India's Decision under <b>Section 25<\/b>, Para 4 \u2014 'some Ministries \/ Departments have not registered all the public authorities under their jurisdiction with the Central Information Commission. It results into non-inclusion of the complete information in the Annual Report.' Ministries were accordingly requested to ensure both registration and regular posting of the requisite information on the Commission's website.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6039,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following programmes which the appropriate Government may develop or organise, to the extent of availability of financial and other resources:\\n1. Educational programmes to advance the understanding of the public, in particular of disadvantaged communities, as to how to exercise the rights contemplated under the Act.\\n2. Encouragement to public authorities to participate in and themselves undertake such programmes.\\n3. Promotion of timely and effective dissemination of accurate information by public authorities about their activities.\\n4. Training of Public Information Officers and production of relevant training materials.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 26(1)(a) to (d)<\/b> enumerate exactly these four measures. The opening words of the sub-section are important \u2014 the appropriate Government may act 'to the extent of availability of financial and other resources', which qualifies the whole of the sub-section. Clause (a) singles out disadvantaged communities for particular attention.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6040,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"The guide to be compiled by the appropriate Government is required to be compiled:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"within twelve months from the commencement of the Act, in English and Hindi\",\r\n      \"within eighteen months from the commencement of the Act, in its official language\",\r\n      \"within two years from the commencement of the Act, in the language of the applicant's choice\",\r\n      \"within one hundred and twenty days from the commencement of the Act, in the official language of the area\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 26(2)<\/b> \u2014 'The appropriate Government shall, within eighteen months from the commencement of this Act, compile in its official language a guide containing such information, in an easily comprehensible form and manner, as may reasonably be required by a person who wishes to exercise any right specified in this Act.' Two elements are commonly tested: the period of eighteen months and the requirement of the official language of that Government.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6041,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following which the guidelines compiled by the appropriate Government are required to include:\\n1. The objects of the Act.\\n2. The postal and street address, the phone and fax number and, if available, the electronic mail address of the Public Information Officer of every public authority.\\n3. The manner and the form in which a request for access to information shall be made.\\n4. The assistance available from and the duties of the Public Information Officer.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 26(3)(a) to (d)<\/b> reproduce these four items, clause (b) referring specifically to Public Information Officers 'appointed under sub-section (1) of Section 5'. The remaining clauses cover assistance available from the Commission, all remedies in law including the manner of filing an appeal, the provisions for voluntary disclosure under Section 4, the notices regarding fees, and any additional regulations or circulars.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6042,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following which the guidelines compiled by the appropriate Government are required to include:\\n1. All remedies in law available regarding an act or failure to act in respect of a right or duty conferred or imposed by the Act, including the manner of filing an appeal to the Commission.\\n2. The provisions providing for the voluntary disclosure of categories of records in accordance with Section 4.\\n3. The notices regarding fees to be paid in relation to requests for access to information.\\n4. The list of intelligence and security organisations excluded from the operation of the Act.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 26(3)(f), (g) and (h)<\/b> support the first three items. The Second Schedule is not among the matters listed in Section 26(3); the residuary clause (i) covers only 'any additional regulations or circulars made or issued in relation to obtaining access to an information in accordance with this Act.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6043,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"The guidelines compiled by the appropriate Government are required to be:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"published once and thereafter revised only on the direction of the Information Commission\",\r\n      \"updated and published at regular intervals\",\r\n      \"revised at the end of every financial year without exception\",\r\n      \"revised once in every five years\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 26(4)<\/b> \u2014 'The appropriate Government must, if necessary, update and publish the guidelines at regular intervals.' The obligation is worded in the same terms as <b>Section 26(3)<\/b>, which requires the Government to 'update and publish the guidelines referred to in sub-section (2) at regular intervals'. No fixed periodicity is prescribed, the standard being regularity.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6044,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the guide to be compiled under the Act:\\n1. It is to be in an easily comprehensible form and manner.\\n2. It is to contain such information as may reasonably be required by a person who wishes to exercise any right specified in the Act.\\n3. Its contents are to be settled by the Central Information Commission.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 26(2)<\/b> supports Statements 1 and 2. Statement 3 is incorrect: the obligation to compile, update and publish the guide rests on the appropriate Government under Sections 26(2) to 26(4), and the minimum contents are laid down by <b>Section 26(3)<\/b> itself, not by the Commission.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6045,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"The involvement of Non-Governmental Organizations in spreading awareness about the Act was recommended principally because they:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"are entitled to receive information free of charge\",\r\n      \"are in close contact with the public and may play an important role in disseminating knowledge about the use of the Act\",\r\n      \"are themselves public authorities in every case\",\r\n      \"are required to be trained by the Administrative Training Institutes\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"The Government of India's Decision (1) under <b>Section 26<\/b> \u2014 the duty cast by Section 26(1)(a) 'is a gigantic task which requires involvement of various sections of society. Non-Governmental Organizations are providing various types of services to the people and creating awareness amongst them. They are in close contact with the public and may play an important role in disseminating knowledge about the use of the Right to Information Act.' Only NGOs substantially financed by Government are public authorities under Section 2(h).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6046,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"The Centrally Sponsored Scheme titled 'Improving Transparency and Accountability in Government through effective Implementation of Right to Information Act' was launched in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"October 2005\",\r\n      \"August 2010\",\r\n      \"July 2013\",\r\n      \"August 2014\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"The Government of India's Decision (2) under <b>Section 26<\/b> \u2014 'Under the XI five year plan, a centrally sponsored scheme titled Improving Transparency and Accountability in Government through effective Implementation of Right to Information Act was launched in August, 2010.' The guidelines for release of funds were issued by O.M. dated 16-8-2010 and revised on 18th July 2013 and 22nd August 2014.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6047,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the Centrally Sponsored Scheme on effective implementation of the Act:\\n1. It was launched under the Eleventh Five Year Plan.\\n2. Guidelines for release of funds to State Information Commissions and Administrative Training Institutes were first issued in 2010.\\n3. The two components for which those guidelines were issued were awareness generation and capacity building.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"The Government of India's Decision (2) under <b>Section 26<\/b>, Para 1.0 \u2014 the scheme was launched under the XI Five Year Plan in August 2010, and 'Guidelines for release of funds to SICs and ATIs for two components of the scheme namely awareness generation and capacity building were issued vide O.M. No. 1\/6\/2010-IR, dated 16-8-2010.' Those guidelines were subsequently revised in 2013 and 2014.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6048,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"For the celebration of RTI Week, financial assistance is provided to each State Information Commission to the extent of:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"up to Rs. 1.00 lakh\",\r\n      \"up to Rs. 2.00 lakhs\",\r\n      \"up to Rs. 3.00 lakhs\",\r\n      \"up to Rs. 4.00 lakhs\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"Para 2.0(i) of the Guidelines under <b>Section 26<\/b> \u2014 'RTI Week is celebrated every year during 5th - 12th October. SICs will be provided financial assistance of up to Rs. 3.00 lakhs each based on their proposal.' The figure of Rs. 4.00 lakhs belongs to innovative awareness generation programmes by Administrative Training Institutes under Para 2.0(ii), and to the first-year ceiling for helplines under Para 2.0(v).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6049,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following in relation to the assistance provided for RTI Week celebrations:\\n1. It may be used for conducting workshops, seminars, press-meets and competitions in colleges on RTI related themes.\\n2. It may be used for displaying hoardings for publicising the Act.\\n3. It may be used for expensive publicity through print and electronic media.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"Para 2.0(i) of the Guidelines under <b>Section 26<\/b> permits activities 'which may include conducting workshops, seminars, press-meets, competition in colleges on RTI related themes, etc.', and adds that 'Although expensive publicity through print \/ electronic media will not be supported, funds may be used for displaying hoardings, etc. for publicizing the RTI Act.' Statement 3 therefore reverses an express prohibition.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6050,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following activities for which Administrative Training Institutes may be given assistance of up to Rs. 4.00 lakhs each for innovative awareness generation:\\n1. Nukkad nataks and use of local folk troupes.\\n2. Development of publicity material in local languages.\\n3. Distance learning programmes and online certificate courses in regional languages.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"Para 2.0(ii) of the Guidelines under <b>Section 26<\/b> \u2014 'ATIs will be provided up to Rs. 4.00 lakhs each, based on their proposals, for innovative awareness generation activities which may include nukkad nataks, use of local folk troupes, development of publicity material in local languages, distance learning programmes, online certificate courses in regional languages, etc. for awareness generation regarding RTI.' All three examples are express.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6051,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"The assistance provided to an Administrative Training Institute for organising a workshop or seminar on RTI related themes is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Rs. 1.00 lakh per workshop or seminar\",\r\n      \"Rs. 2.00 lakhs per workshop or seminar\",\r\n      \"Rs. 3.00 lakhs per workshop or seminar\",\r\n      \"Rs. 4.00 lakhs per workshop or seminar\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"Para 2.0(iii) of the Guidelines under <b>Section 26<\/b> \u2014 'ATIs will be provided sum of Rs. 1.00 lakh per workshop \/ seminar organized on RTI related themes such as best practices and success stories on RTI, suo motu disclosure, etc., on the basis of a proposal.' The workshop 'may include Public Authorities of State Centre, media persons, Civil Society Organizations, etc.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6052,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the helplines to be set up in Administrative Training Institutes:\\n1. The maximum ceiling of assistance in the first year is Rs. 4,00,000 per annum.\\n2. The grants for subsequent years are restricted to Rs. 2,00,000 per annum.\\n3. Such helplines may be set up in collaboration with Non-Governmental Organizations working in the field of RTI.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"Para 2.0(v) of the Guidelines under <b>Section 26<\/b> supports all three. The first-year grant 'would include rental charges for a telephone line, computer system for data storage, salary for the person manning the helpline and stationery, etc.', while 'the grants for the subsequent years would be restricted to Rs. 2,00,000 per annum.' The helpline is to answer queries of the general public 'in the respective regional language.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6053,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"The model adopted for supporting the training of Public Information Officers and Appellate Authorities by Administrative Training Institutes is described as:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"a centralised model, all training being conducted at the Institute\",\r\n      \"a cascade model, the Institutes first training District Resource Persons who in turn train officers in the districts\",\r\n      \"a distance learning model conducted entirely online\",\r\n      \"a peer review model in which officers train one another without external facilitation\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"Para 3.0 of the Guidelines under <b>Section 26<\/b> \u2014 'State ATIs will be supported for undertaking training of SPIOs \/ CPIOs and AAs in a cascade model. In the first instance, ATIs will train District Resource Persons (DRPs) who will in turn train SPIOs\/CPIOs and AAs in the districts.' Selection of District Resource Persons is made by the Institutes themselves.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6054,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the training of District Resource Persons:\\n1. It is planned that three District Resource Persons per district will be trained in a year.\\n2. Financial assistance is provided up to Rs. 2,000 per participant per day for a residential course.\\n3. The duration of the course should be of minimum three days and at most five days.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"Para 3.0(i) of the Guidelines under <b>Section 26<\/b> supports all three \u2014 'It is planned that 3 DRPs per district will be trained in a year. Financial assistance would be provided for these trainings up to Rs. 2,000 per participant per day for a residential course. The duration of the course should be of minimum 3 days and at most 5 days.' The figure of Rs. 1,000 belongs to the district-level training of officers under Para 3.0(ii).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6055,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the training of Public Information Officers, Appellate Authorities and staff of State and Central Government offices:\\n1. The programmes are conducted at the district headquarters by District Resource Persons under the overall supervision of the Administrative Training Institutes.\\n2. Each course is non-residential and of two days' duration.\\n3. Financial assistance is provided up to Rs. 1,000 per participant per day.\\n4. The training programmes must also include a segment on record management.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"Para 3.0(ii) of the Guidelines under <b>Section 26<\/b> contains all four elements. The assistance of Rs. 1,000 per participant per day 'will cover all the incidental expenses involved in training such as on refreshments for the participants, honorarium to DRPs, hiring of audio visual equipment and other contingencies.' The mandatory segment on record management reflects the obligation in <b>Section 4(1)(a)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6056,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the training of Nodal Officers (RTI) of State public authorities:\\n1. The programmes are of one day's duration.\\n2. Each programme is to cover at least twenty-five Nodal Officers.\\n3. The programmes relate to the implementation of the guidelines on suo motu disclosures, particularly the implementation of templates for disclosures at various levels.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"Para 3.0(iii) of the Guidelines under <b>Section 26<\/b> \u2014 'ATIs can organize one day training programmes for at least 25 RTI nodal officers of public authorities in each programme regarding the implementation of DoP&T guidelines, dated the 21st November, 2013 on suo motu disclosures, particularly on implementation of templates for disclosures at various levels.' Assistance is up to Rs. 1,000 per participant per day.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6057,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"The additional assistance which an Administrative Training Institute may avail for preparation of training material and for meeting administrative contingencies is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"up to Rs. 1.0 lakh\",\r\n      \"up to Rs. 2.0 lakhs\",\r\n      \"up to Rs. 3.0 lakhs\",\r\n      \"up to Rs. 5.0 lakhs\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"Para 3.0(iv) of the Guidelines under <b>Section 26<\/b> \u2014 'ATIs may avail an additional assistance of up to Rs. 3.0 lakhs for preparation of training material and for meeting administrative contingencies based on their proposal and the training load.' The figure of Rs. 5 lakhs belongs to field based study or research under Para 6.0.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6058,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"In relation to the simplification of the process of filing applications, the role assigned to Administrative Training Institutes is that of:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"developing the software for online filing\",\r\n      \"acting as a catalyst in the implementation of the facility in the public authorities located in the State\",\r\n      \"receiving applications on behalf of the public authorities\",\r\n      \"auditing the applications filed through the online portal\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"Para 4.0 of the Guidelines under <b>Section 26<\/b> \u2014 the facility of filing applications and appeals online 'may be extended to the State Government offices by sharing with them the software developed by NIC (Headquarters), New Delhi. The ATIs may play the role of catalyst in the implementation of the facility in the Public Authorities located in the state.' The software is thus developed by the National Informatics Centre, not by the Institutes.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6059,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following forms of support available under the component relating to improved record management and suo motu disclosure:\\n1. Handholding of public authorities by Administrative Training Institutes where a State Government is willing to implement the suo motu disclosure guidelines.\\n2. Conduct of an audit of suo motu disclosure of public authorities by the Institutes themselves or through a Non-Governmental Organization or agency.\\n3. Direct payment of grants to individual public authorities for digitisation of their records.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"Para 5.0(i) and (ii) of the Guidelines under <b>Section 26<\/b> support Statements 1 and 2, funds being granted to the Institutes on the basis of their proposals. No provision is made for direct grants to individual public authorities for digitisation; Para 4.2 of the Guidelines on suo motu disclosure separately permits Ministries to use their own plan or non-plan funds for that purpose.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6060,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the funding of field based study or research on RTI:\\n1. Funds of up to Rs. 5 lakhs may be provided in each case.\\n2. Proposals are invited by the Administrative Training Institutes from Civil Society Organizations or individuals.\\n3. The final selection of proposals is made by the Administrative Training Institute concerned.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"Para 6.0 of the Guidelines under <b>Section 26<\/b> \u2014 'DoP&T would provide funds up to Rs. 5 Lakhs (in each case) for field based study \/ research on RTI. The ATIs may invite proposals... Proposals found suitable may be submitted to DoP&T for final selection.' The final selection therefore rests with the Department of Personnel and Training; the Institutes invite proposals, forward them, and provide mentoring for the study or research.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6061,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following terms of payment for research work funded under the scheme:\\n1. Twenty per cent of the approved amount on acceptance of the research proposal.\\n2. Sixty per cent of the approved amount on submission of the draft report.\\n3. Twenty per cent of the approved amount on acceptance of the final report.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"Para 6.0 of the Guidelines under <b>Section 26<\/b> sets out the terms of payment in exactly these three stages \u2014 20 per cent on acceptance of the research proposal, 60 per cent on submission of the draft report, and 20 per cent on acceptance of the final report. A statement putting the second instalment at fifty per cent is a standard distractor.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6062,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"The timeline prescribed for the research work funded under the scheme is that the draft report is to be submitted within:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"three months from the date of acceptance of the proposal, and the final report within a month thereafter\",\r\n      \"five months from the date of acceptance of the proposal, and the final report within a month from the submission of the draft report\",\r\n      \"six months from the date of acceptance of the proposal, and the final report within three months thereafter\",\r\n      \"one year from the date of acceptance of the proposal, the final report being due simultaneously\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"Para 6.0 of the Guidelines under <b>Section 26<\/b> \u2014 'Submission of draft report: 5 months from the date of acceptance of proposal. Submission of final report: Within a month from the date of submission of draft report.' The five-month period therefore governs the draft, not the final report \u2014 a point on which existing question banks have frequently gone wrong.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6063,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"The body which reviews the proposals of State Information Commissions and Administrative Training Institutes and sanctions assistance under the scheme is the:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Central Information Commission\",\r\n      \"Scheme Monitoring Committee\",\r\n      \"Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances\",\r\n      \"Task Force on suo motu disclosure\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"Para 7.0 of the Guidelines under <b>Section 26<\/b> \u2014 'SICs and ATIs are required to submit detailed proposals for seeking financial assistance... The proposal must include detailed cost estimates for various activities and the timelines for physical achievement. Scheme Monitoring Committee (SMC) will review the proposals and sanction assistance.' Funds are then released directly to the Institutes and the Commissions.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6064,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following conditions governing the release of financial assistance under the scheme:\\n1. Funds are released only if Utilisation Certificates for the earlier years have been received.\\n2. The Utilisation Certificates are to be in the GFR 19-A format.\\n3. Financial assistance is released in one instalment immediately upon sanction and receipt of the Utilisation Certificates and of financial and physical progress.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"Para 7.0 of the Guidelines under <b>Section 26<\/b> supports all three \u2014 release is conditional on receipt of Utilisation Certificates for the earlier years, those Certificates are to be 'in GFR 19-A format', and 'financial assistance would be released in one instalment immediately upon sanction, and receipt of UCs... receipt of financial and physical progress.