{"id":14666,"date":"2026-07-29T04:38:05","date_gmt":"2026-07-29T04:38:05","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/promotionexams.com\/?page_id=14666"},"modified":"2026-08-31T14:15:46","modified_gmt":"2026-08-31T14:15:46","slug":"mcqs-on-coi-cga-aao-specific-articles","status":"publish","type":"page","link":"https:\/\/promotionexams.com\/?page_id=14666","title":{"rendered":"MCQs on COI (CGA AAO Specific Articles)"},"content":{"rendered":"\t\t<div data-elementor-type=\"wp-page\" data-elementor-id=\"14666\" class=\"elementor elementor-14666\">\n\t\t\t\t<div class=\"elementor-element elementor-element-a342baf e-con-full e-flex e-con e-parent\" data-id=\"a342baf\" data-element_type=\"container\" data-e-type=\"container\">\n\t\t\t\t<div class=\"elementor-element elementor-element-87f2b6a elementor-widget elementor-widget-html\" data-id=\"87f2b6a\" data-element_type=\"widget\" data-e-type=\"widget\" data-widget_type=\"html.default\">\n\t\t\t\t\t\\<!--\r\n=====================================================================\r\nCSS ADDA \u00b7 PromotionExams.com\r\nPYQ + CHAPTER-WISE AI TEST SERIES   \u2014   two banks on one page\r\n=====================================================================\r\n\r\nHOW THIS DIFFERS FROM THE PLAIN CHAPTER-WISE PAGE\r\n  Two banks sit side by side: previous year questions, and concept MCQs\r\n  written chapter by chapter. Both are drilled from the same screen and\r\n  scored separately, so you always know whether a chapter is weak on the\r\n  real paper or only on practice questions.\r\n\r\n  You do NOT rate chapters by hand here. Exam weight is COUNTED from the\r\n  PYQ bank: a chapter holding 79 of 168 previous year questions is 47% of\r\n  the paper, and the page says so and shows the count behind the figure.\r\n  Add a year of papers and every weight, priority and plan re-computes\r\n  on its own.\r\n\r\nSETTING UP A NEW SUBJECT \u2014 three edits, all at the top of the script\r\n  1. CFG.quizId   unique per page. Progress is stored under this key, so\r\n                  two subjects on the same site never mix. Change it.\r\n     CFG.topic    subject name for the header.\r\n     CFG.sourceUrl  page on your site carrying the full text; shown as a\r\n                  \"Read the source\" card. Blank switches it off.\r\n  2. pyqQuestions      every previous year question you have, each with\r\n                       its year. This bank decides the exam weights.\r\n  3. conceptQuestions  your chapter-wise practice bank.\r\n\r\n  Both use the usual schema:\r\n      { id, chapter, question, options[], correct, explanation }\r\n  PYQ entries take one extra field:  year: 2023\r\n  Chapter strings must be written the same way in both banks \u2014 matching\r\n  is loose (case, spacing and 'Ch \/ Chapter \/ CH-2' are all read alike),\r\n  but the chapter NUMBER has to agree.\r\n\r\nSTEM LAYOUT \u2014 nothing to mark up\r\n  Plain stems, numbered statement stems and List-I \/ List-II stems are\r\n  each laid out automatically, all inside the same sheet.\r\n\r\nRESETS\r\n  \"Reset session\"        clears only this sitting's answers.\r\n  \"Reset my performance\" wipes lifetime mastery, weak areas and flags.