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6065,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the proposals submitted for financial assistance under the scheme for the year 2015-16:\\n1. Complete proposals received by 21st July 2015 were to be processed and put up before the Scheme Monitoring Committee.\\n2. The first meeting of the Scheme Monitoring Committee was scheduled for the first week of August 2015.\\n3. Proposals were required to be submitted in a prescribed pro forma.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"Para 8.0 of the Guidelines under <b>Section 26<\/b> \u2014 'The first meeting of the SMC is scheduled for the first week of August, 2015. All complete proposals received in DoP&T by 21st July, 2015 will be processed and put up before SMC. SICs and ATIs are requested to submit their proposals in the prescribed pro forma as soon as possible.' The pro forma is annexed to the Guidelines.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6066,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the institutional framework described in the scheme guidelines:\\n1. Information Commissions have been set up and a large number of officers designated as Public Information Officers and Appellate Authorities.\\n2. The 'RTI Online' portal has been launched to facilitate online filing of applications with a facility for online payment of fees.\\n3. State Governments have been urged to issue guidelines on suo motu disclosure for the State public authorities.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"Para 1.0 of the Guidelines under <b>Section 26<\/b> records that 'elaborate institutional mechanism has been set up, including setting up of Information Commissions, designation of large number of officers as CPIOs \/ SPIOs and Appellate Authorities', that 'the portal RTI Online has also been launched to facilitate online filing of applications with facility for online payment of RTI fees', and that DoP&T 'has also urged State Governments to issue similar guidelines for the state public authorities.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6067,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"The power to make rules to carry out the provisions of the Act, by notification in the Official Gazette, is conferred upon:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the Central Government alone\",\r\n      \"the appropriate Government\",\r\n      \"the Central Information Commission\",\r\n      \"the Ministry administratively concerned with the public authority\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 27(1)<\/b> \u2014 'The appropriate Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, make rules to carry out the provisions of this Act.' The expression 'appropriate Government' is defined in <b>Section 2(a)<\/b> and covers the Central Government or the State Government according to the public authority concerned. A parallel power is conferred on the competent authority by <b>Section 28<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6068,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following matters for which rules may be made by the appropriate Government:\\n1. The cost of the medium or print cost price of the materials to be disseminated under sub-section (4) of Section 4.\\n2. The fee payable under sub-section (1) of Section 6.\\n3. The fee payable under sub-sections (1) and (5) of Section 7.\\n4. The procedure to be adopted by the Information Commission in deciding appeals.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 27(2)(a), (b), (c) and (e)<\/b> reproduce these four matters, clause (e) referring to the procedure 'in deciding the appeals under sub-section (10) of Section 19'. The enumeration is expressly 'without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing power' in Section 27(1), so it does not exhaust the rule-making power.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6069,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following matters in respect of which the appropriate Government may make rules:\\n1. The term of office of the Chief Information Commissioner and the Information Commissioners.\\n2. The salaries, allowances and other terms and conditions of service of the State Chief Information Commissioner and the State Information Commissioners.\\n3. The salaries and allowances payable to, and the terms and conditions of service of, the officers and other employees of the Commissions.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 27(2)(ca)<\/b> covers the term of office under Sections 13(1) and (2) and Sections 16(1) and (2); <b>clause (cb)<\/b> covers salaries, allowances and other terms and conditions of service under Sections 13(5) and 16(5); and <b>clause (d)<\/b> covers the officers and other employees under Sections 13(6) and 16(6). Clauses (ca) and (cb) were introduced when the terms of office and salaries ceased to be fixed by the Act itself.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6070,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"The rule-making power of the appropriate Government extends, besides the enumerated matters, to:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"any other matter which is required to be, or may be, prescribed\",\r\n      \"any matter on which the Information Commission makes a recommendation\",\r\n      \"any matter not expressly dealt with by the Act\",\r\n      \"any matter relating to the exemptions from disclosure\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 27(2)(f)<\/b> \u2014 'any other matter which is required to be, or may be, prescribed.' The residuary clause picks up every provision of the Act which uses the expression 'as may be prescribed'. It does not, however, permit rules that would cut down the exemptions in <b>Section 8<\/b>, which are fixed by the Act itself.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6071,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"The power to make rules by notification in the Official Gazette is conferred, apart from the appropriate Government, on:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the Central Information Commission\",\r\n      \"the Competent Authority\",\r\n      \"the head of each public authority\",\r\n      \"the Nodal Officer of each Ministry\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 28(1)<\/b> \u2014 'The Competent Authority may, by notification in the Official Gazette, make rules to carry out the provisions of this Act.' The expression 'competent authority' is defined in <b>Section 2(e)<\/b>, and covers the Speaker, the Chairman, the Chief Justice of India, the Chief Justice of a High Court, the President or Governor, and the Administrator appointed under Article 239.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6072,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following matters in respect of which the Competent Authority may make rules:\\n1. The cost of the medium or print cost price of the materials to be disseminated under sub-section (4) of Section 4.\\n2. The fee payable under sub-section (1) of Section 6.\\n3. The fee payable under sub-section (1) of Section 7.\\n4. The procedure to be adopted by the Information Commission in deciding appeals.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 28(2)(i), (ii) and (iii)<\/b> cover the first three matters. The rule-making power of the Competent Authority does not extend to the procedure of the Commission in deciding appeals, which belongs to the appropriate Government under <b>Section 27(2)(e)<\/b>. Note also that Section 28(2)(iii) refers only to the fee under Section 7(1), whereas Section 27(2)(c) covers the fee under both Sections 7(1) and 7(5).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6073,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements comparing the two rule-making powers under the Act:\\n1. Both the appropriate Government and the Competent Authority make rules by notification in the Official Gazette.\\n2. The rule-making power in respect of the term of office of the Information Commissioners belongs to the Competent Authority.\\n3. Both powers are expressed to be without prejudice to the generality of the general power to make rules.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Sections 27(1) and 28(1)<\/b> both provide for rules 'by notification in the Official Gazette', and <b>Sections 27(2) and 28(2)<\/b> both open with the words 'In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing power'. Statement 2 is incorrect: the term of office of the Commissioners is a matter for the appropriate Government under <b>Section 27(2)(ca)<\/b>, and finds no place in Section 28.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6074,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"A rule made by the Central Government under the Act is required to be laid before each House of Parliament for a total period of:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"fifteen days\",\r\n      \"thirty days\",\r\n      \"forty-five days\",\r\n      \"sixty days\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 29(1)<\/b> \u2014 every such rule 'shall be laid, as soon as may be after it is made, before each House of Parliament, while it is in session, for a total period of thirty days which may be comprised in one session or in two or more successive sessions.' The period is an aggregate one, and may therefore be made up across successive sessions.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6075,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the laying of rules made by the Central Government:\\n1. The period of thirty days may be comprised in one session or in two or more successive sessions.\\n2. Both Houses may agree in making a modification in the rule, or that the rule should not be made.\\n3. Any such modification or annulment operates without prejudice to the validity of anything previously done under that rule.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 29(1)<\/b> contains all three propositions. Where both Houses agree on a modification or on annulment before the expiry of the session immediately following, 'the rule shall thereafter have effect only in such modified form or be of no effect, as the case may be; so, however, that any such modification or annulment shall be without prejudice to the validity of anything previously done under that rule.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6076,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"A rule made under the Act by a State Government is required to be laid:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"before each House of Parliament\",\r\n      \"before the State Legislature\",\r\n      \"before the State Information Commission\",\r\n      \"before the Central Government for approval\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 29(2)<\/b> \u2014 'Every rule made under this Act by a State Government shall be laid, as soon as may be after it is notified, before the State Legislature.' Note the difference in the trigger: rules of the Central Government are laid 'as soon as may be after it is made', while State rules are laid 'as soon as may be after it is notified', and no period of thirty days is prescribed for the latter.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6077,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"An order for the removal of a difficulty arising in giving effect to the provisions of the Act may be made by:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"the appropriate Government, by notification in the Official Gazette\",\r\n      \"the Central Government, by order published in the Official Gazette\",\r\n      \"the Central Information Commission, by direction to the public authority\",\r\n      \"the competent authority, by rules made under the Act\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 30(1)<\/b> \u2014 'If any difficulty arises in giving effect to the provisions of this Act, the Central Government may, by order published in the Official Gazette, make such provisions not inconsistent with the provisions of this Act as appear to it to be necessary or expedient for removal of the difficulty.' The power belongs to the Central Government alone, and is exercised by order, not by rules.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6078,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the power to remove difficulties:\\n1. The provisions made must not be inconsistent with the provisions of the Act.\\n2. No such order may be made after the expiry of a period of two years from the date of the commencement of the Act.\\n3. Every order so made is to be laid before each House of Parliament.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 30(1)<\/b> permits only provisions 'not inconsistent with the provisions of this Act', and its proviso states that 'no such order shall be made after the expiry of a period of two years from the date of the commencement of this Act.' <b>Section 30(2)<\/b> requires every such order to be laid before each House of Parliament. A claim that no time limit is prescribed misstates the proviso.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6079,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"The outer limit for the exercise of the power to remove difficulties is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"one year from the date of the commencement of the Act\",\r\n      \"two years from the date of the commencement of the Act\",\r\n      \"five years from the date of the commencement of the Act\",\r\n      \"no limit is prescribed by the Act\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"Proviso to <b>Section 30(1)<\/b> \u2014 'Provided that no such order shall be made after the expiry of a period of two years from the date of the commencement of this Act.' Powers of this kind are conventionally limited in time so that they are used only to smooth the initial working of a statute and do not become a standing power of executive amendment.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6080,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"The enactment repealed by the Right to Information Act, 2005 is the:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Official Secrets Act, 1923\",\r\n      \"Freedom of Information Act, 2002\",\r\n      \"Public Records Act, 1993\",\r\n      \"Indian Evidence Act, 1872\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 31<\/b> \u2014 'The Freedom of Information Act, 2002 is hereby repealed.' The Official Secrets Act, 1923 is not repealed; it is only overridden to the extent of inconsistency by <b>Section 22<\/b>, and is expressly displaced for the purposes of the public interest override in <b>Section 8(2)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6081,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. The Freedom of Information Act, 2002 stands repealed by the Act.\\n2. The Official Secrets Act, 1923 stands repealed by the Act.\\n3. The provisions of the Act have effect notwithstanding anything inconsistent contained in the Official Secrets Act, 1923.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 31<\/b> supports Statement 1 and <b>Section 22<\/b> supports Statement 3. Statement 2 is incorrect, and the point has been expressly settled in the Government of India's Decision on Annual Confidential Reports, which records that 'the Official Secrets Act, 1923 is not completely superseded by the Right to Information Act.' Overriding effect and repeal are distinct legal concepts.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6082,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"The form of oath or affirmation to be made by the Chief Information Commissioner and the Information Commissioners is set out in the:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"First Schedule\",\r\n      \"Second Schedule\",\r\n      \"rules made by the Central Government\",\r\n      \"regulations framed by the Commission\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"The <b>First Schedule<\/b>, which carries the marginal reference '[See Sections 13 (3) and 16 (3)]', sets out the form of oath or affirmation for the Chief Information Commissioner, the Information Commissioner, the State Chief Information Commissioner and the State Information Commissioner. The Second Schedule, referable to Section 24, lists the excluded intelligence and security organisations.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6083,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following undertakings contained in the form of oath or affirmation prescribed for an Information Commissioner:\\n1. That he will bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India as by law established.\\n2. That he will uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India.\\n3. That he will perform the duties of his office without fear or favour, affection or ill-will.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"The <b>First Schedule<\/b> contains all three undertakings, the oath continuing that the maker will 'duly and faithfully and to the best of my ability, knowledge and judgment perform the duties of my office without fear or favour, affection or ill-will and that I will uphold the Constitution and the laws.' The maker may either swear in the name of God or solemnly affirm.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6084,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the Schedules to the Act:\\n1. The First Schedule is referable to the provisions dealing with the terms of office of the Commissioners.\\n2. The Second Schedule is referable to the provision under which the Act does not apply to certain organisations.\\n3. The Act contains three Schedules.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"Only Statement 2 is correct, the Second Schedule bearing the marginal reference '[See Section 24]'. Statement 1 misdescribes the First Schedule, whose marginal reference is to <b>Sections 13(3) and 16(3)<\/b> \u2014 the provisions requiring the oath or affirmation, not those fixing the term of office. Statement 3 is wrong because the Act has exactly two Schedules.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6085,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. No court shall entertain any suit, application or other proceeding in respect of any order made under the Act.\\n2. No suit, prosecution or other legal proceeding shall lie against any person for anything in good faith done or intended to be done under the Act.\\n3. The Act has effect notwithstanding anything inconsistent contained in any other law for the time being in force.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"The three statements reproduce <b>Sections 23, 21 and 22<\/b> respectively. Read together they form the protective core of Chapter VI \u2014 the bar of jurisdiction of courts, the immunity for good faith action, and the overriding effect of the Act. Each is frequently set as a distractor for the other, so the marginal headings are worth memorising in order.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6086,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:\\n\\nList-I\\nA. Protection of action taken in good faith\\nB. Act to have overriding effect\\nC. Bar of jurisdiction of courts\\nD. Power to remove difficulties\\n\\nList-II\\n1. Section 21\\n2. Section 22\\n3. Section 23\\n4. Section 30\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"Chapter VI is arranged in this order \u2014 <b>Section 21<\/b> protection of action taken in good faith, <b>Section 22<\/b> Act to have overriding effect, <b>Section 23<\/b> bar of jurisdiction of courts, <b>Section 24<\/b> Act not to apply to certain organisations, <b>Section 25<\/b> monitoring and reporting, <b>Section 26<\/b> appropriate Government to prepare programmes, <b>Sections 27 to 29<\/b> rules, <b>Section 30<\/b> power to remove difficulties and <b>Section 31<\/b> repeal.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6087,\r\n    chapter: \"Ch 6: Miscellaneous\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. The report of the Information Commission on the implementation of the Act is prepared annually.\\n2. The information for the annual return is posted by public authorities on a quarterly basis.\\n3. The Citizens Charter performance report is displayed on the website of a public authority on a six-monthly basis.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 25(1)<\/b> requires the report 'as soon as practicable after the end of each year'; the Government of India's Decision under Section 25 states that 'the information has to be posted on quarterly basis' on the RTI Annual Report Information System; and Para 1.6.1 of the Guidelines on suo motu disclosure requires a 'six-monthly report on the performance against the benchmarks set in Citizens Charter'. All three periodicities are correctly stated.\"\r\n  },\r\n\r\n  \/* ------------------------------------------------------------------------\r\n     PRACTICE SET A \u2014 Section identification (whole Act)\r\n     72 questions   |   ids 7001 - 7072\r\n     --------------------------------------------------------------------- *\/\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7001,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The right of all citizens to information is conferred by which one of the following Sections?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 2\",\r\n      \"Section 6\",\r\n      \"Section 4\",\r\n      \"Section 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 3<\/b> \u2014 'Subject to the provisions of this Act, all citizens shall have the right to information.' Section 2 contains the definitions, Section 4 the obligations of public authorities, and Section 6 the procedure for making a request.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7002,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The expression 'information' is defined in which one of the following clauses?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 2(e)\",\r\n      \"Section 2(j)\",\r\n      \"Section 2(i)\",\r\n      \"Section 2(f)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(f)<\/b> defines information as 'any material in any form'. Clause (e) defines competent authority, clause (i) defines record, and clause (j) defines the right to information.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7003,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The expression 'public authority' is defined in which one of the following clauses?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 2(f)\",\r\n      \"Section 2(g)\",\r\n      \"Section 2(i)\",\r\n      \"Section 2(h)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(h)<\/b> defines public authority, and its Explanation extends the definition to bodies owned, controlled or substantially financed by the appropriate Government and to non-Government organisations so financed. Clause (g) defines 'prescribed'.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7004,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The expression 'third party' is defined in which one of the following clauses?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 2(k)\",\r\n      \"Section 2(l)\",\r\n      \"Section 2(m)\",\r\n      \"Section 2(n)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2(n)<\/b> \u2014 'third party means a person other than the citizen making a request for information and includes a public authority.' Clauses (k), (l) and (m) define the State Chief Information Commissioner, the State Information Commission and the State Public Information Officer respectively.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7005,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:\\n\\nList-I (Expression defined)\\nA. Appropriate Government\\nB. Competent authority\\nC. Record\\nD. Right to information\\n\\nList-II (Clause)\\n1. Section 2(a)\\n2. Section 2(e)\\n3. Section 2(i)\\n4. Section 2(j)\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3\",\r\n      \"A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 2<\/b> defines these expressions in clauses (a), (e), (i) and (j) respectively. Clause (g) between them defines 'prescribed' as prescribed by rules made under the Act by the appropriate Government or the competent authority.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7006,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The obligation of every public authority to maintain all its records duly catalogued and indexed is contained in which one of the following provisions?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 4(1)(a)\",\r\n      \"Section 4(1)(b)\",\r\n      \"Section 4(2)\",\r\n      \"Section 5(1)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1)(a)<\/b> requires records to be maintained 'duly catalogued and indexed in a manner and the form which facilitates the right to information', and records appropriate to be computerised to be computerised and networked.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7007,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The categories of information which every public authority is required to publish on a suo motu or proactive basis are laid down in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 3(1)(c)\",\r\n      \"Section 5(1)(d)\",\r\n      \"Section 4(2)\",\r\n      \"Section 4(1)(b)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1)(b)<\/b> lists seventeen categories of information, from the particulars of the organisation to 'such other information as may be prescribed', to be published within one hundred and twenty days of the enactment and updated every year.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7008,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The obligation to publish all relevant facts while formulating important policies or announcing decisions which affect the public is contained in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 4(1)(c)\",\r\n      \"Section 4(1)(d)\",\r\n      \"Section 4(2)\",\r\n      \"Section 4(3)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1)(c)<\/b> imposes this obligation. It is to be distinguished from <b>Section 4(1)(d)<\/b>, which requires a public authority to 'provide reasons for its administrative or quasi-judicial decisions to affected persons.