\r\n\r\n=====================================================================\r\n-->\r\n\r\n<meta charset=\"utf-8\">\r\n<meta name=\"viewport\" content=\"width=device-width,initial-scale=1,viewport-fit=cover\">\r\n<link rel=\"preconnect\" href=\"https:\/\/fonts.googleapis.com\">\r\n<link rel=\"preconnect\" href=\"https:\/\/fonts.gstatic.com\" crossorigin>\r\n<link href=\"https:\/\/fonts.googleapis.com\/css2?family=Plus+Jakarta+Sans:wght@400;500;600;700;800&family=Newsreader:opsz,wght@6..72,400;6..72,500;6..72,600&display=swap\" rel=\"stylesheet\">\r\n\r\n<style>\r\n.cdrill{\r\n  --blue-900:#12246E; --blue-800:#1B3FCB; --blue-700:#2757E8; --blue-100:#EAF0FF; --blue-50:#F5F8FF;\r\n  --gold:#E8A317; --gold-lt:#F5C55B; --gold-bg:#FFF7E4;\r\n  --ink:#0F172A; --slate:#5B6B85; --line:#DFE6F3; --paper:#FFFFFF; --wash:#F4F7FD;\r\n  --ok:#0B8457; --ok-bg:#E7F7F0; --bad:#D3313E; --bad-bg:#FDEDEE; --warn:#C2620E;\r\n  --r:14px; --shadow:0 1px 2px rgba(16,32,74,.06),0 8px 24px -12px rgba(16,32,74,.18);\r\n  \/* \u2193 paste the same value your other pages use for --serif *\/\r\n  --serif:'Newsreader',Georgia,'Times New Roman',serif;\r\n  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16px;border:0;background:var(--paper);text-align:left;transition:background .13s;width:100%}\r\n.cdrill .chapchip:hover{background:var(--blue-50)}\r\n.cdrill .chapchip .no{font-size:11px;font-weight:800;color:var(--slate);font-variant-numeric:tabular-nums}\r\n.cdrill .chapchip .cn{font-size:12.6px;font-weight:600;color:var(--ink);letter-spacing:-.005em;\r\n  overflow:hidden;text-overflow:ellipsis;white-space:nowrap;text-transform:none}\r\n.cdrill .chapchip .cw{flex:none;font-size:10.5px;font-weight:800;background:var(--gold-bg);color:#8A6206;\r\n  border:1px solid #F2DFAE;padding:2px 8px;border-radius:99px;white-space:nowrap}\r\n.cdrill .chapchip .cc{flex:none;font-size:10.5px;font-weight:800;min-width:28px;padding:3px 7px;border-radius:6px;\r\n  text-align:center;font-variant-numeric:tabular-nums}\r\n.cdrill .chapchip .cc.pyq{background:var(--blue-900);color:#fff}\r\n.cdrill .chapchip .cc.con{background:var(--blue-100);color:var(--blue-800)}\r\n.cdrill 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0}\r\n@media(max-width:760px){.cdrill .lists{grid-template-columns:1fr;gap:22px}}\r\n.cdrill .lcol h5{margin:0 0 10px;padding:0 0 9px;border-bottom:1px solid #DCD3BE;font-size:12px;font-weight:800;color:var(--ink)}\r\n.cdrill .lcol ul{list-style:none;margin:0;padding:0;display:grid;gap:12px}\r\n.cdrill .lcol li{display:grid;grid-template-columns:28px 1fr;align-items:baseline;\r\n  font-family:var(--serif) !important;font-size:17.5px;font-weight:600;line-height:1.6;color:#161b26}\r\n.cdrill .lcol li b{font-family:var(--serif);font-weight:600;font-size:17.3px;color:#8A6206}\r\n\r\n\/* options as bordered cards, matching the other pages *\/\r\n.cdrill .opts{display:flex;flex-direction:column;gap:9px}\r\n.cdrill .opt{font-family:var(--serif) !important;padding:12px 16px;border:1.5px solid var(--line);\r\n  border-radius:12px;cursor:pointer;display:flex;align-items:flex-start;gap:12px;transition:all .25s;\r\n  background:#fff;text-align:left;width:100%;-webkit-user-select:none;user-select:none}\r\n.cdrill .opt .txt{font-family:var(--serif) !important;font-size:18.5px !important;line-height:1.6;\r\n  color:#161b26;flex:1;min-width:0}\r\n.cdrill .opt:hover:not(:disabled){border-color:#5F86F0;background:#F6F9FF;transform:translateX(4px)}\r\n.cdrill .opt:disabled{cursor:default;opacity:1;transform:none}\r\n.cdrill .key{min-width:34px;font-family:var(--serif) !important;font-weight:600;font-size:17.3px !important;\r\n  color:#161b26;flex-shrink:0;line-height:1.6}\r\n.cdrill .opt.sel{border-color:var(--blue-700);background:#EFF5FF;box-shadow:0 0 0 1px var(--blue-700)}\r\n.cdrill .opt.sel::after{content:\"Selected\";font-family:'Plus Jakarta Sans',sans-serif;font-weight:800;\r\n  