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7009,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The obligation to provide reasons for administrative or quasi-judicial decisions to affected persons is contained in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 4(1)(b)\",\r\n      \"Section 4(1)(c)\",\r\n      \"Section 7(8)\",\r\n      \"Section 4(1)(d)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1)(d)<\/b> casts this duty on every public authority. Section 7(8), by contrast, requires a Public Information Officer who rejects a request to communicate the reasons for the rejection, the appeal period and the particulars of the appellate authority.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7010,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:\\n\\nList-I (Item to be published)\\nA. The procedure followed in the decision making process\\nB. The norms set by it for the discharge of its functions\\nC. The budget allocated to each of its agency\\nD. Details in respect of the information held by it in an electronic form\\n\\nList-II (Sub-clause of Section 4(1)(b))\\n1. Clause (iii)\\n2. Clause (iv)\\n3. Clause (xi)\\n4. Clause (xiv)\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3\",\r\n      \"A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1)(b)<\/b> \u2014 these four sub-clauses are precisely the ones singled out for detailed elaboration in Para 3.2 of the Guidelines on suo motu disclosure dated 15-4-2013, disclosure under them having been found relatively weak.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7011,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The requirement that all materials be disseminated taking into consideration cost effectiveness, local language and the most effective method of communication in that local area is contained in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 4(1)(a)\",\r\n      \"Section 4(2)\",\r\n      \"Section 4(3)\",\r\n      \"Section 4(4)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(4)<\/b> lays down these three considerations. Section 4(3) requires every information to be 'disseminated widely and in such form and manner which is easily accessible to the public', and the Explanation to sub-sections (3) and (4) defines 'disseminated'.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7012,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The designation of Central Assistant Public Information Officers by public authorities is provided for in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 4(1)\",\r\n      \"Section 5(1)\",\r\n      \"Section 5(2)\",\r\n      \"Section 6(2)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 5(2)<\/b> requires designation, within one hundred days of the enactment, of an officer at each sub-divisional or other sub-district level to receive applications and appeals for forwarding. Section 5(1) governs the designation of Public Information Officers in all administrative units or offices.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7013,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The provision enabling a Public Information Officer to seek the assistance of any other officer for the proper discharge of his duties, and deeming that officer to be a Public Information Officer for the purposes of any contravention, is contained in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Sub-sections (3) and (4) of Section 4\",\r\n      \"Sub-sections (6) and (7) of Section 7\",\r\n      \"Sub-sections (5) and (6) of Section 6\",\r\n      \"Sub-sections (4) and (5) of Section 5\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Sections 5(4) and 5(5)<\/b>. The Government of India's Decision under Section 5 clarifies that this does not authorise a Public Information Officer 'to designate any other officer as PIO and direct him to send reply to the Applicant.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7014,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The provision that a person seeking information shall make a request in writing or through electronic means in English or Hindi or in the official language of the area is contained in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 6(1)\",\r\n      \"Section 6(2)\",\r\n      \"Section 7(1)\",\r\n      \"Section 7(9)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 6(1)<\/b>, whose proviso further requires the Public Information Officer to 'render all reasonable assistance to the person making the request orally to reduce the same in writing' where the request cannot be made in writing.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7015,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The provision that an applicant shall not be required to give any reason for requesting the information, or any personal details except those necessary for contacting him, is contained in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 6(1)\",\r\n      \"Section 7(2)\",\r\n      \"Section 6(3)\",\r\n      \"Section 6(2)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 6(2)<\/b>. It was on this sub-section that the High Court of Kolkata proceeded in Avishek Goenka's case, holding that where a post-box number is furnished the authority 'should not insist upon his detailed whereabouts.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7016,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The transfer of an application to another public authority which holds the information, or with whose functions the subject matter is more closely connected, is provided for in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Sub-section (6) of Section 3\",\r\n      \"Sub-section (5) of Section 4\",\r\n      \"Sub-section (4) of Section 5\",\r\n      \"Sub-section (3) of Section 6\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 6(3)<\/b>, whose proviso requires the transfer to be made 'as soon as practicable but in no case later than five days from the date of receipt of the application', the applicant being informed immediately.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7017,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The provision under which a Public Information Officer is deemed to have refused a request where he fails to give a decision within the period specified is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 7(1)\",\r\n      \"Section 7(8)\",\r\n      \"Section 7(6)\",\r\n      \"Section 7(2)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 7(2)<\/b>. The deeming provision is what supplies the starting point for a first appeal under Section 19(1), which may be preferred 'within thirty days from the expiry of such period.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7018,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The requirement to provide assistance to a sensorily disabled person to enable access to information, including such assistance as may be appropriate for the inspection, is contained in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 7(3)\",\r\n      \"Section 7(9)\",\r\n      \"Section 7(5)\",\r\n      \"Section 7(4)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 7(4)<\/b>. The provision creates a facility and not a fee exemption; the only exemption from fee is that in favour of persons below the poverty line under the proviso to Section 7(5).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7019,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The provision that information shall be supplied free of charge where a public authority fails to comply with the specified time-limits is contained in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 7(4)\",\r\n      \"Section 7(5)\",\r\n      \"Section 7(6)\",\r\n      \"Section 7(7)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 7(6)<\/b> \u2014 'Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section (5), the person making request for the information shall be provided the information free of charge where a public authority fails to comply with the time-limits specified in sub-section (1).'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7020,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The requirement that a Public Information Officer take into consideration the representation made by a third party before taking a decision is contained in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 7(7)\",\r\n      \"Section 7(8)\",\r\n      \"Section 10(2)\",\r\n      \"Section 11(2)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 7(7)<\/b> \u2014 'Before taking any decision under sub-section (1), the Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer, as the case may be, shall take into consideration the representation made by a third party under Section 11.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7021,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The provision that information shall ordinarily be provided in the form in which it is sought, unless that would disproportionately divert the resources of the public authority, is contained in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 7(3)\",\r\n      \"Section 7(5)\",\r\n      \"Section 7(8)\",\r\n      \"Section 7(9)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 7(9)<\/b>. The Government of India's Decision under Section 7 clarifies that the sub-section 'does not mean that the PIO shall reshape the information' into a pro forma devised by the applicant.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7022,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:\\n\\nList-I\\nA. Disposal of request within thirty days\\nB. Intimation of further fee with the calculations made\\nC. Fee for information in printed or electronic format\\nD. Communication of the reasons for rejection\\n\\nList-II\\n1. Section 7(1)\\n2. Section 7(3)\\n3. Section 7(5)\\n4. Section 7(8)\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3\",\r\n      \"A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 7<\/b> is arranged in this order. Sub-section (3)(a) additionally provides that the period between the despatch of the intimation of further fee and its payment is excluded in computing the thirty days.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7023,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The exemption in respect of information whose disclosure would prejudicially affect the sovereignty and integrity of India is contained in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 8(1)(a)\",\r\n      \"Section 8(1)(b)\",\r\n      \"Section 8(1)(c)\",\r\n      \"Section 8(1)(d)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8(1)(a)<\/b>, which also covers 'the security, strategic, scientific or economic interests of the State, relation with foreign State or lead to incitement of an offence.' It is one of the three clauses saved from the twenty-year rule by Section 8(3).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7024,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The exemption in respect of information available to a person in his fiduciary relationship is contained in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 8(1)(d)\",\r\n      \"Section 8(1)(g)\",\r\n      \"Section 8(1)(f)\",\r\n      \"Section 8(1)(e)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8(1)(e)<\/b>, subject to the competent authority being satisfied that the larger public interest warrants disclosure. Clause (d) covers commercial confidence, trade secrets and intellectual property, and clause (f) information received in confidence from a foreign Government.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7025,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The exemption in respect of information which would impede the process of investigation or apprehension or prosecution of offenders is contained in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 8(1)(f)\",\r\n      \"Section 8(1)(g)\",\r\n      \"Section 8(1)(h)\",\r\n      \"Section 8(1)(i)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8(1)(h)<\/b>. Clause (g) separately protects information whose disclosure 'would endanger the life or physical safety of any person or identify the source of information or assistance given in confidence for law enforcement or security purposes.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7026,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The exemption in respect of Cabinet papers, including records of deliberations of the Council of Ministers, Secretaries and other officers, is contained in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 8(1)(g)\",\r\n      \"Section 8(1)(h)\",\r\n      \"Section 8(1)(i)\",\r\n      \"Section 8(1)(j)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8(1)(i)<\/b>, whose first proviso requires the decisions of the Council of Ministers, the reasons and the material to be made public 'after the decision has been taken, and the matter is complete, or over', and whose second proviso preserves the other exemptions.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7027,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The exemption in respect of personal information whose disclosure has no relationship to any public activity or interest is contained in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 8(1)(j)\",\r\n      \"Section 6(2)(a)\",\r\n      \"Section 9(1)(d)\",\r\n      \"Section 10(2)(f)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8(1)(j)<\/b>, whose proviso adds that 'the information which cannot be denied to the Parliament or a State Legislature shall not be denied to any person.' It is under this clause that Annual Confidential Reports and complaints against officers have been held protected.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7028,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The provision permitting a public authority to allow access to information, notwithstanding the Official Secrets Act, 1923 and the exemptions, where public interest in disclosure outweighs the harm to the protected interests, is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 8(2)\",\r\n      \"Section 8(3)\",\r\n      \"Section 10(1)\",\r\n      \"Section 22\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8(2)<\/b>. This is the general public interest override, operating over the whole of Section 8(1), and is distinct from the clause-specific overrides built into clauses (d), (e) and (j).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7029,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The provision that information relating to an occurrence which took place twenty years before the date of the request shall be provided is contained in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 8(1)(i)\",\r\n      \"Section 8(2)\",\r\n      \"Section 8(3)\",\r\n      \"Section 24(1)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8(3)<\/b>, which operates 'subject to the provisions of Clauses (a), (c) and (i) of sub-section (1)'. Its proviso makes the decision of the Central Government final on any question as to the date from which the twenty years is to be computed.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7030,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The rejection of a request on the ground that providing access would involve an infringement of copyright subsisting in a person other than the State is provided for in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 8\",\r\n      \"Section 11\",\r\n      \"Section 10\",\r\n      \"Section 9\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 9<\/b>, headed 'Grounds for rejection to access in certain cases'. It operates 'without prejudice to the provisions of Section 8' and is permissive, the officer being empowered to reject rather than obliged to do so.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7031,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"Severability of a record, so that access may be given to the part which does not contain exempt information, is dealt with in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 10\",\r\n      \"Section 9\",\r\n      \"Section 11\",\r\n      \"Section 12\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 10(1)<\/b>. Section 10(2) then prescribes the contents of the notice to be given on partial access \u2014 the fact of severance, the reasons and findings, the name and designation of the deciding officer, the fee details, and the right of review.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7032,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The procedure to be followed where a Public Information Officer intends to disclose information supplied by a third party and treated as confidential by it is laid down in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 8\",\r\n      \"Section 10\",\r\n      \"Section 11\",\r\n      \"Section 12\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 11<\/b>, headed 'Third party information'. It requires written notice within five days, a representation within ten days, and a decision within forty days of receipt of the request, the notice of decision stating the third party's right of appeal.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7033,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:\\n\\nList-I\\nA. Exemption from disclosure of information\\nB. Grounds for rejection to access in certain cases\\nC. Severability\\nD. Third party information\\n\\nList-II\\n1. Section 8\\n2. Section 9\\n3. Section 10\\n4. Section 11\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3\",\r\n      \"A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Sections 8 to 11<\/b> are the four provisions which together govern the decision on disclosure, and the Guidelines on suo motu disclosure direct that proactive disclosure be made 'keeping in mind the provisions of Sections 8 to 11 of the RTI Act.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7034,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The constitution of the Central Information Commission by the Central Government by notification in the Official Gazette is provided for in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 12(1)\",\r\n      \"Section 11\",\r\n      \"Section 13(1)\",\r\n      \"Section 15(1)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 12(1)<\/b>. Section 15(1) makes the corresponding provision for a State Information Commission, which is constituted by the State Government.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7035,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The appointment of the Chief Information Commissioner by the President on the recommendation of a three-member committee is provided for in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 12(2)\",\r\n      \"Section 12(3)\",\r\n      \"Section 12(4)\",\r\n      \"Section 13(1)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 12(3)<\/b>, the committee comprising the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. The Explanation to the sub-section deals with the case where no Leader of Opposition has been recognised.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7036,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The provision vesting the general superintendence, direction and management of the affairs of the Central Information Commission in the Chief Information Commissioner is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 12(1)\",\r\n      \"Section 12(3)\",\r\n      \"Section 12(4)\",\r\n      \"Section 12(5)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 12(4)<\/b>, which further provides that those powers are exercised 'autonomously without being subjected to directions by any other authority under this Act.' It confers no power to constitute Benches of the Commission.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7037,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The requirement that the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners be persons of eminence in public life with wide knowledge and experience in the specified fields is contained in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 12(4)\",\r\n      \"Section 12(5)\",\r\n      \"Section 12(6)\",\r\n      \"Section 13(1)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 12(5)<\/b>, the fields being law, science and technology, social service, management, journalism, mass media or administration and governance. Section 12(6) contains the disqualifications, including membership of a Legislature and connection with a political party.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7038,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The provision fixing the headquarters of the Central Information Commission at Delhi is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 12(5)\",\r\n      \"Section 12(6)\",\r\n      \"Section 12(7)\",\r\n      \"Section 13(6)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 12(7)<\/b>, which also permits the Commission, 'with the previous approval of the Central Government', to establish offices at other places in India. The headquarters of a State Information Commission is instead notified by the State Government under Section 15(7).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7039,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The oath or affirmation to be made by the Chief Information Commissioner before entering upon his office is provided for in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 12(3)\",\r\n      \"Section 13(3)\",\r\n      \"Section 13(4)\",\r\n      \"Section 14(1)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 13(3)<\/b>, the oath being made before the President or some other person appointed by him, 'according to the form set out for the purpose in the First Schedule.' The corresponding provision for the States is Section 16(3).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7040,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The provision that the Chief Information Commissioner may resign by writing under his hand addressed to the President is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 13(2)\",\r\n      \"Section 13(3)\",\r\n      \"Section 13(4)\",\r\n      \"Section 14(2)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 13(4)<\/b>, whose proviso adds that he 'may be removed in the manner specified under section 14'. Resignation and removal are thus distinct routes by which the office may be vacated.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7041,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The provision that the Central Government shall provide the Commission with such officers and employees as may be necessary for the efficient performance of its functions is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 12(7)\",\r\n      \"Section 13(5)\",\r\n      \"Section 13(6)\",\r\n      \"Section 27(2)(d)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 13(6)<\/b>. Their salaries, allowances and terms and conditions of service are 'such as may be prescribed', the rule-making power for which is listed in Section 27(2)(d).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7042,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The provisions regarding the removal of the Chief Information Commissioner or an Information Commissioner are contained in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 13\",\r\n      \"Section 14\",\r\n      \"Section 15\",\r\n      \"Section 16\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 14<\/b>. Section 13 deals with the term of office and conditions of service, Section 15 with the constitution of the State Information Commission and Section 16 with the term of office of the State Commissioners. The corresponding removal provision for the States is Section 17.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7043,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The power of the President to suspend from office, and if deemed necessary to prohibit from attending office during the inquiry, is contained in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 14(1)\",\r\n      \"Section 14(2)\",\r\n      \"Section 14(3)\",\r\n      \"Section 14(4)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 14(2)<\/b>, the suspension operating 'until the President has passed orders on receipt of the report of the Supreme Court on such reference.' Sub-section (3) lists the grounds on which removal may be ordered without any such reference.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7044,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The provision deeming a Commissioner who is concerned or interested in a contract made by or on behalf of the Government of India to be guilty of misbehaviour is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 12(6)\",\r\n      \"Section 14(2)\",\r\n      \"Section 14(3)\",\r\n      \"Section 14(4)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 14(4)<\/b>, the deeming operating 'for the purposes of sub-section (1)', so that such conduct must go through a reference to the Supreme Court. An interest held 'as a member and in common with the other members of an incorporated company' is excepted.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7045,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:\\n\\nList-I\\nA. Constitution of the State Information Commission\\nB. Term of office of the State Chief Information Commissioner\\nC. Removal of the State Chief Information Commissioner\\nD. Powers and functions of the Information Commissions\\n\\nList-II\\n1. Section 15\\n2. Section 16\\n3. Section 17\\n4. Section 18\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3\",\r\n      \"A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Sections 15, 16 and 17<\/b> for the State Information Commission mirror <b>Sections 12, 13 and 14<\/b> for the Central Information Commission, while Section 18 applies to both Commissions alike.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7046,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The duty of an Information Commission to receive and inquire into complaints from any person is contained in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 17\",\r\n      \"Section 18\",\r\n      \"Section 19\",\r\n      \"Section 20\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 18(1)<\/b>, which lists six grounds of complaint in clauses (a) to (f), the last being the residuary ground 'in respect of any other matter relating to requesting or obtaining access to records under this Act.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7047,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The provision conferring on an Information Commission the powers of a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 in respect of specified matters is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 18(2)\",\r\n      \"Section 18(3)\",\r\n      \"Section 18(4)\",\r\n      \"Section 19(8)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 18(3)<\/b>, the specified matters being summoning and enforcing attendance, discovery and inspection of documents, receiving evidence on affidavit, requisitioning public records, issuing summons for examination of witnesses or documents, and any other matter which may be prescribed.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7048,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The provision that no record may be withheld from an Information Commission on any grounds during the inquiry of a complaint is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 18(2)\",\r\n      \"Section 18(3)\",\r\n      \"Section 18(4)\",\r\n      \"Section 22\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 18(4)<\/b>, which operates 'notwithstanding anything inconsistent contained in any other Act of Parliament or State Legislature' and permits examination of 'any record to which this Act applies which is under the control of the public authority.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7049,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The provision that a first appeal shall be preferred to an officer senior in rank to the Public Information Officer in each public authority is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 18(1)\",\r\n      \"Section 19(1)\",\r\n      \"Section 19(3)\",\r\n      \"Section 19(6)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(1)<\/b>, the appeal being preferred within thirty days from the expiry of the period specified or from the receipt of the decision. Section 19(3) provides for a second appeal to the Information Commission within ninety days.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7050,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The provision that in any appeal proceedings the onus to prove that a denial of a request was justified shall be on the Public Information Officer who denied the request is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 19(4)\",\r\n      \"Section 19(5)\",\r\n      \"Section 19(6)\",\r\n      \"Section 20(1)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(5)<\/b>. A comparable personal burden appears in the second proviso to Section 20(1), under which 'the burden of proving that he acted reasonably and diligently' rests on the officer in penalty proceedings.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7051,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The provision that the first Appellate Authority shall dispose of the appeal within thirty days of its receipt is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 17(a)\",\r\n      \"Section 19(6)\",\r\n      \"Section 22(4)\",\r\n      \"Section 24(3)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(6)<\/b>, which permits an extended period 'not exceeding a total of forty-five days from the date of filing thereof, as the case may be, for reasons to be recorded in writing.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7052,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The provision that the decision of the Information Commission shall be binding is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 19(6)\",\r\n      \"Section 19(7)\",\r\n      \"Section 19(9)\",\r\n      \"Section 23\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(7)<\/b>. Section 19(9) separately requires the Commission to 'give notice of its decision, including any right of appeal, to the complainant and the public authority', and Section 19(10) requires the appeal to be decided in accordance with the prescribed procedure.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7053,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The power of an Information Commission to require a public authority to compensate the complainant for any loss or other detriment suffered is contained in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 17(1)(a)\",\r\n      \"Section 19(8)(b)\",\r\n      \"Section 22(4)(a)\",\r\n      \"Section 24(3)(b)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(8)(b)<\/b>. The compensation is payable by the public authority to the complainant, and is to be distinguished from the penalty under Section 20(1), which is imposed on the Public Information Officer personally.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7054,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The power of an Information Commission to require a public authority to publish certain information or categories of information is contained in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 19(8)(a)(i)\",\r\n      \"Section 19(8)(a)(iii)\",\r\n      \"Section 19(8)(b)\",\r\n      \"Section 25(5)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(8)(a)(iii)<\/b>, one of six illustrative steps by which the Commission may secure compliance, the others including access in a particular form, appointment of a Public Information Officer, changes in record management practices, enhanced training, and an annual report under Section 4(1)(b).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7055,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The provision under which a penalty may be imposed on a Public Information Officer who, without reasonable cause, refuses to receive an application for information is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 16\",\r\n      \"Section 18\",\r\n      \"Section 20\",\r\n      \"Section 22\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 20(1)<\/b>, the penalty being two hundred and fifty rupees for each day of default subject to a maximum of twenty-five thousand rupees, imposable at the time of deciding any complaint or appeal.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7056,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The provision under which the Information Commission recommends disciplinary action against a Public Information Officer who has persistently defaulted is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 19(8)(c)\",\r\n      \"Section 20(1)\",\r\n      \"Section 20(2)\",\r\n      \"Section 25(3)(d)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 20(2)<\/b>, which applies where the officer has acted 'without any reasonable cause and persistently', and directs that the recommendation be made 'under the service rules applicable to him.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7057,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The protection of action taken in good faith under the Act or any rule made thereunder is provided by:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 21\",\r\n      \"Section 22\",\r\n      \"Section 23\",\r\n      \"Section 24\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 21<\/b> \u2014 'No suit, prosecution or other legal proceeding shall lie against any person for anything which is in good faith done or intended to be done under this Act or any rule made thereunder.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7058,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The overriding effect of the Act over the Official Secrets Act, 1923 and any other law for the time being in force is provided by:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 21\",\r\n      \"Section 22\",\r\n      \"Section 23\",\r\n      \"Section 24\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 22<\/b>, which extends also to 'any instrument having effect by virtue of any law other than this Act.' The trigger is inconsistency with the provisions of the Act.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7059,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The bar on any court entertaining a suit, application or other proceeding in respect of an order made under the Act is contained in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 21\",\r\n      \"Section 22\",\r\n      \"Section 23\",\r\n      \"Section 30\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 23<\/b>, which adds that 'no such order shall be called in question otherwise than by way of an appeal under this Act.' The statutory bar does not oust the writ jurisdiction under Articles 226 and 32 of the Constitution.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7060,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The provision under which the Act does not apply to the intelligence and security organisations specified in the Second Schedule is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 22 read with Schedule II\",\r\n      \"Section 23 read with Schedule II\",\r\n      \"Section 24 read with Schedule II\",\r\n      \"Section 25 read with Schedule II\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 24(1)<\/b> read with the <b>Second Schedule<\/b>, subject to the provisos preserving access to information pertaining to allegations of corruption and of human rights violations.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7061,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The power of the Central Government to amend the Second Schedule by notification in the Official Gazette is contained in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 24(1)\",\r\n      \"Section 24(2)\",\r\n      \"Section 24(4)\",\r\n      \"Section 27(1)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 24(2)<\/b>. Every such notification must be laid before each House of Parliament under Section 24(3). A State Government's notification specifying its own intelligence and security organisations is made under Section 24(4) and laid before the State Legislature under Section 24(5).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7062,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The preparation of an annual report on the implementation of the provisions of the Act is provided for in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 24\",\r\n      \"Section 25\",\r\n      \"Section 26\",\r\n      \"Section 27\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 25(1)<\/b>, the report being prepared by the Information Commission 'as soon as practicable after the end of each year' and forwarded to the appropriate Government, which causes a copy to be laid before the Legislature under Section 25(4).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7063,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The provision under which an Information Commission may give a recommendation to a public authority specifying the steps which ought to be taken where its practice does not conform with the provisions or spirit of the Act is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 19(8)(a)\",\r\n      \"Section 25(3)(g)\",\r\n      \"Section 25(5)\",\r\n      \"Section 26(1)(c)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 25(5)<\/b>. Unlike a decision in an appeal, which is binding under Section 19(7), this power is recommendatory in character.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7064,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The responsibility to develop and organise educational programmes to advance the understanding of the public, in particular of disadvantaged communities, is cast by:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 26(1)(a)\",\r\n      \"Section 28(1)(c)\",\r\n      \"Section 30(1)(a)\",\r\n      \"Section 32(1)(c)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 26(1)(a)<\/b>. The remaining clauses of the sub-section require the appropriate Government to encourage public authorities to undertake such programmes, to promote timely and effective dissemination of accurate information, and to train Public Information Officers.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7065,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The obligation of the appropriate Government to compile a guide in its official language, in an easily comprehensible form and manner, is contained in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 26(1)\",\r\n      \"Section 26(2)\",\r\n      \"Section 26(3)\",\r\n      \"Section 26(4)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 26(2)<\/b>, the guide to be compiled 'within eighteen months from the commencement of this Act'. Section 26(3) prescribes the minimum contents of the guidelines and Section 26(4) requires them to be updated and published at regular intervals.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7066,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The power to make rules to carry out the provisions of the Act, conferred on the appropriate Government, is contained in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 18\",\r\n      \"Section 27\",\r\n      \"Section 30\",\r\n      \"Section 32\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 27(1)<\/b>. The matters on which such rules may be made are enumerated in Section 27(2), and include the fee under Sections 6(1), 7(1) and 7(5) and the procedure of the Commission in deciding appeals under Section 19(10).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7067,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The power to make rules conferred on the Competent Authority is contained in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 26\",\r\n      \"Section 27\",\r\n      \"Section 28\",\r\n      \"Section 29\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 28<\/b>. Its scope is narrower than that of Section 27: it covers the cost of the medium under Section 4(4) and the fee under Sections 6(1) and 7(1), but not the fee under Section 7(5) or the procedure of the Commission.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7068,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The requirement that every rule made by the Central Government be laid before each House of Parliament is contained in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 27\",\r\n      \"Section 28\",\r\n      \"Section 29\",\r\n      \"Section 30\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 29(1)<\/b>, the rule being laid 'for a total period of thirty days which may be comprised in one session or in two or more successive sessions.' Section 29(2) requires a rule made by a State Government to be laid before the State Legislature.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7069,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The power of the Central Government to make provisions, by order published in the Official Gazette, for the removal of any difficulty arising in giving effect to the Act is contained in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 28\",\r\n      \"Section 29\",\r\n      \"Section 30\",\r\n      \"Section 31\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 30(1)<\/b>, whose proviso bars any such order being made 'after the expiry of a period of two years from the date of the commencement of this Act.' Every such order is to be laid before each House of Parliament under Section 30(2).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7070,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The repeal of the Freedom of Information Act, 2002 is effected by:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Section 22\",\r\n      \"Section 29\",\r\n      \"Section 30\",\r\n      \"Section 31\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 31<\/b> \u2014 'The Freedom of Information Act, 2002 is hereby repealed.' The Official Secrets Act, 1923 is not repealed but is merely overridden to the extent of inconsistency by Section 22.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7071,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:\\n\\nList-I\\nA. Protection of action taken in good faith\\nB. Act to have overriding effect\\nC. Bar of jurisdiction of courts\\nD. Monitoring and reporting\\n\\nList-II\\n1. Section 21\\n2. Section 22\\n3. Section 23\\n4. Section 25\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3\",\r\n      \"A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Chapter VI<\/b> runs in this order \u2014 Section 21 good faith, Section 22 overriding effect, Section 23 bar of jurisdiction, Section 24 exclusion of certain organisations, Section 25 monitoring and reporting, Section 26 programmes, Sections 27 to 29 rules, Section 30 removal of difficulties and Section 31 repeal.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7072,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Section Identification\",\r\n    question: \"The form of oath or affirmation to be made by the Information Commissioners is set out in a Schedule referable to:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Sections 12(3) and 15(3)\",\r\n      \"Sections 13(3) and 16(3)\",\r\n      \"Sections 14(1) and 17(1)\",\r\n      \"Section 24\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"The <b>First Schedule<\/b> carries the marginal reference '[See Sections 13 (3) and 16 (3)]'. The <b>Second Schedule<\/b>, listing the excluded intelligence and security organisations, carries the reference '[See Section 24]'.\"\r\n  },\r\n\r\n  \/* ------------------------------------------------------------------------\r\n     PRACTICE SET B \u2014 Time limits, periods and periodicities (whole Act)\r\n     52 questions   |   ids 8001 - 8052\r\n     --------------------------------------------------------------------- *\/\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8001,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"The period within which information concerning the life or liberty of a person is required to be provided is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"twenty-four hours\",\r\n      \"five days\",\r\n      \"forty-eight hours\",\r\n      \"seven days\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"Proviso to <b>Section 7(1)<\/b> \u2014 'where the information sought for concerns the life or liberty of a person, the same shall be provided within forty-eight hours of the receipt of the request.' The proviso turns on the subject matter of the information, not on the status of the applicant.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8002,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"The ordinary period within which a request for information is required to be disposed of is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"fifteen days of the receipt of the request\",\r\n      \"forty days of the receipt of the request\",\r\n      \"thirty days of the receipt of the request\",\r\n      \"forty-five days of the receipt of the request\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 7(1)<\/b> requires the officer to act 'as expeditiously as possible, and in any case within thirty days of the receipt of the request', either providing the information on payment of fee or rejecting the request for reasons specified in Sections 8 and 9.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8003,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"The outer limit within which an application is required to be transferred to another public authority is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"five days from the date of receipt of the application\",\r\n      \"seven days from the date of receipt of the application\",\r\n      \"ten days from the date of receipt of the application\",\r\n      \"fifteen days from the date of receipt of the application\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"Proviso to <b>Section 6(3)<\/b> \u2014 the transfer 'shall be made as soon as practicable but in no case later than five days from the date of receipt of the application.' The applicant is in addition to be informed 'immediately' about the transfer.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8004,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"Where an application for information or an appeal is given to an Assistant Public Information Officer, the period allowed for response is increased by:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"three days\",\r\n      \"seven days\",\r\n      \"five days\",\r\n      \"ten days\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"Proviso to <b>Section 5(2)<\/b> \u2014 'a period of five days shall be added in computing the period for response specified under sub-section (1) of Section 7.' The ordinary period of thirty days therefore becomes thirty-five days.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8005,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the third party procedure:\\n1. Written notice is to be given to the third party within five days from the receipt of the request.\\n2. The third party is to be given the opportunity to make representation within ten days from the date of receipt of the notice.\\n3. The decision whether or not to disclose is to be made within forty days after receipt of the request.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Sections 11(1), 11(2) and 11(3)<\/b> respectively. The period of forty days operates 'notwithstanding anything contained in Section 7', displacing the ordinary thirty-day period wherever the third party procedure has been followed.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8006,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"The period within which a third party is to be given the opportunity to make representation against a proposed disclosure is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"five days from the date of receipt of the notice\",\r\n      \"fifteen days from the date of receipt of the notice\",\r\n      \"ten days from the date of receipt of the notice\",\r\n      \"thirty days from the date of receipt of the notice\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 11(2)<\/b> \u2014 'the third party shall, within ten days from the date of receipt of such notice, be given the opportunity to make representation against the proposed disclosure.' The five-day period is that within which the notice itself must be issued under Section 11(1).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8007,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"Where a third party has been given an opportunity to make representation, the decision on disclosure is required to be made within:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"thirty days after receipt of the request\",\r\n      \"thirty-five days after receipt of the request\",\r\n      \"forty days after receipt of the request\",\r\n      \"forty-five days after receipt of the request\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 11(3)<\/b> \u2014 'Notwithstanding anything contained in Section 7... within forty days after receipt of the request under Section 6... make a decision as to whether or not to disclose the information or record or part thereof and give in writing the notice of his decision to the third party.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8008,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"The period within which a first appeal is required to be preferred is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"fifteen days\",\r\n      \"ninety days\",\r\n      \"forty-five days\",\r\n      \"thirty days\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(1)<\/b> \u2014 the appeal may be preferred 'within thirty days from the expiry of such period or from the receipt of such a decision.' The proviso permits admission after that period where the appellant 'was prevented by sufficient cause from filing the appeal in time.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8009,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"The period within which a third party may appeal against an order directing disclosure of its information is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"thirty days from the date of the order\",\r\n      \"thirty days from the date of receipt of the order\",\r\n      \"ninety days from the date of the order\",\r\n      \"ninety days from the date of receipt of the order\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(2)<\/b> \u2014 'the appeal by the concerned third party shall be made within thirty days from the date of the order.' Note the deliberate departure from Section 19(1), where the period runs from the receipt of the decision.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8010,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"The period within which a second appeal lies to the Information Commission is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"thirty days\",\r\n      \"forty-five days\",\r\n      \"sixty days\",\r\n      \"ninety days\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(3)<\/b> \u2014 a second appeal 'shall lie within ninety days from the date on which the decision should have been made or was actually received.' Its proviso permits condonation of delay for sufficient cause.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8011,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the disposal of a first appeal:\\n1. It is to be disposed of within thirty days of the receipt of the appeal.\\n2. The extended period may not exceed a total of forty-five days from the date of filing.\\n3. Reasons for taking the extended period are to be recorded in writing.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(6)<\/b> contains all three. The change of the starting point between the ordinary period, which runs from receipt, and the extended period, which runs from filing, is a frequently tested detail.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8012,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. The Act prescribes no time limit within which an Information Commission must decide a complaint.\\n2. The Act prescribes no time limit within which an Information Commission must decide a second appeal.\\n3. The Act prescribes a time limit within which a first appeal must be disposed of.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 19(6)<\/b> applies only to appeals 'under sub-section (1) or sub-section (2)', that is to first appeals and third party appeals. Neither Section 18 nor Section 19(3) fixes any period for the Commission's own decision \u2014 an omission repeatedly set as a question in previous-year papers.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8013,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:\\n\\nList-I (Period)\\nA. Forty-eight hours\\nB. Five days\\nC. Ten days\\nD. Forty days\\n\\nList-II (Provision)\\n1. Proviso to Section 7(1)\\n2. Section 11(1)\\n3. Section 11(2)\\n4. Section 11(3)\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3\",\r\n      \"A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"Forty-eight hours is the life-and-liberty period under the proviso to <b>Section 7(1)<\/b>; five days is the period for notice to a third party under Section 11(1), and also the outer limit for transfer of an application under the proviso to Section 6(3); ten days is the third party's period for representation; and forty days is the period for the decision where the third party has been heard.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8014,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"Arrange the following periods in ascending order of duration:\\n1. Time for preferring a first appeal.\\n2. Maximum period for disposal of a first appeal.\\n3. Time for preferring a second appeal.\\n4. Outer limit for transfer of an application to another public authority.\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"4-1-2-3\",\r\n      \"1-4-2-3\",\r\n      \"4-2-1-3\",\r\n      \"1-2-4-3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"Transfer of an application must be made within five days under the proviso to <b>Section 6(3)<\/b>; a first appeal must be preferred within thirty days under <b>Section 19(1)<\/b>; disposal of that appeal may take up to forty-five days under <b>Section 19(6)<\/b>; and a second appeal lies within ninety days under <b>Section 19(3)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8015,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding a demand for further fee:\\n1. The period between the despatch of the intimation and the payment of the fee is excluded in computing the period of thirty days.\\n2. The exclusion applies to the application fee as well.\\n3. The intimation must give the calculations made to arrive at the amount demanded.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 7(3)(a)<\/b> supports Statements 1 and 3. The exclusion is confined to the further fee representing the cost of providing the information; the application fee under Section 6(1) accompanies the request itself and no question of exclusion arises in respect of it.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8016,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"The period within which every public authority was required to designate Public Information Officers in all administrative units or offices under it was:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"sixty days of the enactment of the Act\",\r\n      \"one hundred days of the enactment of the Act\",\r\n      \"one hundred and twenty days of the enactment of the Act\",\r\n      \"one year of the enactment of the Act\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 5(1)<\/b> fixes one hundred days, and <b>Section 5(2)<\/b> fixes the same period for the designation of Assistant Public Information Officers. One hundred and twenty days is the period under Section 4(1)(b) for the first publication of the categories of information.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8017,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following periods:\\n1. One hundred days for designating Public Information Officers.\\n2. One hundred days for designating Assistant Public Information Officers.\\n3. One hundred and twenty days for the first publication of the specified categories of information.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Sections 5(1), 5(2) and 4(1)(b)<\/b> respectively. The pairing of one hundred days with Section 5 and one hundred and twenty days with Section 4 is among the most frequently confused pairs in this Act.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8018,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"After their first publication, the categories of information specified for suo motu disclosure are required to be updated:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"every quarter\",\r\n      \"every six months\",\r\n      \"every year\",\r\n      \"only when a material change occurs\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1)(b)<\/b> closes with the words 'and thereafter update these publications every year.' The Government of India's Decision under Section 4 reiterates that information so published 'should also be updated every year as provided in the Act.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8019,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"Information relating to an occurrence, event or matter is required to be provided, subject to certain exemptions, where it took place:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"ten years before the date on which the request is made\",\r\n      \"fifteen years before the date on which the request is made\",\r\n      \"twenty years before the date on which the request is made\",\r\n      \"twenty-five years before the date on which the request is made\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 8(3)<\/b> \u2014 'subject to the provisions of Clauses (a), (c) and (i) of sub-section (1), any information relating to any occurrence, event or matter which has taken place, occurred or happened twenty years before the date on which any request is made under Section 6 shall be provided.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8020,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"The finality attaching to the decision of the Central Government on the date from which the period of twenty years is to be computed is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"absolute, and not open to challenge in any forum\",\r\n      \"subject to the usual appeals provided for in the Act\",\r\n      \"subject to confirmation by the Central Information Commission\",\r\n      \"subject to approval by Parliament\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"Proviso to <b>Section 8(3)<\/b> \u2014 'the decision of the Central Government shall be final, subject to the usual appeals provided for in this Act.' The determination therefore binds the public authority, but does not oust the appellate remedies of <b>Section 19<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8021,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"Information sought in respect of allegations of violation of human rights from an organisation specified in the Second Schedule is required to be provided within:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"thirty days from the date of receipt of the request\",\r\n      \"forty days from the date of receipt of the request\",\r\n      \"forty-five days from the date of receipt of the request\",\r\n      \"sixty days from the date of receipt of the request\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"Second proviso to <b>Section 24(1)<\/b> \u2014 such information 'shall only be provided after the approval of the Central Information Commission, and notwithstanding anything contained in Section 7, such information shall be provided within forty-five days from the date of the receipt of request.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8022,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding information from an organisation specified in the Second Schedule:\\n1. Information pertaining to allegations of corruption is not excluded.\\n2. Information in respect of allegations of violation of human rights requires the prior approval of the Information Commission.\\n3. Such human rights information is to be provided within forty-five days.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"The two provisos to <b>Section 24(1)<\/b>, and the corresponding provisos to <b>Section 24(4)<\/b> in the case of State organisations, support all three. Note that the requirement of approval and the extended period attach only to human rights information, not to corruption-related information.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8023,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"The penalty imposable on a defaulting Public Information Officer accrues at the rate of:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"two hundred rupees for each day of default\",\r\n      \"two hundred and fifty rupees for each day of default\",\r\n      \"five hundred rupees for each day of default\",\r\n      \"one thousand rupees for each day of default\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 20(1)<\/b> \u2014 a penalty 'of two hundred and fifty rupees each day till application is received or information is furnished, so however, the total amount of such penalty shall not exceed twenty-five thousand rupees.' The penalty is a daily accrual, not a flat sum.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8024,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the penalty under the Act:\\n1. It accrues for each day until the application is received or the information is furnished.\\n2. The total amount shall not exceed twenty-five thousand rupees.\\n3. It is imposed at the time of deciding any complaint or appeal.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 20(1)<\/b> contains all three elements. The officer must in addition be given 'a reasonable opportunity of being heard before any penalty is imposed on him', and bears the burden of proving that he acted reasonably and diligently.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8025,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"The Chief Information Commissioner shall not hold office as such after he has attained the age of:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"sixty years\",\r\n      \"sixty-two years\",\r\n      \"sixty-five years\",\r\n      \"seventy years\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"Proviso to <b>Section 13(1)<\/b>. The same ceiling applies to an Information Commissioner under <b>Section 13(2)<\/b>, and to the State Commissioners under <b>Section 16<\/b>. The age ceiling was left untouched by the Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8026,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding an Information Commissioner who is appointed as the Chief Information Commissioner:\\n1. His term of office shall not be more than five years in aggregate in the two capacities taken together.\\n2. He shall not hold office after attaining the age of sixty-five years.\\n3. He is not eligible for reappointment as an Information Commissioner.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"The second proviso to <b>Section 13(2)<\/b> fixes the aggregate ceiling of five years; the provisos to <b>Sections 13(1) and 13(2)<\/b> fix the age ceiling of sixty-five years; and Section 13(2) itself bars reappointment 'as such Information Commissioner', while its first proviso preserves eligibility for elevation to Chief Information Commissioner.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8027,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"An Information Commissioner who has held office for three years is thereafter appointed as the Chief Information Commissioner. The maximum further period for which he may hold that office is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"one year\",\r\n      \"two years\",\r\n      \"three years\",\r\n      \"five years\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"The second proviso to <b>Section 13(2)<\/b> caps the combined tenure at five years. Three years having been served as Information Commissioner, two years remain, subject always to the age ceiling of sixty-five years in the proviso to Section 13(1).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8028,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"The guide to be compiled by the appropriate Government in its official language was required to be compiled within:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"six months from the commencement of the Act\",\r\n      \"twelve months from the commencement of the Act\",\r\n      \"eighteen months from the commencement of the Act\",\r\n      \"twenty-four months from the commencement of the Act\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 26(2)<\/b> \u2014 'The appropriate Government shall, within eighteen months from the commencement of this Act, compile in its official language a guide containing such information, in an easily comprehensible form and manner, as may reasonably be required by a person who wishes to exercise any right specified in this Act.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8029,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"The period of thirty days for which a rule made by the Central Government is required to be laid before each House of Parliament may be comprised in:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"a single sitting of each House\",\r\n      \"one session only\",\r\n      \"one session or in two or more successive sessions\",\r\n      \"three successive sessions in every case\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 29(1)<\/b> \u2014 the rule is laid 'while it is in session, for a total period of thirty days which may be comprised in one session or in two or more successive sessions.' The period is an aggregate one, and the House need not sit for thirty continuous days.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8030,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"No order for the removal of a difficulty in giving effect to the provisions of the Act may be made after the expiry of:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"one year from the date of the commencement of the Act\",\r\n      \"two years from the date of the commencement of the Act\",\r\n      \"five years from the date of the commencement of the Act\",\r\n      \"no period is prescribed\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"Proviso to <b>Section 30(1)<\/b> \u2014 'no such order shall be made after the expiry of a period of two years from the date of the commencement of this Act.' Every such order must in addition be laid before each House of Parliament under Section 30(2).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8031,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"The report of an Information Commission on the implementation of the provisions of the Act is required to be prepared:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"as soon as practicable after the end of each year\",\r\n      \"within three months of the end of each financial year\",\r\n      \"within six months of the end of each financial year\",\r\n      \"once in every three years\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 25(1)<\/b> \u2014 the Commission 'shall, as soon as practicable after the end of each year, prepare a report on the implementation of the provisions of this Act during that year and forward a copy thereof to the appropriate Government.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8032,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"The information required for the annual report is to be posted by public authorities on the Annual Report Information System:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"on a monthly basis\",\r\n      \"on a quarterly basis\",\r\n      \"on a half-yearly basis\",\r\n      \"once at the end of the financial year\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"The Government of India's Decision under <b>Section 25<\/b> \u2014 'The information has to be posted on quarterly basis' on the RTI Annual Report Information System accessible on the website of the Central Information Commission.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8033,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the annual return of a public authority:\\n1. It is uploaded on the RTI Annual Report Information System developed by the Central Information Commission.\\n2. The information is to be posted on a quarterly basis.\\n3. The final return for a year is to be uploaded latest by the 15th April of the subsequent financial year.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"The Government of India's Decision under <b>Section 25<\/b> supports all three \u2014 the software 'is known as the RTI Annual Report Information System', 'the information has to be posted on quarterly basis', and 'the final return for the year should be uploaded latest by the 15th April of the subsequent financial year.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8034,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"The proactive disclosure of details of foreign and domestic official tours is required to be updated:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"every month\",\r\n      \"every quarter\",\r\n      \"every six months\",\r\n      \"every year\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"The Government of India's Decision under <b>Section 4<\/b> \u2014 the disclosures cover tours undertaken since 1st January 2012 and 'may be updated once every quarter starting from 1st July, 2012.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8035,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"Which one of the following is required to be displayed on the website of a public authority once every six months?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The details of official tours of Ministers and officers of Joint Secretary rank and above\",\r\n      \"The report on performance against the benchmarks set in the Citizens Charter\",\r\n      \"The funds released to autonomous and statutory organisations\",\r\n      \"The report of the third party audit of the proactive disclosure package\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 1.6.1 of the Guidelines on suo motu disclosure<\/b> requires a 'six-monthly report on the performance against the benchmarks set in Citizens Charter'. Official tour details and funds released to subordinate bodies are disclosed quarterly, and the third party audit of the proactive disclosure package is conducted annually under Para 4.4.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8036,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"Funds released to autonomous organisations, statutory organisations, attached offices and public sector enterprises are required to be put on the website:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"on a monthly basis\",\r\n      \"on a quarterly basis\",\r\n      \"on a half-yearly basis\",\r\n      \"on an annual basis\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 3.5.1(c) of the Guidelines on suo motu disclosure<\/b>. Where a subsidiary body maintains no website of its own, its budget and expenditure reports 'may be uploaded on the website of the principal Public Authority.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8037,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"The proactive disclosure package of a public authority is required to be audited by a third party:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"every year\",\r\n      \"every two years\",\r\n      \"every three years\",\r\n      \"only when the Information Commission so directs\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 4.4 of the Guidelines on suo motu disclosure<\/b> \u2014 'Each Ministry \/ Public Authority should get its proactive disclosure package audited by third party every year', and the names of the third party auditors are themselves to be proactively disclosed on the website.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8038,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"The guidelines on suo motu disclosure were required to be fully operationalised by each Ministry or public authority within:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"three months from the date of their issue\",\r\n      \"six months from the date of their issue\",\r\n      \"one year from the date of their issue\",\r\n      \"one hundred and twenty days from the date of their issue\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Para 4.1 of the Guidelines<\/b> \u2014 'Each Ministry \/ Public Authority shall ensure that these guidelines are fully operationalized within a period of 6 months from the date of their issue.' The Action Taken Report was to be sent to the Department of Personnel and Training and the Central Information Commission after the expiry of that period.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8039,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following periodicities prescribed in relation to proactive disclosure:\\n1. Updating of the categories of information published under Section 4(1)(b) \u2014 annual.\\n2. Disclosure of details of official tours \u2014 quarterly.\\n3. Report on performance against the Citizens Charter benchmarks \u2014 six-monthly.\\n4. Third party audit of the proactive disclosure package \u2014 annual.\\n\\nHow many of the above are correctly matched?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"Only three\",\r\n      \"All four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 4(1)(b)<\/b> requires annual updating; the Government of India's Decision under Section 4 fixes quarterly updating of tour disclosures; Para 1.6.1 of the Guidelines fixes the six-monthly Citizens Charter report; and Para 4.4 fixes the annual third party audit.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8040,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"RTI Week is celebrated every year during:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1st to 7th October\",\r\n      \"5th to 12th October\",\r\n      \"10th to 17th October\",\r\n      \"12th to 19th October\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"Para 2.0(i) of the Guidelines under <b>Section 26<\/b> \u2014 'RTI Week is celebrated every year during 5th - 12th October.' The week closes on 12th October, the date on which the remaining provisions of the Act came into force.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8041,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"Under the scheme for financial assistance, the draft report of a field based study or research on RTI is required to be submitted within:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"three months from the date of acceptance of the proposal\",\r\n      \"five months from the date of acceptance of the proposal\",\r\n      \"six months from the date of acceptance of the proposal\",\r\n      \"one year from the date of acceptance of the proposal\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"Para 6.0 of the Guidelines under <b>Section 26<\/b> \u2014 'Submission of draft report: 5 months from the date of acceptance of proposal.' The five-month period governs the draft, and not the final report.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8042,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"The final report of a field based study or research on RTI is required to be submitted within:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"one month from the date of submission of the draft report\",\r\n      \"three months from the date of submission of the draft report\",\r\n      \"five months from the date of acceptance of the proposal\",\r\n      \"six months from the date of acceptance of the proposal\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"Para 6.0 of the Guidelines under <b>Section 26<\/b> \u2014 'Submission of final report: Within a month from the date of submission of draft report.' Payment is released in three instalments of twenty, sixty and twenty per cent, keyed to acceptance of the proposal, submission of the draft and acceptance of the final report.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8043,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the training of District Resource Persons under the scheme:\\n1. The duration of the course should be of a minimum of three days.\\n2. The duration of the course should be at most five days.\\n3. It is planned that three District Resource Persons per district will be trained in a year.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"Para 3.0(i) of the Guidelines under <b>Section 26<\/b> contains all three. The course is residential and financial assistance is provided up to two thousand rupees per participant per day.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8044,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"The training programmes conducted at district headquarters for Public Information Officers, Appellate Authorities and office staff are of:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"one day's duration and residential\",\r\n      \"two days' duration and non-residential\",\r\n      \"three days' duration and residential\",\r\n      \"five days' duration and non-residential\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: \"Para 3.0(ii) of the Guidelines under <b>Section 26<\/b> \u2014 'Each course will be non-residential and will be of 2 day duration.' The programmes are conducted by District Resource Persons under the overall supervision of the Administrative Training Institutes, and must include a segment on record management.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8045,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"The training programmes organised for Nodal Officers (RTI) of State public authorities are of:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"one day's duration, for at least twenty-five Nodal Officers in each programme\",\r\n      \"two days' duration, for at least twenty-five Nodal Officers in each programme\",\r\n      \"three days' duration, for at least fifty Nodal Officers in each programme\",\r\n      \"five days' duration, for at least fifty Nodal Officers in each programme\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"Para 3.0(iii) of the Guidelines under <b>Section 26<\/b> \u2014 'ATIs can organize one day training programmes for at least 25 RTI nodal officers of public authorities in each programme regarding the implementation of DoP&T guidelines, dated the 21st November, 2013 on suo motu disclosures.'\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8046,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the periods in a complaint before an Information Commission:\\n1. A complaint may be made by any person.\\n2. No period of limitation is prescribed by the Act for making a complaint.\\n3. The Commission is required to decide the complaint within ninety days.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 18(1)<\/b> supports Statements 1 and 2. Statement 3 is incorrect: no time limit is fixed for the Commission's decision on a complaint. The period of ninety days in <b>Section 19(3)<\/b> is the limitation for preferring a second appeal, not for deciding it.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8047,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding condonation of delay:\\n1. A first appeal may be admitted after thirty days if the appellant was prevented by sufficient cause from filing it in time.\\n2. A second appeal may be admitted after ninety days on the same ground.\\n3. The Act fixes an outer limit beyond which delay cannot be condoned.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"The provisos to <b>Sections 19(1) and 19(3)<\/b> are in identical terms and support Statements 1 and 2. Neither proviso fixes any outer limit, the sole test being the sufficiency of the cause which prevented timely filing.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8048,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. The period of thirty days for a first appeal runs from the expiry of the period specified, or from the receipt of the decision.\\n2. The period of ninety days for a second appeal runs from the date on which the decision should have been made, or was actually received.\\n3. The period of thirty days for a third party appeal runs from the date of the order.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Sections 19(1), 19(3) and 19(2)<\/b> respectively. The three starting points differ deliberately, and the third party's period runs from the date of the order itself rather than from its receipt.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8049,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:\\n\\nList-I (Period)\\nA. One hundred days\\nB. One hundred and twenty days\\nC. Eighteen months\\nD. Two years\\n\\nList-II (Purpose)\\n1. First publication of the specified categories of information\\n2. Designation of Public Information Officers\\n3. Outer limit for orders removing difficulties\\n4. Compilation of the guide by the appropriate Government\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3\",\r\n      \"A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4\",\r\n      \"A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 5(1)<\/b> fixes one hundred days for designation of Public Information Officers; <b>Section 4(1)(b)<\/b> fixes one hundred and twenty days for first publication; <b>Section 26(2)<\/b> fixes eighteen months for the guide; and the proviso to <b>Section 30(1)<\/b> fixes two years as the outer limit for orders removing difficulties.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8050,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. Where the information is not supplied within the specified time-limits, it is to be supplied free of charge.\\n2. Where no decision is given within the specified period, the request is deemed to have been refused.\\n3. Where the request is rejected, the period within which an appeal may be preferred must be communicated to the applicant.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Sections 7(6), 7(2) and 7(8)(ii)<\/b> respectively. The three consequences of delay and rejection operate together, and it was because the particulars of the appellate authority are communicated only on rejection that public authorities were directed to publish those particulars in advance.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8051,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"Arrange the following periods in ascending order of duration:\\n1. Period for the decision on disclosure where a third party has been heard.\\n2. Ordinary period for the disposal of a request for information.\\n3. Period within which information concerning life or liberty is to be provided.\\n4. Period within which a second appeal must be preferred.\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"3-2-1-4\",\r\n      \"3-1-2-4\",\r\n      \"2-3-1-4\",\r\n      \"3-2-4-1\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"Forty-eight hours under the proviso to <b>Section 7(1)<\/b>; thirty days under <b>Section 7(1)<\/b>; forty days under <b>Section 11(3)<\/b>; and ninety days under <b>Section 19(3)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8052,\r\n    chapter: \"Practice Set: Time Limits and Periods\",\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the periods relating to the Information Commissions:\\n1. The Chief Information Commissioner holds office for such term as may be prescribed by the Central Government.\\n2. He shall not hold office after attaining the age of sixty-five years.\\n3. The Act fixes his term at five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.\\n\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: \"<b>Section 13(1)<\/b> and its proviso, as substituted by the Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019, support Statements 1 and 2. Statement 3 states the position before that amendment, when the term was fixed at five years by the sub-section itself.\"\r\n  }\r\n];\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   3. SANITISE + INDEX\r\n   Both banks are checked the same way; bad rows are dropped with a\r\n   console note rather than blanking the widget.\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nfunction sanitise(list, kind){\r\n  if(!Array.isArray(list)) return [];\r\n  const ok=[], bad=[];\r\n  list.forEach((q,i)=>{\r\n    const good = q && q.id!==undefined && typeof q.question==='string'\r\n      && Array.isArray(q.options) && q.options.length>=2\r\n      && Number.isInteger(q.correct) && q.correct>=0 && q.correct<q.options.length\r\n      && typeof q.chapter==='string' && q.chapter.length;\r\n    if(good){ q.bank = kind; ok.push(q); } else bad.push({row:i, id:q&&q.id});\r\n  });\r\n  if(bad.length) console.warn('['+kind+' bank] skipped '+bad.length+' malformed question(s):', bad);\r\n  return ok;\r\n}\r\nconst PYQ = sanitise(pyqQuestions,'pyq');\r\nconst CON = sanitise(conceptQuestions,'concept');\r\nconst QS  = PYQ.concat(CON);\r\n\r\nconst L = ['A','B','C','D','E','F'];\r\nconst uid = q => q.bank+'##'+q.chapter+'##'+q.id;\r\nconst BY_UID = new Map(QS.map(q=>[uid(q), q]));\r\n\r\n\/* ---------------------------------------------------------------------\r\n   Chapters are keyed on their number, so the two banks do not have to\r\n   spell the name identically. 'Ch 2', 'CH 2: Right to Information...'\r\n   and 'Chapter-2' all resolve to the same chapter; the longest spelling\r\n   found in either bank becomes the display name.\r\n   --------------------------------------------------------------------- *\/\r\nconst ROMAN = {i:1,ii:2,iii:3,iv:4,v:5,vi:6,vii:7,viii:8,ix:9,x:10,xi:11,xii:12};\r\nfunction chKey(str){\r\n  const t = String(str).toUpperCase().replace(\/[\\u2010-\\u2015]\/g,'-').trim();\r\n  let m = t.match(\/^(?:CH|CHAP|CHAPTER)\\s*[-.:]?\\s*(\\d+)\/);\r\n  if(m) return 'CH'+(+m[1]);\r\n  m = t.match(\/^(?:APPENDICES|APPENDIX|ANNEXURES?|ANNEXES?|APNDX|APPX|APDX|APP)\\s*[-.:]?\\s*(\\d+|[IVX]+)\\b\/);\r\n  if(m){ const v=m[1]; return 'APP'+(\/^\\d+$\/.test(v) ? +v : (ROMAN[v.toLowerCase()]||v)); }\r\n  m = t.match(\/^(\\d+)\\s*[-.:)]\/);\r\n  if(m) return 'CH'+(+m[1]);\r\n  return 'T:'+t.replace(\/[^A-Z0-9]+\/g,' ').trim();\r\n}\r\nconst CH_NAME = (function(){\r\n  const best={};\r\n  QS.forEach(q=>{ const k=chKey(q.chapter);\r\n    if(!best[k] || q.chapter.length>best[k].length) best[k]=q.chapter; });\r\n  return best;\r\n})();\r\nQS.forEach(q=>{ q.chKey = chKey(q.chapter); q.chapter = CH_NAME[q.chKey]; });\r\n\r\nconst CHAPTERS = (function(){\r\n  const seen=[]; QS.forEach(q=>{ if(!seen.includes(q.chapter)) seen.push(q.chapter); }); return seen;\r\n})();\r\nconst BY_CH = (()=>{ const m=new Map();\r\n  QS.forEach(q=>{ if(!m.has(q.chapter)) m.set(q.chapter,[]); m.get(q.chapter).push(q); }); return m; })();\r\nconst inCh   = c => BY_CH.get(c) || [];\r\nconst inChB  = (c,b) => inCh(c).filter(q=>q.bank===b);\r\n\r\nfunction chOrder(c){\r\n  const k = chKey(c);\r\n  if(k.startsWith('CH'))  return [0, +k.slice(2)||0, c];\r\n  if(k.startsWith('APP')) return [1, +k.slice(3)||99, c];\r\n  return [2, 0, c];\r\n}\r\nfunction byChapterOrder(a,b){\r\n  const x=chOrder(a.chapter||a), y=chOrder(b.chapter||b);\r\n  return x[0]-y[0] || x[1]-y[1] || String(x[2]).localeCompare(String(y[2]));\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* a bank that stores chapter names in block capitals is softened for display *\/\r\nfunction titleCase(str){\r\n  const t=String(str), letters=t.replace(\/[^A-Za-z]\/g,'');\r\n  if(!letters || letters !== letters.toUpperCase()) return t;\r\n  const small=new Set(['of','the','and','for','in','to','a','an','on','by','or','with','from','as','at','under']);\r\n  return t.toLowerCase().replace(\/[A-Za-z][A-Za-z'\\u2019]*\/g,(w,i)=>\r\n    (i>0 && small.has(w)) ? w : w.charAt(0).toUpperCase()+w.slice(1))\r\n    .replace(\/\\bCh\\b\/g,'Ch').replace(\/\\bC&ag\\b\/gi,'C&AG').replace(\/\\bRti\\b\/g,'RTI');\r\n}\r\nconst chShort = c => { const k=chKey(c);\r\n  return k.startsWith('CH') ? 'Ch '+k.slice(2) : k.startsWith('APP') ? 'Appx '+k.slice(3) : titleCase(c).slice(0,22); };\r\nconst chBrief = c => { const m=String(c).match(\/^\\s*(?:CH|CHAPTER)\\s*(\\d+)\\s*:\\s*(.+)$\/i);\r\n  const cap=t=>t.length>40?t.slice(0,38).trim()+'\\u2026':t;\r\n  return m ? 'Ch '+m[1]+': '+cap(titleCase(m[2])) : cap(titleCase(String(c))); };\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   4. EXAM WEIGHT \u2014 counted, not declared\r\n   A chapter's weight is its share of the PYQ bank. Nothing is set by\r\n   hand, so adding a year of papers re-weights the whole page. If there\r\n   are no PYQs at all, the page falls back to the concept bank's shape\r\n   and stops calling it exam weight.\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nconst W = (function(){\r\n  const pyqCount={}, conCount={};\r\n  CHAPTERS.forEach(c=>{ pyqCount[c]=inChB(c,'pyq').length; conCount[c]=inChB(c,'concept').length; });\r\n  const totalPyq = PYQ.length, totalCon = CON.length;\r\n  const weights={};\r\n  if(totalPyq>0) CHAPTERS.forEach(c=>weights[c]=pyqCount[c]\/totalPyq);\r\n  else           CHAPTERS.forEach(c=>weights[c]= totalCon?conCount[c]\/totalCon:0);\r\n  \/\/ chapters the paper has never touched\r\n  const untested = CHAPTERS.filter(c=>pyqCount[c]===0 && conCount[c]>0);\r\n  return {weights, pyqCount, conCount, totalPyq, totalCon, untested, measured: totalPyq>0};\r\n})();\r\nconst weightOf = c => W.weights[c] || 0;\r\nconst pctLabel = x => { const v=(x||0)*100; if(!(v>0)) return '0%';\r\n  return (v<10 ? Math.round(v*10)\/10 : Math.round(v)) + '%'; };\r\n\r\n\/* wording \u2014 weights are counted from real papers here, so the exam\r\n   language is accurate; it softens on its own if no PYQs are loaded *\/\r\nconst WT = W.measured;\r\nconst T = {\r\n  ofPaper   : WT ? 'of the exam'          : 'of this bank',\r\n  onScreen  : WT ? 'Exam weight on screen': 'Share on screen',\r\n  colWeight : WT ? 'Exam weight'          : 'Share of bank',\r\n  covered   : WT ? 'Paper weight touched' : 'Bank covered',\r\n  projected : WT ? 'Projected paper score': 'Projected score',\r\n  leakHead  : WT ? 'Where your marks are leaking' : 'Where you are losing the most',\r\n  leakUnit  : WT ? 'marks \/100'           : 'points \/100',\r\n  leakWord  : WT ? 'marks'                : 'points',\r\n  readyDef  : WT ? 'Readiness = \\u03a3 (exam weight \\u00d7 mastery)' : 'Readiness = \\u03a3 (share of the bank \\u00d7 mastery)',\r\n  paperOut  : WT ? 'the paper would come out near' : 'you would score around'\r\n};\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   6. PROGRESS (localStorage, one record per quizId)\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nconst SCHEMA = 1;\r\nconst KEY = 'pe_chapterdrill_' + CFG.quizId;\r\nfunction blank(){ return { schema:SCHEMA, stats:{}, weak:[], flags:[], log:[], queue:[], queueLabel:'', queueKind:'', lastUid:null }; }\r\nlet P = (function(){\r\n  const p = blank();\r\n  try{\r\n    const s = localStorage.getItem(KEY);\r\n    if(s){ const j=JSON.parse(s);\r\n      if(j && j.schema===SCHEMA) Object.assign(p, j);\r\n      else if(j) console.warn('[storage] older schema found; starting fresh.');\r\n    }\r\n  }catch(e){ console.warn('progress load failed', e); }\r\n  ['weak','flags','log','queue'].forEach(k=>{ if(!Array.isArray(p[k])) p[k]=[]; });\r\n  if(!p.stats) p.stats={};\r\n  return p;\r\n})();\r\nlet storageWarned=false;\r\nfunction save(){\r\n  try{\r\n    if(P.log.length>400) P.log = P.log.slice(-400);\r\n    localStorage.setItem(KEY, JSON.stringify(P));\r\n  }catch(e){\r\n    try{ P.log = P.log.slice(-80); localStorage.setItem(KEY, JSON.stringify(P)); }\r\n    catch(e2){ if(!storageWarned){ storageWarned=true; toast('Your browser is blocking saved progress \u2014 this sitting will not be remembered'); } }\r\n  }\r\n}\r\nfunction stat(u){ if(!P.stats[u]) P.stats[u]={correct:0,incorrect:0,last:null,lastOk:null}; return P.stats[u]; }\r\nconst flags = new Set(P.flags);\r\nconst weak  = new Set(P.weak);\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   7. SESSION STATE\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nconst S = { tab:'quiz', filter:'all', chapter:null, bank:'all', i:0, pick:null, nudge:false,\r\n            query:'', unattempted:false, ans:{}, order:[] };\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   8. FORMAT + TRAIT MODEL\r\n   SHAPE  = how the question is built (one per question)\r\n   TRAIT  = what it turns on (a question may carry several)\r\n   A shape gap is a reading habit; a trait gap is recall. Same number,\r\n   opposite remedy \u2014 so they are reported separately.\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nconst SHAPES = [\r\n  { key:'match',  label:'Match the following (List-I \/ List-II)',\r\n    test:q => \/list\\s*-?\\s*i\\b\/i.test(q.question) },\r\n  { key:'multi',  label:'Multi-statement \/ how many are correct',\r\n    test:q => q.question.split(\/<br\\s*\\\/?>|\\n\/).filter(x=>\/^\\s*\\d+[.)]\/.test(x)).length>=2 },\r\n  { key:'direct', label:'Explanation', test:()=>true }  \/\/ catch-all\r\n];\r\nconst TRAITS = [\r\n  { key:'cite',      label:'Para, rule, article or article-number recall',\r\n    test:q => \/\\b(para|paragraph|rule|article|section|appendix|schedule|clause)\\s*[-\u2013]?\\s*\\d\/i.test(q.question+' '+q.options.join(' ')) },\r\n  { key:'period',    label:'Time limits and periods',\r\n    test:q => \/\\b\\d+\\s*(day|week|month|year|hour)s?\\b|\\b(one|two|three|four|five|six|seven|ten|fourteen|fifteen|twenty|twenty-five|thirty|forty-five|sixty|ninety)[\\s-](day|week|month|year)s?\\b\/i.test(q.options.join(' ')) },\r\n  { key:'money',     label:'Numbers, monetary limits and percentages',\r\n    test:q => \/\u20b9|\\bRs\\.?\\s*\\d|\\blakhs?\\b|\\bcrores?\\b|per\\s*cent|%|\\bone-(third|fourth|half|tenth)\\b\/i.test(q.options.join(' ')) },\r\n  { key:'authority', label:'Competent authority \/ level \/ who does what',\r\n    test:q => \/\\bwho\\b|\\bby whom\\b|\\bauthority\\b|\\brank of\\b|\\blevel of\\b|\\bnot below\\b|addressed to|shall be (signed|issued|approved|maintained|prepared|submitted)\/i.test(q.question+' '+q.options.join(' ')) },\r\n  { key:'negative',  label:'Negatively phrased (\u201cNOT correct\u201d, \u201cexcept\u201d)',\r\n    test:q => \/\\bnot correct\\b|\\bis incorrect\\b|\\bare not correct\\b|\\bexcept\\b|\\bdoes not\\b|\\bcannot\\b|\\bnot required\\b|\\bneed not\\b|\\bis\\\/are not\\b\/i.test(q.question) }\r\n];\r\nconst _shape = {};\r\nfunction shapeOf(q){ const u=uid(q); return _shape[u] || (_shape[u] = SHAPES.find(s=>s.test(q)) || SHAPES[SHAPES.length-1]); }\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   9. MODELS\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nfunction smoothed(c,i){ const k=CFG.priorStrength, p0=CFG.priorAccuracy; return (c + k*p0)\/(c + i + k); }\r\nfunction expectedRate(c,i,coverage){ return smoothed(c,i)*coverage + CFG.priorAccuracy*(1-coverage); }\r\nfunction recall(st){\r\n  if(!st || !st.last || st.correct<2) return null;\r\n  const R=CFG.retention, reps=Math.max(1, st.correct - st.incorrect);\r\n  const stability = R.baseDays * Math.pow(R.growth, reps-1);\r\n  return Math.exp(-((Date.now()-st.last)\/86400000)\/stability);\r\n}\r\nfunction retentionIndex(){\r\n  let s=0,n=0; QS.forEach(q=>{ const r=recall(P.stats[uid(q)]); if(r!==null){s+=r;n++;} });\r\n  return n ? Math.round(s\/n*100) : null;\r\n}\r\nfunction bankStats(c, bank){\r\n  const qs = inChB(c, bank);\r\n  let att=0, ok=0, bad=0, mastSum=0;\r\n  qs.forEach(q=>{ const st=P.stats[uid(q)];\r\n    if(st && (st.correct+st.incorrect)>0){ att++; ok+=st.correct; bad+=st.incorrect; }\r\n    mastSum += st ? Math.min(st.correct\/CFG.masteryThreshold,1) : 0; });\r\n  return { count:qs.length, att, ok, bad,\r\n           acc:(ok+bad)?ok\/(ok+bad):null,\r\n           coverage: qs.length?att\/qs.length:0,\r\n           mastery: qs.length?mastSum\/qs.length:0 };\r\n}\r\nfunction chapterRows(){\r\n  return CHAPTERS.map(c=>{\r\n    const pyq = bankStats(c,'pyq'), con = bankStats(c,'concept');\r\n    const count = pyq.count+con.count, att = pyq.att+con.att;\r\n    const ok = pyq.ok+con.ok, bad = pyq.bad+con.bad;\r\n    const acc = (ok+bad) ? ok\/(ok+bad) : null;\r\n    const weight = weightOf(c);\r\n    const coverage = count?att\/count:0;\r\n    const mastery  = count ? (pyq.mastery*pyq.count + con.mastery*con.count)\/count : 0;\r\n    const expected = expectedRate(ok,bad,coverage);\r\n    const leak = weight*(1-expected);\r\n    const difficulty = acc===null ? 1 : (1.4 - 0.6*acc);\r\n    return { chapter:c, count, weight, pyq, con, att, ok, bad,\r\n             coverage, acc, mastery, expected, leak,\r\n             priority: weight*(1-mastery)*difficulty };\r\n  }).sort((a,b)=>b.weight-a.weight);\r\n}\r\nfunction readiness(){\r\n  const rows=chapterRows();\r\n  return {\r\n    score     : Math.round(rows.reduce((a,r)=>a+r.weight*r.mastery,0)*100),\r\n    projected : Math.round(rows.reduce((a,r)=>a+r.weight*r.expected,0)*100),\r\n    covered   : Math.round(rows.reduce((a,r)=>a+r.weight*r.coverage,0)*100),\r\n    touched   : Object.values(P.stats).some(s=>(s.correct+s.incorrect)>0),\r\n    rows\r\n  };\r\n}\r\nfunction masteredCount(){ return QS.filter(q=>{ const s=P.stats[uid(q)]; return s && s.correct>=CFG.masteryThreshold; }).length; }\r\nfunction formatRows(){\r\n  const acc={};\r\n  const ensure=(k,l,kind)=> acc[k] || (acc[k]={key:k,label:l,kind:kind,ok:0,bad:0,total:0,seen:0});\r\n  SHAPES.forEach(s=>ensure(s.key,s.label,'shape'));\r\n  TRAITS.forEach(t=>ensure(t.key,t.label,'trait'));\r\n  QS.forEach(q=>{\r\n    const s=P.stats[uid(q)], buckets=[acc[shapeOf(q).key]];\r\n    TRAITS.forEach(t=>{ if(t.test(q)) buckets.push(acc[t.key]); });\r\n    buckets.forEach(r=>{ r.total++; if(s && (s.correct+s.incorrect)>0){ r.seen++; r.ok+=s.correct; r.bad+=s.incorrect; } });\r\n  });\r\n  return Object.values(acc).map(r=>{ const n=r.ok+r.bad; r.attempts=n; r.acc = n? r.ok\/n : null; return r; })\r\n    .filter(r=>r.total>0);\r\n}\r\nfunction dueForRevision(){\r\n  const risk=CFG.retention.riskBelow;\r\n  return QS.map(q=>{\r\n    const st=P.stats[uid(q)], r=recall(st);\r\n    if(r===null || r>=risk) return null;\r\n    return { q, recall:r, days:Math.floor((Date.now()-st.last)\/86400000), urgency: weightOf(q.chapter)*(1-r) };\r\n  }).filter(Boolean).sort((a,b)=>b.urgency-a.urgency);\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   10. SESSION PLANNER\r\n   Focused set \u2014 chapter time in proportion to the marks leaking out.\r\n   Mock paper  \u2014 ignores your history, mirrors the shape of the bank.\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nfunction gain(q){\r\n  const u=uid(q), st=P.stats[u], c=st?st.correct:0, i=st?st.incorrect:0;\r\n  const deficit = 1 - Math.min(c\/CFG.masteryThreshold, 1);\r\n  let urgency = 1 + 0.15*deficit;\r\n  if(weak.has(u)) urgency += 0.60;\r\n  const r = recall(st);\r\n  if(r!==null && r<CFG.retention.riskBelow) urgency += (1-r);\r\n  if(c+i===0) urgency += 0.15;\r\n  return weightOf(q.chapter)*(deficit+0.12)*urgency;\r\n}\r\nfunction allocate(rows,n,shareOf){\r\n  const total = rows.reduce((a,r)=>a+Math.max(0,shareOf(r)),0);\r\n  if(!(total>0)) return rows.map(r=>({r,slots:0}));\r\n  const out = rows.map(r=>{ const exact=n*Math.max(0,shareOf(r))\/total;\r\n    return {r, exact, slots:Math.min(Math.floor(exact), r.count)}; });\r\n  let left = n - out.reduce((a,x)=>a+x.slots,0);\r\n  out.slice().sort((a,b)=>(b.exact-b.slots)-(a.exact-a.slots))\r\n     .forEach(x=>{ if(left>0 && x.slots<x.r.count){ x.slots++; left--; } });\r\n  if(left>0) out.slice().sort((a,b)=>shareOf(b.r)-shareOf(a.r))\r\n     .forEach(x=>{ while(left>0 && x.slots<x.r.count){ x.slots++; left--; } });\r\n  return out;\r\n}\r\n\/* Fisher\u2013Yates, so the order of a sitting is never the order of the bank *\/\r\nfunction shuffle(a){\r\n  for(let i=a.length-1;i>0;i--){ const j=Math.floor(Math.random()*(i+1)); [a[i],a[j]]=[a[j],a[i]]; }\r\n  return a;\r\n}\r\n\/* Weighted sampling without replacement: a high score makes a question\r\n   likely, never certain. Two sittings built back to back therefore share\r\n   only part of their content instead of being identical. *\/\r\nfunction sampleWeighted(pool, n, scoreFn){\r\n  const items = pool.map(q=>({q, w:Math.max(scoreFn(q), 1e-9)}));\r\n  const out=[];\r\n  n = Math.min(n, items.length);\r\n  for(let k=0;k<n;k++){\r\n    let total=0; items.forEach(x=>total+=x.w);\r\n    let r=Math.random()*total, hit=items.length-1;\r\n    for(let i=0;i<items.length;i++){ r-=items[i].w; if(r<=0){ hit=i; break; } }\r\n    out.push(items[hit].q);\r\n    items.splice(hit,1);\r\n  }\r\n  return out;\r\n}\r\nfunction buildSession(kind){\r\n  const only = kind==='pyq' ? 'pyq' : null;\r\n  const rows = chapterRows().filter(r=> only ? r[only].count>0 : r.count>0);\r\n  if(!rows.length) return 0;\r\n  const cap = kind==='mock' ? CFG.mockSize : kind==='pyq' ? CFG.pyqSize : CFG.sessionSize;\r\n  const n = Math.min(cap, only==='pyq' ? PYQ.length : QS.length);\r\n  const share = kind==='focus' ? (r=>r.leak) : (r=>r.weight);\r\n  const alloc = allocate(rows.map(r=>only?Object.assign({},r,{count:r[only].count}):r), n, share);\r\n\r\n  \/\/ whatever you were given last time is pushed down, not banned\r\n  const last = new Set(P.queue||[]);\r\n  const fresh = u => last.has(u) ? 0.3 : 1;\r\n\r\n  const picked=[];\r\n  alloc.forEach(({r,slots})=>{\r\n    if(!slots) return;\r\n    const pool = only ? inChB(r.chapter,only).slice() : inCh(r.chapter).slice();\r\n    if(kind==='mock' || kind==='pyq'){\r\n      \/\/ the mock ignores how well you know a question and simply spreads\r\n      \/\/ itself over the bank, favouring what you have seen least\r\n      picked.push(...sampleWeighted(pool, slots, q=>{\r\n        const st=P.stats[uid(q)], seen=st?(st.correct+st.incorrect):0;\r\n        const stale=(st&&st.last) ? Math.min((Date.now()-st.last)\/(86400000*30),1) : 1;\r\n        return (1\/(1+seen*1.6) + 0.35*stale) * fresh(uid(q));\r\n      }));\r\n    } else {\r\n      picked.push(...sampleWeighted(pool, slots, q=>gain(q)*fresh(uid(q))));\r\n    }\r\n  });\r\n  shuffle(picked);\r\n  P.queue = picked.map(uid);\r\n  P.queueLabel = kind==='mock' ? 'Mock paper' : kind==='pyq' ? 'PYQ paper' : 'Focused set';\r\n  P.queueKind = kind;\r\n  save();\r\n  return picked.length;\r\n}\r\nfunction startSession(kind){\r\n  const had = (P.queue||[]).length;\r\n  const n = buildSession(kind);\r\n  if(!n){ toast('Nothing to build a session from yet'); return; }\r\n  setTab('quiz'); setFilter('session');\r\n  S.ans = {};                                   \/\/ a new sitting starts clean\r\n  toast(P.queueLabel+' ready \u2014 '+n+' fresh questions'+(had?' (previous set replaced)':''), true);\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   11. POOL \/ FILTERS\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nfunction pool(){\r\n  let p = QS.slice();\r\n  if(S.filter==='pyq')     p = p.filter(q=>q.bank==='pyq');\r\n  if(S.filter==='concept') p = p.filter(q=>q.bank==='concept');\r\n  if(S.filter==='chapter' && S.chapter){\r\n    p = inCh(S.chapter).slice();\r\n    if(S.bank!=='all') p = p.filter(q=>q.bank===S.bank);\r\n  }\r\n  if(S.filter==='weak')    p = p.filter(q=>weak.has(uid(q)));\r\n  if(S.filter==='flagged') p = p.filter(q=>flags.has(uid(q)));\r\n  if(S.filter==='session') p = (P.queue||[]).map(u=>BY_UID.get(u)).filter(Boolean);\r\n  if(S.query){ const t=S.query.toLowerCase();\r\n    p = p.filter(q=>(q.question+' '+q.options.join(' ')+' '+q.explanation).toLowerCase().includes(t)); }\r\n  if(S.unattempted) p = p.filter(q=>S.ans[uid(q)]==null);\r\n  return p;\r\n}\r\nfunction refreshWeak(){\r\n  weak.clear();\r\n  QS.forEach(q=>{ const s=P.stats[uid(q)];\r\n    if(s && s.incorrect>=CFG.weakThreshold && s.correct<CFG.masteryThreshold) weak.add(uid(q)); });\r\n  P.weak=[...weak];\r\n}\r\nrefreshWeak();\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   12. STEM RENDERING (statements + List-I \/ List-II)\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nconst cleanStem = t => String(t).replace(\/^\\s*(?:Q|Question)\\s*\\.?\\s*\\d+\\s*[.):\\-]\\s*\/i,'').trim();\r\nconst QN = '<span class=\"qno\">Q.<\/span>';   \/\/ the marker printed before every stem\r\nfunction buildStem(raw){\r\n  const lines = raw.split(\/<br\\s*\\\/?>|\\n\/).map(s=>s.trim()).filter(Boolean);\r\n  const plain = s => s.replace(\/<\\\/?b>\/g,'').trim();\r\n  const isMatch = lines.some(l=>\/^List\\s*[-\u2013\u2014]?\\s*I\\b\/i.test(plain(l)));\r\n  const numbered = lines.filter(l=>\/^\\d+[.)]\\s\/.test(plain(l)));\r\n  if(isMatch) return matchCard(lines, plain);\r\n  if(numbered.length>=2) return stmtCard(lines, plain);\r\n  return plainCard(lines);\r\n}\r\n\/* a single-statement question gets the same sheet as the other two, so\r\n   every question on the page reads the same way *\/\r\nfunction plainCard(lines){\r\n  return '<div class=\"stem\" id=\"qStem\"><div class=\"qsheet\">'\r\n    + lines.map((l,i)=>'<p class=\"'+(i===0?'lead':'close')+'\">'+(i===0?QN:'')+l+'<\/p>').join('')\r\n    + '<\/div><\/div>';\r\n}\r\nfunction stmtCard(lines, plain){\r\n  const isN = l => \/^\\d+[.)]\\s\/.test(plain(l));\r\n  const first = lines.findIndex(isN);\r\n  let last=-1; lines.forEach((l,i)=>{ if(isN(l)) last=i; });\r\n  const head = lines.slice(0,first), tail = lines.slice(last+1);\r\n  const items = lines.slice(first,last+1).filter(isN).map(l=>plain(l).replace(\/^\\d+[.)]\\s*\/,''));\r\n  return '<div class=\"stem\" id=\"qStem\"><div class=\"qsheet\">'\r\n    + head.map((l,i)=>'<p class=\"'+(i===0?'lead':'intro')+'\">'+(i===0?QN:'')+l+'<\/p>').join('')\r\n    + '<ol class=\"stmts\">'+items.map(t=>'<li><span>'+t+'<\/span><\/li>').join('')+'<\/ol>'\r\n    + tail.map(l=>'<p class=\"close\">'+l+'<\/p>').join('')\r\n    + '<\/div><\/div>';\r\n}\r\n\/* Match-the-following comes in every shape: one item per line, or the\r\n   whole list run together on a single line separated by semicolons or\r\n   commas, or nothing at all between items. All three are split here so\r\n   the two columns always come out as proper rows. *\/\r\nfunction splitItems(body, kind){\r\n  const lab = kind==='alpha' ? '[A-Fa-f]' : '\\\\d{1,2}';\r\n  const mk  = re => new RegExp(re.replace('LAB', lab), 'g');\r\n  let parts = body.split(mk('\\\\s*[;\\\\n]\\\\s*(?=LAB\\\\s*[.):]\\\\s)'));\r\n  if(parts.length < 2) parts = body.split(mk('\\\\s*,\\\\s*(?=LAB\\\\s*[.):]\\\\s)'));\r\n  if(parts.length < 2) parts = body.split(mk('(?<=\\\\S)\\\\s+(?=LAB\\\\s*[.)]\\\\s)'));\r\n  const re = new RegExp('^\\\\s*('+lab+')\\\\s*[.):]\\\\s*(.+?)\\\\s*[;,.]?\\\\s*$');\r\n  return parts.map(p=>{ const m=String(p).match(re);\r\n    return m ? {k:m[1].toUpperCase(), v:m[2]} : null; }).filter(Boolean);\r\n}\r\nfunction matchCard(lines, plain){\r\n  \/\/ keep line breaks, normalise only runs of spaces\r\n  const text = lines.map(plain).join('\\n').replace(\/[ \\t]+\/g,' ').trim();\r\n\r\n  \/* The opening line almost always names both lists \u2014 \"Match List-I with\r\n     List-II and select\u2026\" \u2014 so the first occurrence of each is the wrong\r\n     one. Take the last List-I that actually has items after it, and the\r\n     first List-II following that. *\/\r\n  const at = re => [...text.matchAll(re)].map(m=>m.index);\r\n  const posI  = at(\/List\\s*[-\u2013\u2014]?\\s*I\\b\/gi);\r\n  const posII = at(\/List\\s*[-\u2013\u2014]?\\s*II\\b\/gi);\r\n  const hasItems = (str,kind) =>\r\n    (kind==='alpha' ? \/[A-F]\\s*[.):]\\s\/ : \/\\d{1,2}\\s*[.):]\\s\/).test(str);\r\n  let iI=-1, iII=-1;\r\n  for(let k=posI.length-1;k>=0 && iI<0;k--){\r\n    const ii = posII.find(x=>x>posI[k]);\r\n    if(ii===undefined) continue;\r\n    if(hasItems(text.slice(posI[k],ii),'alpha') && hasItems(text.slice(ii),'num')){ iI=posI[k]; iII=ii; }\r\n  }\r\n  if(iI<0 || iII<0) return plainCard(lines);\r\n\r\n  const head  = text.slice(0, iI).trim();\r\n  let segI    = text.slice(iI, iII).trim();\r\n  let segII   = text.slice(iII).trim();\r\n\r\n  \/\/ anything after the lists \u2014 \"Code :\", \"Select the correct answer\u2026\"\r\n  let tail = '';\r\n  const t = segII.match(\/(?:\\n|\\s)(Code\\s*[:.]?\\s*$|(?:Select|Choose)\\b[\\s\\S]*$)\/i);\r\n  if(t){ tail = t[1].trim(); segII = segII.slice(0, t.index).trim(); }\r\n\r\n  \/\/ column captions: \"List-I (Purpose of Leave) :\"\r\n  const capRe = \/^List\\s*[-\u2013\u2014]?\\s*I{1,2}\\b\\s*(\\([^)]*\\))?\\s*[:.]?\\s*\/i;\r\n  const hI  = segI.match(capRe),  hII = segII.match(capRe);\r\n  const capI  = hI  ? hI[0].replace(\/[\\s:.]+$\/,'')  : 'List-I';\r\n  const capII = hII ? hII[0].replace(\/[\\s:.]+$\/,'') : 'List-II';\r\n  const rowsI  = splitItems(hI  ? segI.slice(hI[0].length)  : segI,  'alpha');\r\n  const rowsII = splitItems(hII ? segII.slice(hII[0].length): segII, 'num');\r\n  if(!rowsI.length || !rowsII.length) return plainCard(lines);\r\n\r\n  const cell = x => '<li><b>'+x.k+'.<\/b><span>'+x.v+'<\/span><\/li>';\r\n  const headLines = head ? head.split('\\n').filter(Boolean) : [];\r\n  return '<div class=\"stem\" id=\"qStem\"><div class=\"qsheet\">'\r\n    + (headLines.length\r\n        ? headLines.map((l,i)=>'<p class=\"'+(i===0?'lead':'intro')+'\">'+(i===0?QN:'')+l+'<\/p>').join('')\r\n        : '<p class=\"lead\">'+QN+'Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:<\/p>')\r\n    + '<div class=\"lists\">'\r\n      + '<div class=\"lcol\"><h5>'+capI+'<\/h5><ul>'+rowsI.map(cell).join('')+'<\/ul><\/div>'\r\n      + '<div class=\"lcol\"><h5>'+capII+'<\/h5><ul>'+rowsII.map(cell).join('')+'<\/ul><\/div>'\r\n    + '<\/div>'\r\n    + '<p class=\"close\">'+(tail || 'Select the correct answer using the code given below:')+'<\/p>'\r\n    + '<\/div><\/div>';\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   13. UI HELPERS\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nconst $ = id => document.getElementById(id);\r\nlet toastTimer=null;\r\nfunction toast(msg, ok){\r\n  const t=$('toast'); t.innerHTML=msg; t.className='toast show'+(ok?' ok':'');\r\n  clearTimeout(toastTimer); toastTimer=setTimeout(()=>t.className='toast',3000);\r\n}\r\nconst SRC_ON = !!(CFG.sourceUrl && CFG.sourceUrl.trim());\r\nconst stripHtml = s => String(s).replace(\/<[^>]+>\/g,'').replace(\/\\s+\/g,' ').trim();\r\nconst preview = (q,n) => { const t=stripHtml(q.question); return t.length>n ? t.slice(0,n)+'\u2026' : t; };\r\nfunction stars(u){\r\n  const s=P.stats[u]; if(!s || (s.correct+s.incorrect)===0) return null;\r\n  return { filled: Math.min(s.correct, CFG.masteryThreshold), c:s.correct, i:s.incorrect };\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   14. RENDER \u2014 PRACTICE\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nfunction renderCtx(){\r\n  const panel=$('chapPanel');\r\n  const on = S.filter==='chapter';\r\n  panel.classList.toggle('hide', !on);\r\n  if(!on) return;\r\n  document.querySelectorAll('#cdRoot .bankseg button').forEach(b=>\r\n    b.setAttribute('aria-pressed', b.dataset.bank===S.bank));\r\n  const rows = chapterRows().filter(r=>r.count>0).sort(byChapterOrder);\r\n  if(!S.chapter || !rows.some(r=>r.chapter===S.chapter)) S.chapter = rows[0] ? rows[0].chapter : null;\r\n  $('chapList').innerHTML = rows.map((r,n)=>{\r\n    const sel = r.chapter===S.chapter;\r\n    const mastered = inCh(r.chapter).filter(q=>{ const s=P.stats[uid(q)]; return s && s.correct>=CFG.masteryThreshold; }).length;\r\n    const title = r.chapter+(WT?' \u2014 '+pctLabel(r.weight)+' of the exam':'')\r\n                + ' \u00b7 '+r.pyq.count+' PYQs, '+r.con.count+' concept MCQs \u00b7 '\r\n                + Math.round(r.coverage*100)+'% seen'+(mastered?' \u00b7 '+mastered+' mastered':'');\r\n    return '<button class=\"chapchip\" aria-pressed=\"'+sel+'\" data-ch=\"'+encodeURIComponent(r.chapter)+'\" title=\"'+title+'\">'\r\n      + '<span class=\"no\">'+(n+1)+'<\/span>'\r\n      + '<span class=\"cn\">'+titleCase(r.chapter)+'<\/span>'\r\n      + (WT ? '<span class=\"cw\">'+pctLabel(r.weight)+' of exam<\/span>' : '')\r\n      + (mastered===r.count ? '<span class=\"done\">\u2713<\/span>' : '')\r\n      + '<span class=\"cc pyq\" title=\"previous year questions\">'+r.pyq.count+'<\/span>'\r\n      + '<span class=\"cc con\" title=\"concept MCQs\">'+r.con.count+'<\/span><\/button>';\r\n  }).join('');\r\n  const r = rows.find(x=>x.chapter===S.chapter);\r\n  $('ctxMeta').textContent = r\r\n    ? Math.round(r.coverage*100)+'% seen \u00b7 '+(r.acc===null?'not attempted':Math.round(r.acc*100)+'% accurate')\r\n    : '';\r\n}\r\nfunction render(){\r\n  renderCtx();\r\n  const p = pool();\r\n  const ec = $('emptyCard');\r\n  if(!p.length){\r\n    $('qCard').classList.add('hide'); ec.classList.remove('hide');\r\n    $('emptyBody').innerHTML =\r\n      S.query    ? '<b>No match for \u201c'+S.query+'\u201d<\/b>Try a rule or paragraph number, or a phrase like \u201cpart file\u201d.' :\r\n      S.filter==='weak'    ? '<b>No weak areas yet<\/b>Anything you answer wrong lands here until you have it right '+CFG.masteryThreshold+' times.' :\r\n      S.filter==='flagged' ? '<b>Nothing flagged yet<\/b>Press <b style=\"display:inline\">Flag for review<\/b> under any question and it collects here.' :\r\n      S.filter==='session' ? '<b>No session built yet<\/b>Open My Performance and build a Focused set or a Mock paper.' :\r\n      S.unattempted        ? '<b>You have attempted everything here<\/b>Turn off \u201cUnattempted only\u201d to revise what you have done.' :\r\n                             '<b>No questions in this selection<\/b>Clear the search or pick another chapter.';\r\n    renderNav(p); rail(p); return;\r\n  }\r\n  ec.classList.add('hide'); $('qCard').classList.remove('hide');\r\n  if(S.i>=p.length) S.i=0; if(S.i<0) S.i=p.length-1;\r\n\r\n  const q=p[S.i], u=uid(q), given=S.ans[u];\r\n  $('qCount').textContent = 'Question '+(S.i+1)+' of '+p.length;\r\n  $('qChap').textContent  = chBrief(q.chapter);\r\n  const src=$('qSrc');\r\n  src.className = 'badge-src '+(q.bank==='pyq'?'pyq':'con');\r\n  src.textContent = q.bank==='pyq' ? ('PYQ'+(q.year?' '+q.year:'')) : 'Concept';\r\n  const tags=[];\r\n  if(weak.has(u))  tags.push('<span class=\"qtag weak\">\u26a0\ufe0f Weak<\/span>');\r\n  if(flags.has(u)) tags.push('<span class=\"qtag flag\">\ud83d\udd16 Flagged<\/span>');\r\n  const sMast=P.stats[u];\r\n  if(sMast && sMast.correct>=CFG.masteryThreshold) tags.push('<span class=\"qtag done\">\u2713 Mastered<\/span>');\r\n  $('qTags').innerHTML = tags.join('');\r\n  const st = stars(u), badge=$('qMastery');\r\n  if(!st){ badge.textContent='Not seen yet'; badge.className='badge-m'; }\r\n  else {\r\n    const done = st.c>=CFG.masteryThreshold;\r\n    badge.textContent = '\u2605'.repeat(st.filled)+'\u2606'.repeat(Math.max(0,CFG.masteryThreshold-st.filled))+'  '+st.c+'\u2713 '+st.i+'\u2717';\r\n    badge.className = 'badge-m'+(weak.has(u)&&!done?' weak':'');\r\n  }\r\n  $('qStem').outerHTML = buildStem(cleanStem(q.question));\r\n\r\n  const box=$('qOpts'); box.innerHTML='';\r\n  q.options.forEach((o,k)=>{\r\n    const b=document.createElement('button');\r\n    b.className='opt';\r\n    b.innerHTML='<span class=\"key\">('+L[k].toLowerCase()+')<\/span><span class=\"txt\">'+o+'<\/span>';\r\n    if(given!=null){\r\n      b.disabled=true;\r\n      if(k===q.correct){ b.classList.add('right'); b.insertAdjacentHTML('beforeend','<span class=\"mark r\">Correct<\/span>'); }\r\n      else if(k===given){ b.classList.add('wrong'); b.insertAdjacentHTML('beforeend','<span class=\"mark w\">Your answer<\/span>'); }\r\n    } else if(S.pick===k) b.classList.add('sel');\r\n    b.onclick=()=>{ if(given!=null) return; S.pick=k; S.nudge=false; render(); };\r\n    box.appendChild(b);\r\n  });\r\n\r\n  const bc=$('btnCheck');\r\n  bc.disabled = given!=null;\r\n  bc.textContent = given!=null ? 'Answered \u2713' : 'Check answer';\r\n  $('pickHint').classList.toggle('hide', !(given==null && S.pick==null && S.nudge));\r\n  const on = flags.has(u);\r\n  $('btnFlag').setAttribute('aria-pressed', on);\r\n  $('flagIco').textContent = on ? '\ud83d\udd16' : '\ud83c\udff3\ufe0f';\r\n  $('flagTxt').textContent = on ? 'Flagged' : 'Flag for review';\r\n\r\n  const res=$('result');\r\n  res.classList.toggle('hide', given==null);\r\n  if(given!=null){\r\n    const ok = given===q.correct, v=$('verdict');\r\n    v.className='verdict '+(ok?'r':'w');\r\n    v.innerHTML = ok ? '\u2713 Correct \u2014 '+L[q.correct]+' is right'\r\n                     : '\u2715 Not quite \u2014 the answer is '+L[q.correct];\r\n    $('explBody').innerHTML = q.explanation;\r\n  }\r\n  renderNav(p); rail(p);\r\n}\r\nlet navOpen=true;\r\nfunction renderNav(p){\r\n  const card=$('navCard');\r\n  if(!p.length){ card.classList.add('hide'); return; }\r\n  card.classList.remove('hide');\r\n  const done=p.filter(q=>S.ans[uid(q)]!=null).length;\r\n  $('navTitle').textContent = 'Navigator \u2014 '+done+' of '+p.length+' attempted';\r\n  const g=$('navGrid');\r\n  g.classList.toggle('hide', !navOpen);\r\n  $('navToggle').textContent = navOpen ? 'Hide' : 'Show';\r\n  if(!navOpen) return;\r\n  g.innerHTML='';\r\n  p.forEach((q,k)=>{\r\n    const u=uid(q), a=S.ans[u], s=P.stats[u];\r\n    const b=document.createElement('button');\r\n    b.className='nq'+(k===S.i?' cur':(a!=null?(a===q.correct?' r':' w'):''))\r\n              + (s && s.correct>=CFG.masteryThreshold ? ' mastered':'');\r\n    b.innerHTML=(k+1)+(flags.has(u)?'<span class=\"fl\">\ud83d\udd16<\/span>':'');\r\n    b.title = 'Q'+(k+1)+' \u00b7 '+chBrief(q.chapter)+(a!=null?(a===q.correct?' \u00b7 correct':' \u00b7 wrong'):'');\r\n    b.setAttribute('aria-label','Go to question '+(k+1));\r\n    b.onclick=()=>{ S.i=k; S.pick=null; render(); };\r\n    g.appendChild(b);\r\n  });\r\n}\r\nfunction rail(p){\r\n  const seen=Object.keys(S.ans).length;\r\n  const right=Object.entries(S.ans).filter(([u,a])=>BY_UID.get(u) && BY_UID.get(u).correct===a).length;\r\n  $('sPct').textContent = seen ? Math.round(right\/seen*100)+'%' : '\u2014';\r\n  $('sFrac').textContent = right+' of '+seen+' correct';\r\n  $('sBar').style.width = (seen?right\/seen*100:0)+'%';\r\n  $('sSeen').textContent = seen+' attempted';\r\n  $('sLeft').textContent = Math.max(0,p.length-S.i-1)+' left here';\r\n  const st=$('streak'); st.innerHTML='';\r\n  Object.entries(S.ans).slice(-10).forEach(([u,a])=>{\r\n    const q=BY_UID.get(u); if(!q) return;\r\n    const el=document.createElement('i'); el.className = q.correct===a?'r':'w'; st.appendChild(el);\r\n  });\r\n  const chs=[...new Set(p.map(q=>q.chapter))];\r\n  const w=chs.reduce((s,c)=>s+weightOf(c),0)*100;\r\n  $('wPct').textContent = w.toFixed(1)+'%';\r\n  $('wNote').textContent = p.length+' questions on screen, from '+chs.length+' '+(chs.length===1?'chapter':'chapters')+'. '\r\n    + (w>=35 ? 'That is a big slice in one sitting \u2014 worth clearing properly.' : 'Useful for topping up once the bigger chapters are secure.');\r\n  hdr();\r\n}\r\nfunction hdr(){\r\n  $('hQ').textContent = QS.length;\r\n  $('hCh').textContent = CHAPTERS.length;\r\n  $('hMastered').textContent = (QS.length ? Math.round(masteredCount()\/QS.length*100) : 0)+'%';\r\n  const r=readiness();\r\n  $('hReady').textContent = r.touched ? r.score+'%' : '\u2014';\r\n  $('fAll').textContent  = QS.length;\r\n  $('fPyq').textContent  = PYQ.length;\r\n  $('fCon').textContent  = CON.length;\r\n  $('fWeak').textContent = weak.size;\r\n  $('fFlag').textContent = flags.size;\r\n  $('fSess').textContent = (P.queue||[]).length;\r\n  $('pillSession').classList.toggle('hide', !(P.queue||[]).length);\r\n  $('sessLabel').textContent = P.queueLabel || 'My session';\r\n  $('perfPill').classList.toggle('hide', weak.size<5);\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   15. RENDER \u2014 PERFORMANCE\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nfunction renderPerf(){\r\n  const body=$('perfBody');\r\n  const seen=Object.values(P.stats).filter(s=>(s.correct+s.incorrect)>0).length;\r\n  $('perfCount').textContent = seen+' questions attempted';\r\n\r\n  if(!QS.length){ body.innerHTML='<div class=\"empty\"><b>No questions loaded<\/b>Paste your bank into <code>chapterQuestions<\/code> and reload.<\/div>'; return; }\r\n  const R = readiness();\r\n  if(!R.touched){\r\n    body.innerHTML = '<div class=\"empty\"><b>Your coach is waiting for data<\/b>Answer a few questions in Practice. '\r\n      + 'The coach then scores your readiness against the weightage of each chapter, works out where marks are leaking, and builds the next sitting for you.<\/div>'\r\n      + plannerHTML(true);\r\n    bindPerf(); return;\r\n  }\r\n  const rows=R.rows, byPriority=[...rows].sort((a,b)=>b.priority-a.priority);\r\n  const allC=Object.values(P.stats).reduce((a,s)=>a+s.correct,0);\r\n  const allI=Object.values(P.stats).reduce((a,s)=>a+s.incorrect,0);\r\n  const accAll = (allC+allI) ? Math.round(allC\/(allC+allI)*100) : 0;\r\n  const recent = P.log.slice(-20);\r\n  const accRec = recent.length ? Math.round(recent.filter(x=>x.ok).length\/recent.length*100) : 0;\r\n  const trend = recent.length>=5 ? (accRec>accAll?' \u2197':(accRec<accAll?' \u2198':'')) : '';\r\n  const ret = retentionIndex();\r\n  const due = dueForRevision();\r\n  const band=(v,hi,mid)=> v>=hi?'var(--ok)': v>=mid?'#8A6206':'var(--bad)';\r\n\r\n  const verdict = R.score>=80 ? '<b>In good shape.<\/b> Hold it there with the revision queue and weak-area drills.'\r\n    : R.score>=60 ? '<b>Strong base.<\/b> Close the gaps in the biggest chapters below to cross 80.'\r\n    : R.score>=35 ? '<b>Building up.<\/b> Work the plan top-down \u2014 it is ordered by what will move this number fastest.'\r\n    : '<b>Early stage.<\/b> Start at the top of the plan; the biggest chapters move this number fastest.';\r\n\r\n  body.innerHTML =\r\n  '<div class=\"hero2\">'\r\n  + '<div class=\"ring-card\"><div class=\"ring\" role=\"img\" aria-label=\"Readiness '+R.score+' out of 100\">'\r\n    + '<svg width=\"150\" height=\"150\" aria-hidden=\"true\"><circle class=\"bg\" cx=\"75\" cy=\"75\" r=\"64\"><\/circle>'\r\n    + '<circle class=\"fg\" cx=\"75\" cy=\"75\" r=\"64\" stroke-dasharray=\"402\" stroke-dashoffset=\"'+(402-402*R.score\/100)+'\"><\/circle><\/svg>'\r\n    + '<div class=\"ring-txt\"><b>'+R.score+'<\/b><span>Readiness \/ 100<\/span><\/div><\/div>'\r\n    + '<div class=\"verdict2\">'+verdict+'<br><span style=\"font-size:11.6px;opacity:.85\">'+T.readyDef+' across '+CHAPTERS.length\r\n    + ' chapters. On today\\u2019s form '+T.paperOut+' <b>'+R.projected+'%<\/b>.<\/span><\/div><\/div>'\r\n  + '<div class=\"coach\"><h4>\ud83e\udded What to do next<\/h4><div id=\"recoList\"><\/div><\/div>'\r\n  + '<\/div>'\r\n\r\n  + plannerHTML(false)\r\n\r\n  + '<div class=\"kpis\">'\r\n    + kpi(R.projected+'%',T.projected, band(R.projected,65,45))\r\n    + kpi(R.covered+'%',T.covered, band(R.covered,70,40))\r\n    + kpi(ret===null?'\u2014':ret+'%','Retention now', ret===null?'var(--slate)':band(ret,75,55))\r\n    + kpi(accAll+'%','Lifetime accuracy', band(accAll,70,45))\r\n    + kpi(accRec+'%'+trend,'Last 20 attempts', band(accRec,70,45))\r\n    + kpi(masteredCount(),'Mastered ('+CFG.masteryThreshold+'\u2713)','var(--ok)')\r\n    + kpi(weak.size,'Weak questions','var(--bad)')\r\n    + kpi(flags.size,'Flagged','#8A6206')\r\n  + '<\/div>'\r\n\r\n  + '<section class=\"pblock\"><div class=\"pbh\"><div class=\"txt\">'\r\n    + '<h4><span class=\"secno\">02<\/span>Chapter performance vs '+(WT?'exam weight':'bank share')+'<\/h4>'\r\n    + '<p>Both banks scored separately, so you can see a chapter that is fine on practice questions and weak on the real paper.<\/p><\/div>'\r\n    + '<span class=\"sechint\">priority = high weight \\u00d7 low accuracy<\/span><\/div>'\r\n    + '<div class=\"tblwrap\" style=\"border:0;border-radius:0\"><table class=\"perf-t nested\"><thead>'\r\n    + '<tr><th rowspan=\"2\" class=\"lft\">Chapter<\/th><th rowspan=\"2\">'+T.colWeight+'<\/th>'\r\n    + '<th colspan=\"2\" class=\"grp pyq\">PYQs<\/th>'\r\n    + '<th colspan=\"2\" class=\"grp con\">Concept MCQs<\/th>'\r\n    + '<th rowspan=\"2\">Status<\/th><th rowspan=\"2\">Practice<\/th><\/tr>'\r\n    + '<tr><th class=\"sub2\">Covered<\/th><th class=\"sub2\">Accuracy<\/th>'\r\n    + '<th class=\"sub2\">Covered<\/th><th class=\"sub2\">Accuracy<\/th><\/tr><\/thead><tbody>'\r\n    + byPriority.map(r=>{\r\n        const a = r.acc===null?null:Math.round(r.acc*100);\r\n        const tag = r.count===0 ? '<span class=\"tag na\">No questions<\/span>'\r\n          : r.acc===null ? '<span class=\"tag na\">Not started<\/span>'\r\n          : a<45 ? '<span class=\"tag hot\">Critical<\/span>'\r\n          : a<65 ? '<span class=\"tag warm\">Needs work<\/span>'\r\n          : a<85 ? '<span class=\"tag ok\">On track<\/span>'\r\n                 : '<span class=\"tag good\">Strong<\/span>';\r\n        const cov = b => b.count ? b.att+'\/'+b.count : '<span class=\"nil\">\\u2014<\/span>';\r\n        const accCell = b => {\r\n          if(b.acc===null) return '<span class=\"nil\">\\u2014<\/span>';\r\n          const v=Math.round(b.acc*100);\r\n          const col = v<45?'var(--bad)':v<65?'var(--gold)':'var(--ok)';\r\n          return '<div class=\"minibar\"><i style=\"width:'+Math.max(v,4)+'%;background:'+col+'\"><\/i><\/div>'\r\n               + '<span class=\"miniv\" style=\"color:'+col+'\">'+v+'%<\/span>';\r\n        };\r\n        const wcell = '<b class=\"wt\">'+pctLabel(r.weight)+'<\/b>'\r\n          + (WT ? '<span class=\"wsub\">('+r.pyq.count+' PYQ'+(r.pyq.count===1?'':'s')+')<\/span>' : '');\r\n        return '<tr><td class=\"lft\" title=\"'+r.chapter+'\">'+chBrief(r.chapter)+'<\/td>'\r\n          + '<td>'+wcell+'<\/td>'\r\n          + '<td>'+cov(r.pyq)+'<\/td><td>'+accCell(r.pyq)+'<\/td>'\r\n          + '<td>'+cov(r.con)+'<\/td><td>'+accCell(r.con)+'<\/td>'\r\n          + '<td>'+tag+'<\/td>'\r\n          + '<td class=\"prac\">'\r\n            + (r.pyq.count?'<button class=\"mini-go pyq\" data-goch=\"'+encodeURIComponent(r.chapter)+'\" data-bank=\"pyq\">PYQ<\/button>':'')\r\n            + (r.con.count?'<button class=\"mini-go\" data-goch=\"'+encodeURIComponent(r.chapter)+'\" data-bank=\"concept\">Drill<\/button>':'')\r\n          + '<\/td><\/tr>';\r\n      }).join('')\r\n    + '<\/tbody><\/table><\/div><\/section>'\r\n\r\n  + '<section class=\"pblock\"><div class=\"pbh\"><div class=\"txt\">'\r\n    + '<h4><span class=\"secno\">03<\/span>'+T.leakHead+'<\/h4>'\r\n    + '<p id=\"leakNote\"><\/p><\/div>'\r\n    + '<span class=\"sechint\">'+rows.filter(r=>r.count>0).length+' chapters<\/span><\/div>'\r\n    + '<div class=\"bars\" id=\"leakBars\"><\/div><\/section>'\r\n\r\n  + '<section class=\"pblock\"><div class=\"pbh\"><div class=\"txt\">'\r\n    + '<h4><span class=\"secno\">04<\/span>How you handle each kind of question<\/h4>'\r\n    + '<p id=\"fmtNote\"><\/p><\/div>'\r\n    + '<span class=\"sechint\">format beats topic when the gap is wide<\/span><\/div>'\r\n    + '<div class=\"subhead\"><h5>How the question is built<\/h5><span>one shape per question<\/span><\/div>'\r\n    + '<div class=\"bars\" id=\"shapeBars\"><\/div>'\r\n    + '<div class=\"subhead\"><h5>What the question turns on<\/h5><span>a question can sit in more than one \u2014 a time limit asked as a multi-statement code counts on both<\/span><\/div>'\r\n    + '<div class=\"bars\" id=\"traitBars\"><\/div><\/section>'\r\n\r\n  + '<div class=\"split\">'\r\n    + '<div class=\"panel\"><h4 class=\"ph\"><span class=\"secno\">05<\/span> Revision queue \u2014 what is fading fastest<\/h4><div id=\"revQ\"><\/div><\/div>'\r\n    + '<div class=\"panel\"><h4 class=\"ph\"><span class=\"secno\">06<\/span> Mastery distribution<\/h4><div id=\"mastDist\"><\/div><\/div>'\r\n  + '<\/div>'\r\n\r\n  + '<div class=\"danger\"><p><b>Danger zone.<\/b> This permanently erases your lifetime performance for this subject \u2014 mastery, weak areas, flags, accuracy history and the readiness score. Reset session on the Practice tab does <b>not<\/b> touch this.<\/p>'\r\n    + '<button class=\"dbtn\" id=\"btnWipe\">\ud83d\uddd1\ufe0f Reset my performance<\/button><\/div>';\r\n\r\n  renderRecos(byPriority, rows, due);\r\n  renderLeaks(rows);\r\n  renderFormats();\r\n  renderRevision(due);\r\n  renderMastery();\r\n  bindPerf();\r\n}\r\nfunction kpi(v,l,color){ return '<div class=\"kpi\"><b style=\"color:'+color+'\">'+v+'<\/b><span>'+l+'<\/span><\/div>'; }\r\nfunction plannerHTML(empty){\r\n  const rows=chapterRows().filter(r=>r.count>0).sort((a,b)=>b.leak-a.leak).slice(0,2).map(r=>chShort(r.chapter));\r\n  return '<div class=\"planner\"><div><h4><span class=\"secno\">01<\/span>Plan the next sitting<\/h4><p id=\"plannerNote\">'\r\n    + (empty\r\n        ? 'The focused set gives each chapter time in proportion to what you are losing in it. The mock paper ignores your history and mirrors the shape of the whole bank. Neither is fixed \\u2014 build again and you get a fresh set of questions.'\r\n        : 'The focused set gives each chapter time in proportion to what is leaking out of it \\u2014 right now mostly <b>'+rows.join('<\/b> and <b>')+'<\/b>. The mock paper mirrors the exam weight across both banks, and the PYQ paper drills nothing but real papers. None of them is fixed: press again for a fresh set, and last time\\u2019s questions are pushed to the back of the queue.')\r\n    + '<\/p><\/div><div class=\"pbtns\">'\r\n    + '<button class=\"pbtn primary\" id=\"btnFocus\">\ud83e\udde9 Focused set \u2014 '+Math.min(CFG.sessionSize,QS.length)+' Q<\/button>'\r\n    + '<button class=\"pbtn\" id=\"btnMock\">\ud83d\udcc4 Mock paper \u2014 '+Math.min(CFG.mockSize,QS.length)+' Q<\/button>'\r\n    + (PYQ.length ? '<button class=\"pbtn navy\" id=\"btnPyq\">\ud83d\udcdc PYQ paper \u2014 '+Math.min(CFG.pyqSize,PYQ.length)+' Q<\/button>' : '')\r\n    + '<\/div><\/div>';\r\n}\r\nfunction renderRecos(byPriority, rows, due){\r\n  const out=[], named=new Set();\r\n  byPriority.slice(0,3).forEach(r=>{\r\n    if(!r.count) return;\r\n    named.add(r.chapter);\r\n    const imp = WT ? '<b>'+pctLabel(r.weight)+'<\/b> of the exam ('+r.pyq.count+' PYQ'+(r.pyq.count===1?'':'s')+')' : '';\r\n    if(r.acc===null)\r\n      out.push({ic:'warm',icon:'\ud83e\udded',txt:'<b>'+chBrief(r.chapter)+'<\/b>'+(imp?' is '+imp+' and':'')+' you have not touched it yet \u2014 start here.',ch:r.chapter});\r\n    else if(r.acc<0.6)\r\n      out.push({ic:'hot',icon:'\ud83d\udd25',txt:'<b>'+chBrief(r.chapter)+'<\/b>'+(imp?', '+imp+',':'')+' is running at only <b>'+Math.round(r.acc*100)+'%<\/b> \u2014 about <b>'+(r.leak*100).toFixed(1)+' '+T.leakWord+' per 100<\/b> are going here.',ch:r.chapter});\r\n    else if(r.coverage<0.6)\r\n      out.push({ic:'cool',icon:'\ud83d\udd0d',txt:'<b>'+chBrief(r.chapter)+'<\/b>: accuracy is fine at '+Math.round(r.acc*100)+'%, but you have seen only <b>'+Math.round(r.coverage*100)+'%<\/b> of a chapter'+(imp?' '+imp:'')+' \u2014 finish the set.',ch:r.chapter});\r\n    else\r\n      out.push({ic:'good',icon:'\u2705',txt:'<b>'+chBrief(r.chapter)+'<\/b>'+(imp?' ('+stripHtml(imp)+')':'')+' is in good shape at '+Math.round(r.acc*100)+'% \u2014 keep it warm through the revision queue.',ch:r.chapter});\r\n  });\r\n\r\n  \/\/ a format gap costs you in every chapter at once\r\n  const f = formatRows().filter(r=>r.acc!==null && r.attempts>=8).sort((a,b)=>a.acc-b.acc);\r\n  if(f.length>=2){\r\n    const worst=f[0], best=f[f.length-1];\r\n    if(best.acc-worst.acc >= 0.12){\r\n      const tail = worst.kind==='shape'\r\n        ? 'That is a reading habit, not a gap in the rules \u2014 and it costs you in every chapter at once.'\r\n        : 'That is recall, not comprehension \u2014 these have to be committed to memory, and they turn up everywhere.';\r\n      out.push({ic:'hot',icon:'\ud83e\udde9',txt:'<b>'+worst.label+'<\/b> questions are running at <b>'+Math.round(worst.acc*100)+'%<\/b> while you sit at '+Math.round(best.acc*100)+'% on '+best.label.toLowerCase()+'. '+tail});\r\n    }\r\n  }\r\n  \/\/ big chapter you have exhausted\r\n  const done = rows.filter(r=>!named.has(r.chapter) && r.weight>=0.08 && r.coverage>=0.9 && r.count>0).sort((a,b)=>b.weight-a.weight)[0];\r\n  if(done) out.push({ic:'warm',icon:'\ud83d\udcd8',txt:'You have worked nearly every question in <b>'+chBrief(done.chapter)+'<\/b>'+(WT?', '+pctLabel(done.weight)+' of the exam':'')+'. Practice has given what it can \u2014 go back to the source text for the rest.',ch:done.chapter});\r\n\r\n  \/\/ a chapter drilled hard that the paper has never actually asked from\r\n  if(WT && W.untested.length){\r\n    const worked = W.untested.map(c=>rows.find(r=>r.chapter===c)).filter(r=>r&&r.coverage>0.5)\r\n                    .sort((a,b)=>b.con.count-a.con.count)[0];\r\n    if(worked) out.push({ic:'cool',icon:'\u2696\ufe0f',txt:'<b>'+chBrief(worked.chapter)+'<\/b> has <b>no previous year questions<\/b> at all, and you are already '+Math.round(worked.coverage*100)+'% through its concept MCQs. Worth knowing before you spend another evening on it.',ch:worked.chapter});\r\n  }\r\n  \/\/ heavy on the paper, thin on practice material\r\n  const thin = rows.filter(r=>r.weight>=0.10 && r.con.count>0 && r.con.count < r.pyq.count)\r\n                   .sort((a,b)=>b.weight-a.weight)[0];\r\n  if(WT && thin) out.push({ic:'warm',icon:'\ud83d\udcda',txt:'<b>'+chBrief(thin.chapter)+'<\/b> is <b>'+pctLabel(thin.weight)+'<\/b> of the exam but has only '+thin.con.count+' concept MCQ'+(thin.con.count===1?'':'s')+' against '+thin.pyq.count+' PYQs. The bank is thin exactly where the paper is heavy.',ch:thin.chapter});\r\n  if(weak.size>=3) out.push({ic:'hot',icon:'\u26a0\ufe0f',txt:'You have <b>'+weak.size+' weak questions<\/b> flagged, biggest chapter first. One Weak-areas sitting clears the backlog.',weak:true});\r\n  if(due.length) out.push({ic:'warm',icon:'\ud83d\udd01',txt:'<b>'+due.length+' questions<\/b> you had mastered have decayed below <b>'+Math.round(CFG.retention.riskBelow*100)+'% recall<\/b>. Re-answering one costs seconds; re-learning it later costs an evening.'});\r\n  if(flags.size) out.push({ic:'cool',icon:'\ud83d\udd16',txt:'<b>'+flags.size+'<\/b> question'+(flags.size>1?'s are':' is')+' flagged for review. Clear the flags before the next mock.',flag:true});\r\n\r\n  $('recoList').innerHTML = out.map(r=>{\r\n    let btn='';\r\n    if(r.ch)        btn='<button class=\"go\" data-goch=\"'+encodeURIComponent(r.ch)+'\">Practice \u2192<\/button>';\r\n    else if(r.weak) btn='<button class=\"go\" data-goweak=\"1\">Start \u2192<\/button>';\r\n    else if(r.flag) btn='<button class=\"go\" data-goflag=\"1\">Open \u2192<\/button>';\r\n    return '<div class=\"reco\"><span class=\"ic '+r.ic+'\">'+r.icon+'<\/span><p>'+r.txt+'<\/p>'+btn+'<\/div>';\r\n  }).join('');\r\n}\r\nfunction renderLeaks(rows){\r\n  const list = rows.filter(r=>r.count>0).sort((a,b)=>b.leak-a.leak);\r\n  if(!list.length) return;\r\n  const max = Math.max(0.0001, ...list.map(r=>r.leak));\r\n  const total = list.reduce((a,r)=>a+r.leak,0)*100;\r\n  const top3 = list.slice(0,3);\r\n  $('leakNote').innerHTML = 'On today\\u2019s form you would expect to drop about <b>'+Math.round(total)+' '+T.leakWord+' in every 100<\/b>. <b>'\r\n    + top3.map(r=>chShort(r.chapter)).join(', ')+'<\/b> alone account for <b>'+Math.round(top3.reduce((a,r)=>a+r.leak,0)*100)\r\n    + '<\/b> of them \u2014 the shortest route to a better score.';\r\n  $('leakBars').innerHTML = list.map(r=>{\r\n    const m=r.leak*100;\r\n    const col = m>=8?'linear-gradient(90deg,#F08A92,var(--bad))' : m>=4?'linear-gradient(90deg,var(--gold-lt),var(--gold))' : 'linear-gradient(90deg,#9DB6EE,var(--blue-700))';\r\n    return '<div class=\"lrow\"><div><span class=\"lname\" title=\"'+r.chapter+'\">'+chBrief(r.chapter)+'<\/span>'\r\n      + '<span class=\"lsub\">'+(WT?pctLabel(r.weight)+' of the exam \u00b7 ':'')+'you would clear about '+Math.round(r.expected*100)+'% today<\/span><\/div>'\r\n      + '<div class=\"ltrack\"><div class=\"lfill\" style=\"width:'+(r.leak\/max*100)+'%;background:'+col+'\"><\/div><\/div>'\r\n      + '<div class=\"lval\">'+m.toFixed(1)+'<small>'+T.leakUnit+'<\/small><\/div><\/div>';\r\n  }).join('');\r\n}\r\nfunction renderFormats(){\r\n  const rows=formatRows();\r\n  const bar = r => {\r\n    const p = r.acc===null?null:Math.round(r.acc*100);\r\n    const col = p===null?'#CBD5E1' : p<50?'linear-gradient(90deg,#F08A92,var(--bad))' : p<70?'linear-gradient(90deg,var(--gold-lt),var(--gold))' : 'linear-gradient(90deg,#6EE7B7,var(--ok))';\r\n    return '<div class=\"lrow\"><div><span class=\"lname\">'+r.label+'<\/span>'\r\n      + '<span class=\"lsub\">'+r.total+' in this bank \u00b7 '+r.seen+' attempted<\/span><\/div>'\r\n      + '<div class=\"ltrack\"><div class=\"lfill\" style=\"width:'+(p===null?0:p)+'%;background:'+col+'\"><\/div><\/div>'\r\n      + '<div class=\"lval\">'+(p===null?'\u2014':p+'%')+'<small>accuracy<\/small><\/div><\/div>';\r\n  };\r\n  const sorter=(a,b)=>(a.acc===null)-(b.acc===null)||(a.acc-b.acc);\r\n  $('shapeBars').innerHTML = rows.filter(r=>r.kind==='shape').sort(sorter).map(bar).join('');\r\n  $('traitBars').innerHTML = rows.filter(r=>r.kind==='trait').sort(sorter).map(bar).join('');\r\n  const rated = rows.filter(r=>r.acc!==null && r.attempts>=8).sort(sorter);\r\n  $('fmtNote').innerHTML = rated.length>=2\r\n    ? (()=>{ const w=rated[0], b=rated[rated.length-1], gap=Math.round((b.acc-w.acc)*100);\r\n        return gap>=12\r\n          ? 'Your weakest kind of question is <b>'+w.label+'<\/b> at <b>'+Math.round(w.acc*100)+'%<\/b>, against <b>'+Math.round(b.acc*100)+'%<\/b> on '+b.label.toLowerCase()+' \u2014 a <b>'+gap+'-point<\/b> gap. That is worth more than any single chapter, because these turn up in all of them.'\r\n          : 'You handle the different kinds of question evenly, within <b>'+gap+' points<\/b> of each other. Nothing to fix here \u2014 keep working the chapter list.'; })()\r\n    : 'Attempt a few more and this will show whether the format is costing you more than the topic.';\r\n}\r\nfunction renderRevision(due){\r\n  $('revQ').innerHTML = due.length\r\n    ? due.slice(0,8).map(d=>'<button class=\"rev\" data-gouid=\"'+encodeURIComponent(uid(d.q))+'\">'\r\n        + '<span class=\"n\">Q'+d.q.id+'<\/span><span class=\"t\">'+preview(d.q,58)+'<\/span>'\r\n        + '<span class=\"d\">'+Math.round(d.recall*100)+'% recall<\/span><\/button>').join('')\r\n    : '<p style=\"font-size:13px;color:var(--slate);line-height:1.6\">Nothing decaying right now. Mastered questions return here as their estimated recall drops below '+Math.round(CFG.retention.riskBelow*100)+'%.<\/p>';\r\n}\r\nfunction renderMastery(){\r\n  const b=[0,0,0,0];\r\n  QS.forEach(q=>{ const s=P.stats[uid(q)];\r\n    if(!s || (s.correct+s.incorrect)===0) b[0]++;\r\n    else if(s.correct>=CFG.masteryThreshold) b[3]++;\r\n    else if(s.correct>=2) b[2]++;\r\n    else b[1]++; });\r\n  const labels=['Untouched','Learning (0\u20131 \u2713)','Almost there (2 \u2713)','Mastered ('+CFG.masteryThreshold+' \u2713+)'];\r\n  const cols=['#CBD5E1','var(--gold)','var(--blue-700)','var(--ok)'];\r\n  $('mastDist').innerHTML = b.map((n,i)=>\r\n    '<div class=\"lrow\" style=\"grid-template-columns:minmax(120px,1fr) 2fr 54px\"><span class=\"lname\">'+labels[i]+'<\/span>'\r\n    + '<div class=\"ltrack\"><div class=\"lfill\" style=\"width:'+(QS.length?n\/QS.length*100:0)+'%;background:'+cols[i]+'\"><\/div><\/div>'\r\n    + '<div class=\"lval\" style=\"font-size:15px\">'+n+'<\/div><\/div>').join('');\r\n}\r\nfunction bindPerf(){\r\n  const f=$('btnFocus'), m=$('btnMock'), y=$('btnPyq'), w=$('btnWipe');\r\n  if(f) f.onclick=()=>startSession('focus');\r\n  if(m) m.onclick=()=>startSession('mock');\r\n  if(y) y.onclick=()=>startSession('pyq');\r\n  if(w) w.onclick=wipe;\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   15b. EXAM ANALYTICS  \u2014  what the paper has actually asked\r\n   Everything here is counted from the PYQ bank's year field. Nothing is\r\n   estimated, so the tab hides itself when no years are recorded.\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nconst YEAR_ORDER = y => { const m=String(y).match(\/\\d{4}\/); return m ? +m[0] : 9999; };\r\nfunction examData(){\r\n  const years=[...new Set(PYQ.map(q=>q.year).filter(y=>y!==undefined && y!==null && y!==''))]\r\n              .sort((a,b)=>YEAR_ORDER(a)-YEAR_ORDER(b) || String(a).localeCompare(String(b)));\r\n  const rows = CHAPTERS.map(c=>{\r\n    const qs=inChB(c,'pyq'), byYear={};\r\n    years.forEach(y=>byYear[y]=0);\r\n    qs.forEach(q=>{ if(byYear[q.year]!==undefined) byYear[q.year]++; });\r\n    return { chapter:c, total:qs.length, byYear,\r\n             share: PYQ.length?qs.length\/PYQ.length:0 };\r\n  }).filter(r=>r.total>0).sort((a,b)=>b.total-a.total);\r\n  const perYear={}; years.forEach(y=>perYear[y]=PYQ.filter(q=>q.year===y).length);\r\n  return {years, rows, perYear, total:PYQ.length};\r\n}\r\nfunction renderExam(){\r\n  const d = examData(), body=$('examBody');\r\n  $('examCount').textContent = PYQ.length+' previous year questions';\r\n  if(!PYQ.length){ body.innerHTML='<div class=\"empty\"><b>No previous year questions loaded<\/b>Paste them into <code>pyqQuestions<\/code>, each with its year.<\/div>'; return; }\r\n\r\n  const hi = CFG.highYield, maxTot = Math.max(...d.rows.map(r=>r.total), 1);\r\n  const maxCell = Math.max(1, ...d.rows.map(r=>Math.max(...Object.values(r.byYear))));\r\n  const shade = n => { if(!n) return '';\r\n    const t=n\/maxCell;\r\n    return 'background:'+(t>0.8?'#D99B12':t>0.6?'#E8B44A':t>0.4?'#F2D28C':t>0.2?'#F9E9C4':'#FDF6E6')\r\n         + ';color:'+(t>0.6?'#3A2A02':'#8A6206')+';font-weight:800';\r\n  };\r\n  const maxYear = Math.max(...Object.values(d.perYear), 1);\r\n  const heavy = d.rows.filter(r=>r.total>=hi);\r\n  const heavyShare = heavy.reduce((a,r)=>a+r.share,0);\r\n  const spread = d.rows.filter(r=>Object.values(r.byYear).filter(Boolean).length >= Math.ceil(d.years.length*0.6));\r\n\r\n  body.innerHTML =\r\n  \/\/ ---------- 01 ranked ----------\r\n  '<section class=\"pblock\"><div class=\"pbh\"><div class=\"txt\">'\r\n    + '<h4><span class=\"secno\">01<\/span>Ranked \u2014 previous year questions per chapter<\/h4>'\r\n    + '<p>'+(heavy.length\r\n        ? '<b>'+heavy.length+' chapter'+(heavy.length===1?'':'s')+'<\/b> carry '+hi+' questions or more and together hold <b>'\r\n          + Math.round(heavyShare*100)+'%<\/b> of every paper on record. They are shown in gold.'\r\n        : 'No chapter has reached '+hi+' questions yet, so nothing is marked high-yield.')+'<\/p><\/div>'\r\n    + '<span class=\"sechint\">gold = high-yield ('+hi+'+ Qs)<\/span><\/div>'\r\n    + '<div class=\"bars\">'\r\n    + d.rows.map((r,i)=>{\r\n        const gold = r.total>=hi;\r\n        return '<div class=\"rankrow\"><span class=\"rk\">'+(i+1)+'<\/span>'\r\n          + '<span class=\"rname'+(gold?' gold':'')+'\" title=\"'+r.chapter+'\">'+titleCase(r.chapter)+'<\/span>'\r\n          + '<div class=\"rtrack\"><i style=\"width:'+(r.total\/maxTot*100)+'%;background:'\r\n            + (gold?'linear-gradient(90deg,var(--gold-lt),#D99B12)':'linear-gradient(90deg,#93B4F7,var(--blue-700))')+'\"><\/i><\/div>'\r\n          + '<span class=\"rv\">'+r.total+'<\/span><span class=\"rp\">'+(r.share*100).toFixed(1)+'%<\/span><\/div>';\r\n      }).join('')\r\n    + '<\/div><\/section>'\r\n\r\n  \/\/ ---------- 02 heatmap ----------\r\n  + '<section class=\"pblock\"><div class=\"pbh\"><div class=\"txt\">'\r\n    + '<h4><span class=\"secno\">02<\/span>Heatmap matrix \u2014 chapter \\u00d7 exam year<\/h4>'\r\n    + '<p>'+(spread.length\r\n        ? '<b>'+spread.map(r=>chShort(r.chapter)).slice(0,3).join(', ')+'<\/b> appear in most papers on record \u2014 those are the standing favourites, not one-off spikes.'\r\n        : 'Read down a column to see what a single paper favoured; read across a row to see whether a chapter is a regular or a one-off.')+'<\/p><\/div>'\r\n    + '<span class=\"sechint\">darker gold = more questions<\/span><\/div>'\r\n    + '<div class=\"tblwrap\" style=\"border:0;border-radius:0\"><table class=\"perf-t hm\"><thead><tr>'\r\n    + '<th class=\"lft\">Chapter<\/th>'+d.years.map(y=>'<th>'+y+'<\/th>').join('')+'<th class=\"tot\">Total<\/th>'\r\n    + '<\/tr><\/thead><tbody>'\r\n    + d.rows.map(r=>'<tr><td class=\"lft\" title=\"'+r.chapter+'\">'+titleCase(r.chapter)+'<\/td>'\r\n        + d.years.map(y=>{ const n=r.byYear[y];\r\n            return '<td style=\"'+shade(n)+'\">'+(n||'<span class=\"nil\">\\u00b7<\/span>')+'<\/td>'; }).join('')\r\n        + '<td class=\"tot\">'+r.total+'<\/td><\/tr>').join('')\r\n    + '<\/tbody><tfoot><tr><td class=\"lft\">Total<\/td>'\r\n    + d.years.map(y=>'<td>'+d.perYear[y]+'<\/td>').join('')+'<td>'+d.total+'<\/td><\/tr><\/tfoot><\/table><\/div>'\r\n    + '<div class=\"hmlegend\"><span>Low<\/span>'\r\n    + ['#FDF6E6','#F9E9C4','#F2D28C','#E8B44A','#D99B12'].map(c=>'<i style=\"background:'+c+'\"><\/i>').join('')\r\n    + '<span>High<\/span><\/div><\/section>'\r\n\r\n  \/\/ ---------- 03 per cycle ----------\r\n  + '<section class=\"pblock\"><div class=\"pbh\"><div class=\"txt\">'\r\n    + '<h4><span class=\"secno\">03<\/span>Questions per exam cycle<\/h4>'\r\n    + '<p>How many questions each paper on record contributed. A short bar usually means a partly recovered paper rather than a shorter exam \\u2014 worth knowing before you read too much into that year\\u2019s pattern.<\/p><\/div>'\r\n    + '<span class=\"sechint\">'+d.years.length+' cycles \\u00b7 '+d.total+' questions<\/span><\/div>'\r\n    + '<div class=\"cyc\">'\r\n    + d.years.map(y=>{ const n=d.perYear[y];\r\n        return '<div class=\"cycbar\"><span class=\"cn\">'+n+'<\/span>'\r\n          + '<div class=\"cbar\" style=\"height:'+Math.max(n\/maxYear*140,6)+'px\"><\/div>'\r\n          + '<span class=\"cy\">'+y+'<\/span><\/div>'; }).join('')\r\n    + '<\/div><\/section>'\r\n\r\n  \/\/ ---------- 04 what this means for you ----------\r\n  + '<section class=\"pblock\"><div class=\"pbh\"><div class=\"txt\">'\r\n    + '<h4><span class=\"secno\">04<\/span>What this means for your revision<\/h4>'\r\n    + '<p>The same counts, read against how you are actually performing.<\/p><\/div><\/div>'\r\n    + '<div class=\"bars\" id=\"examReco\"><\/div><\/section>';\r\n\r\n  \/\/ recommendations tie the counts back to the learner's own record\r\n  const perf = chapterRows();\r\n  const out=[];\r\n  d.rows.slice(0,3).forEach(r=>{\r\n    const p = perf.find(x=>x.chapter===r.chapter);\r\n    const acc = p && p.acc!==null ? Math.round(p.acc*100) : null;\r\n    out.push({ic: acc===null?'warm':acc<60?'hot':'good', icon: acc===null?'\\ud83e\\udded':acc<60?'\\ud83d\\udd25':'\\u2705',\r\n      txt:'<b>'+chBrief(r.chapter)+'<\/b> has produced <b>'+r.total+' questions<\/b> across '\r\n        + Object.values(r.byYear).filter(Boolean).length+' of '+d.years.length+' papers'\r\n        + (acc===null ? ' and you have not attempted it yet.' : ' and you are at <b>'+acc+'%<\/b> on it.'),\r\n      ch:r.chapter});\r\n  });\r\n  const recent = d.years.slice(-3);\r\n  const rising = d.rows.map(r=>{\r\n    const late = recent.reduce((a,y)=>a+(r.byYear[y]||0),0);\r\n    const early = d.years.slice(0,-3).reduce((a,y)=>a+(r.byYear[y]||0),0);\r\n    return {r, late, early, rate: late\/Math.max(recent.length,1)};\r\n  }).filter(x=>x.late>=2 && x.rate > (x.early\/Math.max(d.years.length-3,1))*1.5)\r\n    .sort((a,b)=>b.late-a.late)[0];\r\n  if(rising) out.push({ic:'warm',icon:'\\ud83d\\udcc8',\r\n    txt:'<b>'+chBrief(rising.r.chapter)+'<\/b> has been asked <b>'+rising.late+' times in the last '+recent.length\r\n      + ' papers<\/b>, well above its own earlier rate. Recent papers are the better guide to the next one.',ch:rising.r.chapter});\r\n  const silent = CHAPTERS.filter(c=>inChB(c,'pyq').length===0 && inChB(c,'concept').length>0);\r\n  if(silent.length) out.push({ic:'cool',icon:'\\ud83d\\udd07',\r\n    txt:'<b>'+silent.length+' chapter'+(silent.length===1?' has':'s have')+' never been asked<\/b> in the papers on record \\u2014 '\r\n      + silent.slice(0,3).map(chBrief).join(', ')+(silent.length>3?' and others':'')\r\n      + '. They still carry concept MCQs, so decide deliberately how much time they deserve.'});\r\n  $('examReco').innerHTML = out.map(r=>\r\n    '<div class=\"reco\"><span class=\"ic '+r.ic+'\">'+r.icon+'<\/span><p>'+r.txt+'<\/p>'\r\n    + (r.ch?'<button class=\"go\" data-goch=\"'+encodeURIComponent(r.ch)+'\" data-bank=\"pyq\">Drill PYQs \\u2192<\/button>':'')+'<\/div>').join('');\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   16. ANSWERING\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nfunction check(){\r\n  const p=pool(), q=p[S.i]; if(!q) return;\r\n  if(S.pick==null){ S.nudge=true; render(); return; }\r\n  const u=uid(q), ok = S.pick===q.correct;\r\n  S.ans[u]=S.pick; S.pick=null; S.nudge=false;\r\n  const s=stat(u);\r\n  ok ? s.correct++ : s.incorrect++;\r\n  s.last=Date.now(); s.lastOk=ok;\r\n  P.log.push({u, ok, ts:Date.now()});\r\n  P.lastUid=u;\r\n  refreshWeak(); save(); render();\r\n  const res=$('result'); if(res && res.scrollIntoView) try{ res.scrollIntoView({block:'nearest',behavior:'smooth'}); }catch(e){}\r\n}\r\nfunction wipe(){\r\n  if(!confirm('Permanently erase ALL lifetime performance for this subject?\\n\\nMastery, weak areas, flags, accuracy history, the built session and the readiness score all go. This cannot be undone.')) return;\r\n  P = blank(); flags.clear(); weak.clear(); S.ans={};\r\n  save(); setFilter('all'); renderPerf(); hdr();\r\n  toast('Lifetime performance erased', true);\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   18. EVENTS\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nfunction setTab(t){\r\n  S.tab=t;\r\n  document.querySelectorAll('#cdRoot .tab').forEach(b=>b.setAttribute('aria-selected', b.dataset.tab===t));\r\n  $('viewQuiz').classList.toggle('hide', t!=='quiz');\r\n  $('viewPerf').classList.toggle('hide', t!=='perf');\r\n  $('viewExam').classList.toggle('hide', t!=='exam');\r\n  $('cdFilters').classList.toggle('hide', t!=='quiz');\r\n  if(t==='perf') renderPerf();\r\n  if(t==='exam') renderExam();\r\n}\r\nfunction setFilter(f, ch){\r\n  S.filter=f; S.i=0; S.pick=null;\r\n  if(ch) S.chapter=ch;\r\n  document.querySelectorAll('#cdRoot .pill-f').forEach(b=>b.setAttribute('aria-pressed', b.dataset.f===f));\r\n  render();\r\n}\r\ndocument.querySelectorAll('#cdRoot .tab').forEach(b=>b.onclick=()=>setTab(b.dataset.tab));\r\ndocument.querySelectorAll('#cdRoot .pill-f').forEach(b=>b.onclick=()=>setFilter(b.dataset.f));\r\n$('chapList').addEventListener('click', e=>{\r\n  const chip=e.target.closest('.chapchip'); if(!chip) return;\r\n  S.chapter = decodeURIComponent(chip.dataset.ch);\r\n  S.i=0; S.pick=null; render();\r\n});\r\n$('btnCheck').onclick = check;\r\n$('btnNext').onclick  = ()=>{ S.i++; S.pick=null; render(); };\r\n$('btnPrev').onclick  = ()=>{ S.i--; S.pick=null; render(); };\r\n$('btnFlag').onclick  = ()=>{\r\n  const p=pool(), q=p[S.i]; if(!q) return;\r\n  const u=uid(q);\r\n  flags.has(u) ? flags.delete(u) : flags.add(u);\r\n  P.flags=[...flags]; save(); render();\r\n};\r\n$('navToggle').onclick = ()=>{ navOpen=!navOpen; renderNav(pool()); };\r\nlet tmr;\r\n$('cdSearch').addEventListener('input', e=>{\r\n  clearTimeout(tmr);\r\n  tmr=setTimeout(()=>{ S.query=e.target.value.trim(); S.i=0; S.pick=null; render(); },220);\r\n});\r\n$('tglUn').onclick = e=>{\r\n  S.unattempted=!S.unattempted;\r\n  e.currentTarget.setAttribute('aria-pressed',S.unattempted);\r\n  e.currentTarget.firstChild.textContent = S.unattempted?'\u2611 ':'\u25fb ';\r\n  S.i=0; S.pick=null; render();\r\n};\r\n$('tglReset').onclick = ()=>{\r\n  if(!Object.keys(S.ans).length) return;\r\n  if(!confirm('Reset this sitting? Only the answers on screen are cleared \u2014 your lifetime performance and mastery are kept.')) return;\r\n  S.ans={}; S.i=0; S.pick=null; render();\r\n  toast('Session reset \u2014 performance data kept', true);\r\n};\r\n\r\n\/* performance-tab jumps + AI chips, delegated *\/\r\ndocument.addEventListener('click', e=>{\r\n  if(!e.target.closest('#cdRoot')) return;\r\n  const goch=e.target.closest('[data-goch]');\r\n  if(goch){\r\n    S.bank = goch.dataset.bank || 'all';\r\n    setTab('quiz'); setFilter('chapter', decodeURIComponent(goch.dataset.goch));\r\n    toast('Filtered to '+chShort(S.chapter)+(S.bank==='pyq'?' \u2014 PYQs':S.bank==='concept'?' \u2014 concept MCQs':''), true);\r\n    return;\r\n  }\r\n  const bseg=e.target.closest('.bankseg button');\r\n  if(bseg){ S.bank=bseg.dataset.bank; S.i=0; S.pick=null; render(); return; }\r\n  if(e.target.closest('[data-goweak]')){ setTab('quiz'); setFilter('weak'); return; }\r\n  if(e.target.closest('[data-goflag]')){ setTab('quiz'); setFilter('flagged'); return; }\r\n  const gu=e.target.closest('[data-gouid]');\r\n  if(gu){\r\n    const u=decodeURIComponent(gu.dataset.gouid);\r\n    setTab('quiz'); setFilter('all');\r\n    const idx=pool().findIndex(q=>uid(q)===u);\r\n    if(idx>=0){ S.i=idx; render(); }\r\n    return;\r\n  }\r\n});\r\n\/* keyboard, scoped to the widget *\/\r\ndocument.addEventListener('keydown', e=>{\r\n  if(S.tab!=='quiz') return;\r\n  const t=e.target;\r\n  if(t && (\/^(INPUT|TEXTAREA|SELECT)$\/.test(t.tagName) || t.isContentEditable)) return;\r\n  if(e.ctrlKey||e.metaKey||e.altKey) return;\r\n  const p=pool(); if(!p.length) return;\r\n  const q=p[S.i];\r\n  if(\/^[1-9]$\/.test(e.key)){\r\n    const k=+e.key-1;\r\n    if(q && S.ans[uid(q)]==null && k<q.options.length){ e.preventDefault(); S.pick=k; S.nudge=false; render(); }\r\n    return;\r\n  }\r\n  const low=e.key.toLowerCase();\r\n  if(\/^[a-f]$\/.test(low)){\r\n    const k=low.charCodeAt(0)-97;\r\n    if(q && S.ans[uid(q)]==null && k<q.options.length){ e.preventDefault(); S.pick=k; S.nudge=false; render(); }\r\n    return;\r\n  }\r\n  if(e.key==='Enter'){ e.preventDefault();\r\n    if(q && S.ans[uid(q)]==null) check();\r\n    else if(S.i<p.length-1){ S.i++; S.pick=null; render(); }\r\n    return; }\r\n  if(e.key==='ArrowRight'){ e.preventDefault(); S.i++; S.pick=null; render(); return; }\r\n  if(e.key==='ArrowLeft'){ e.preventDefault(); S.i--; S.pick=null; render(); return; }\r\n  if(low==='f'){ e.preventDefault(); $('btnFlag').click(); }\r\n});\r\nwindow.addEventListener('beforeunload', save);\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   19. BOOT\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\n$('cdEyebrow').textContent = 'CSS ADDA \u00b7 PromotionExams.com' + (CFG.eyebrow ? '  \u00b7  '+CFG.eyebrow : '');\r\n$('cdTopic').textContent   = CFG.topic;\r\n$('cdSub').textContent     = CFG.sub;\r\n$('wHead').textContent     = T.onScreen;\r\n$('wUnit').textContent     = WT ? 'importance' : 'of this bank';\r\n$('chapHint').textContent  = WT ? '\u2014 gold pill shows the importance you set' : '';\r\nif(PYQ.length) $('tabExam').classList.remove('hide');\r\nif(SRC_ON){\r\n  $('srcCard').classList.remove('hide');\r\n  $('srcLink').href = CFG.sourceUrl;\r\n}\r\nif(WT) console.info('[weight] counted from '+W.totalPyq+' previous year questions across '+CHAPTERS.length+' chapters.');\r\nelse   console.info('[weight] no PYQs loaded \u2014 chapters are ranked by their share of the concept bank, and nothing is called exam weight.');\r\nif(W.untested.length) console.info('[weight] no PYQs recorded for: '+W.untested.join(' | '));\r\nsetTab('quiz');\r\ntry{ render(); }catch(err){ console.error('render failed', err); }\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   20. CONTENT PROTECTION\r\n   Honest about what this can and cannot do.\r\n\r\n   REALLY BLOCKED\r\n     copy, cut, right-click, drag-out, text selection, Ctrl\/Cmd+C, X, S,\r\n     P, U, and printing or \"Save as PDF\" from the browser.\r\n\r\n   DETERRED, NOT BLOCKED\r\n     screenshots. No web page can stop the operating system taking one \u2014\r\n     Print Screen, Snipping Tool, macOS Shift-Cmd-4 and every phone all\r\n     work below the browser. What is done instead: the questions blur the\r\n     moment this window stops being the front window, which defeats the\r\n     common \"screenshot with another app\" and casual screen-share cases,\r\n     and Print Screen is caught where the browser reports it and the\r\n     clipboard is overwritten.\r\n\r\n   NOT BLOCKED AT ALL\r\n     View Source, Save Page, DevTools, or Reader Mode. Every question is\r\n     in the page HTML because that is how the widget runs. Anyone willing\r\n     to open the source can read the bank. 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