font-size:10.5px;letter-spacing:.08em;text-transform:uppercase;color:var(--blue-800);align-self:center;white-space:nowrap}\r\n.cdrill .opt.right{border-color:var(--ok);background:#F0FDF6;box-shadow:0 0 0 1px var(--ok)}\r\n.cdrill .opt.right .key{color:#086945}\r\n.cdrill .opt.wrong{border-color:var(--bad);background:#FEF4F4;box-shadow:0 0 0 1px var(--bad)}\r\n.cdrill .opt.wrong .key{color:#A81F2B}\r\n.cdrill .mark{margin-left:auto;font-family:'Plus Jakarta Sans',sans-serif;font-weight:800;font-size:10.5px;\r\n  letter-spacing:.08em;text-transform:uppercase;white-space:nowrap;align-self:center}\r\n.cdrill .mark.r{color:var(--ok)} .cdrill .mark.w{color:var(--bad)}\r\n@media(prefers-reduced-motion:reduce){.cdrill .opt:hover:not(:disabled){transform:none}}\r\n.cdrill .hint{margin:12px 0 0;font-size:13.5px;font-weight:600;color:#8A6206;background:var(--gold-bg);\r\n  border:1px solid #F2DFAE;border-radius:10px;padding:10px 14px}\r\n.cdrill .actions{display:flex;gap:9px;flex-wrap:wrap;margin-top:18px;align-items:center}\r\n.cdrill .btn{padding:11px 20px;border-radius:11px;font-weight:700;font-size:14px;background:var(--blue-700);color:#fff;transition:.15s}\r\n.cdrill .btn:hover{background:var(--blue-800)}\r\n.cdrill .btn:disabled{opacity:.4;cursor:not-allowed}\r\n.cdrill .btn.ghost{background:var(--paper);border:1.5px solid var(--line);color:var(--ink)}\r\n.cdrill .btn.ghost:hover{border-color:var(--blue-700);color:var(--blue-800);background:var(--blue-50)}\r\n.cdrill .flagbtn{display:flex;align-items:center;gap:7px;padding:11px 18px;border-radius:11px;font-weight:700;font-size:14px;\r\n  border:1.5px solid var(--line);background:var(--paper);color:var(--slate);margin-left:auto;transition:.15s}\r\n.cdrill .flagbtn:hover{border-color:var(--gold);color:#8A6206;background:var(--gold-bg)}\r\n.cdrill .flagbtn[aria-pressed=true]{border-color:var(--gold);background:linear-gradient(180deg,var(--gold-lt),var(--gold));color:#3A2A02}\r\n.cdrill .kbd{display:inline-block;font-family:ui-monospace,Menlo,monospace;font-size:10.5px;padding:3px 6px;background:#fff;\r\n  border:1px solid var(--line);border-bottom-width:2px;border-radius:4px;font-weight:700}\r\n.cdrill .keys{margin-top:14px;padding-top:12px;border-top:1px dashed var(--line);font-size:11.5px;color:var(--slate);\r\n  display:flex;gap:14px;flex-wrap:wrap;font-weight:600}\r\n@media(max-width:700px){.cdrill .keys{display:none}}\r\n\r\n.cdrill .verdict{display:flex;align-items:center;gap:10px;font-weight:800;font-size:14px;margin:20px 0 0}\r\n.cdrill .verdict.r{color:var(--ok)} .cdrill .verdict.w{color:var(--bad)}\r\n.cdrill .expl{margin-top:12px;border:1px solid var(--line);border-left:4px solid var(--gold);border-radius:0 12px 12px 0;\r\n  background:#FCFDFF;padding:16px 18px;font-size:14.2px;line-height:1.68}\r\n.cdrill .expl .body{font-family:'Newsreader',Georgia,serif;font-size:16px;line-height:1.7}\r\n.cdrill .expl b{color:var(--blue-800)}\r\n.cdrill .expl-h{font-size:11px;letter-spacing:.14em;text-transform:uppercase;color:var(--slate);font-weight:800;margin-bottom:8px}\r\n\r\n  font-weight:600;font-size:13px;color:var(--blue-800);transition:.14s}\r\n.cdrill .chip:hover:not(:disabled){background:var(--blue-700);border-color:var(--blue-700);color:#fff}\r\n.cdrill .ai-out{margin-top:12px;background:var(--paper);border:1px solid var(--line);border-radius:10px;padding:14px 16px;\r\n  font-size:14px;line-height:1.65}\r\n.cdrill .ai-out b{color:var(--blue-800)}\r\n.cdrill .offline{margin-top:12px;padding-top:10px;border-top:1px dashed #CBD8F6;font-size:11.5px;color:var(--slate);line-height:1.5}\r\n.cdrill .dots span{display:inline-block;width:6px;height:6px;border-radius:99px;background:var(--blue-700);margin-right:4px;animation:cdb 1.1s infinite}\r\n.cdrill .dots span:nth-child(2){animation-delay:.16s} .cdrill .dots span:nth-child(3){animation-delay:.32s}\r\n@keyframes cdb{0%,80%{opacity:.25;transform:translateY(0)}40%{opacity:1;transform:translateY(-3px)}}\r\n\r\n\/* ---------- rail ---------- *\/\r\n.cdrill .rail{display:grid;gap:16px;align-content:start}\r\n.cdrill .rail .card{padding:16px}\r\n.cdrill .rail h3{margin:0;font-size:11px;letter-spacing:.14em;text-transform:uppercase;color:var(--slate);font-weight:800}\r\n.cdrill .score{display:flex;align-items:baseline;gap:8px;margin:10px 0 4px}\r\n.cdrill .score b{font-size:32px;font-weight:800;letter-spacing:-.03em}\r\n.cdrill .score i{font-style:normal;color:var(--slate);font-size:13px;font-weight:600}\r\n.cdrill .bar{height:7px;border-radius:99px;background:var(--wash);overflow:hidden;margin-top:10px}\r\n.cdrill .bar>i{display:block;height:100%;background:linear-gradient(90deg,var(--ok),#37B37E);border-radius:99px;transition:width .4s}\r\n.cdrill .mini{display:flex;justify-content:space-between;font-size:12.5px;color:var(--slate);margin-top:8px;font-weight:600}\r\n.cdrill .streak{display:flex;gap:4px;margin-top:12px}\r\n.cdrill .streak i{flex:1;height:26px;border-radius:5px;background:var(--wash);border:1px solid var(--line)}\r\n.cdrill .streak i.r{background:var(--ok-bg);border-color:#A9DEC6}\r\n.cdrill .streak i.w{background:var(--bad-bg);border-color:#F3C2C6}\r\n.cdrill .nav-head{display:flex;align-items:center;justify-content:space-between;gap:10px;padding:13px 16px;\r\n  border-bottom:1px solid var(--line);flex-wrap:nowrap}\r\n.cdrill .nav-head b{font-size:11px;letter-spacing:.14em;text-transform:uppercase;color:var(--slate);font-weight:800}\r\n.cdrill .navtoggle{flex:none;white-space:nowrap;min-width:56px;text-align:center;\r\n  font-size:12px;font-weight:800;color:var(--blue-800);padding:5px 12px;border-radius:7px;\r\n  border:1px solid var(--line);background:var(--paper);letter-spacing:.02em;transition:.14s}\r\n.cdrill .nav-head b{min-width:0;overflow:hidden;text-overflow:ellipsis;white-space:nowrap}\r\n.cdrill .navtoggle:hover{border-color:var(--blue-700);background:var(--blue-50)}\r\n.cdrill .navgrid{display:grid;grid-template-columns:repeat(6,minmax(0,1fr));gap:6px;\r\n  padding:14px 16px 12px;max-height:238px;overflow-y:auto;overflow-x:hidden}\r\n.cdrill .navgrid::-webkit-scrollbar{width:6px}\r\n.cdrill .navgrid::-webkit-scrollbar-thumb{background:#CBD5E1;border-radius:99px}\r\n.cdrill .navgrid::-webkit-scrollbar-track{background:transparent}\r\n.cdrill .nq{position:relative;box-sizing:border-box;width:100%;min-width:0;height:34px;padding:0;margin:0;\r\n  border-radius:8px;border:1px solid var(--line);background:var(--paper);\r\n  font-family:'Plus Jakarta Sans',system-ui,sans-serif;font-weight:700;font-size:11.5px;line-height:1;\r\n  color:var(--slate);display:flex;align-items:center;justify-content:center;overflow:visible;\r\n  transition:background .12s,border-color .12s,color .12s;font-variant-numeric:tabular-nums;letter-spacing:-.02em}\r\n.cdrill .nq:hover{border-color:var(--blue-700);color:var(--blue-800);background:var(--blue-50)}\r\n@media(max-width:960px){.cdrill .navgrid{grid-template-columns:repeat(10,minmax(0,1fr))}}\r\n@media(max-width:520px){.cdrill .navgrid{grid-template-columns:repeat(7,minmax(0,1fr))}}\r\n.cdrill .nq.r{background:var(--ok-bg);border-color:#8FD3B6;color:#086945}\r\n.cdrill .nq.w{background:var(--bad-bg);border-color:#F0AEB4;color:#A81F2B}\r\n.cdrill .nq.cur{border-color:var(--blue-700);background:var(--blue-700);color:#fff}\r\n.cdrill .nq .fl{position:absolute;top:-5px;right:-4px;font-size:9.5px;line-height:1;\r\n  filter:drop-shadow(0 0 2px #fff)}\r\n.cdrill .nq.mastered::after{content:\"\";position:absolute;bottom:3px;left:50%;transform:translateX(-50%);\r\n  width:4px;height:4px;border-radius:99px;background:var(--ok)}\r\n.cdrill .legend{display:flex;gap:12px;flex-wrap:wrap;font-size:10.5px;color:var(--slate);font-weight:600;\r\n  padding:10px 16px 14px;border-top:1px solid var(--line);margin-top:4px}\r\n.cdrill .legend i{display:inline-block;width:9px;height:9px;border-radius:3px;margin-right:5px;vertical-align:-1px}\r\n\r\n\/* ---------- performance ---------- *\/\r\n.cdrill .perf{padding:24px 24px 32px;display:grid;gap:34px}\r\n.cdrill .ph{margin:0 0 10px;font-size:11px;letter-spacing:.14em;text-transform:uppercase;color:var(--slate);font-weight:800}\r\n.cdrill .ph .secno{color:var(--gold);font-size:12px;letter-spacing:0}\r\n\r\n\/* ---------- performance blocks ---------- *\/\r\n.cdrill .pblock{border:1px solid var(--line);border-radius:16px;background:var(--paper);overflow:hidden}\r\n.cdrill .pbh{display:flex;align-items:flex-start;gap:16px;padding:20px 24px 18px;\r\n  background:linear-gradient(180deg,#FBFCFF,#F6F9FF);border-bottom:1px solid var(--line)}\r\n.cdrill .pbh .txt{flex:1;min-width:0}\r\n.cdrill .pbh h4{font-size:17px;font-weight:800;letter-spacing:-.015em;color:var(--ink);margin:0 0 7px;\r\n  display:flex;align-items:center;gap:9px}\r\n.cdrill .pbh h4 .dot{width:7px;height:7px;border-radius:99px;background:var(--gold);flex:none}\r\n.cdrill .pbh p{font-size:13px;color:var(--slate);line-height:1.6;margin:0}\r\n.cdrill .pbh .pbtag{flex:none;font-size:10.5px;font-weight:800;letter-spacing:.07em;text-transform:uppercase;\r\n  color:var(--blue-800);background:var(--blue-100);border-radius:99px;padding:6px 13px;white-space:nowrap}\r\n.cdrill .bars{padding:8px 24px 18px}\r\n.cdrill .subhead{display:flex;align-items:baseline;gap:10px;flex-wrap:wrap;padding:18px 24px 2px;\r\n  border-top:1px solid #EEF2F9;margin-top:6px}\r\n.cdrill .subhead:first-of-type{border-top:0;margin-top:0}\r\n.cdrill .subhead h5{font-size:12.5px;font-weight:800;color:var(--ink);letter-spacing:.01em;margin:0}\r\n.cdrill .subhead span{font-size:11.8px;color:var(--slate);font-weight:600}\r\n.cdrill .hero2{display:grid;grid-template-columns:260px 1fr;gap:18px}\r\n@media(max-width:860px){.cdrill .hero2{grid-template-columns:1fr}}\r\n.cdrill .ring-card{background:linear-gradient(150deg,var(--blue-900),var(--blue-800) 70%,var(--blue-700));border-radius:var(--r);\r\n  padding:24px 20px;color:#fff;text-align:center;display:flex;flex-direction:column;align-items:center;justify-content:center}\r\n.cdrill .ring{position:relative;width:150px;height:150px}\r\n.cdrill .ring svg{transform:rotate(-90deg)}\r\n.cdrill .ring .bg{fill:none;stroke:rgba(255,255,255,.14);stroke-width:11}\r\n.cdrill .ring .fg{fill:none;stroke:var(--gold-lt);stroke-width:11;stroke-linecap:round;transition:stroke-dashoffset 1s ease}\r\n.cdrill .ring-txt{position:absolute;inset:0;display:flex;flex-direction:column;align-items:center;justify-content:center}\r\n.cdrill .ring-txt b{font-size:40px;font-weight:800;color:var(--gold-lt);letter-spacing:-.03em;line-height:1}\r\n.cdrill .ring-txt span{font-size:9.5px;letter-spacing:.12em;text-transform:uppercase;color:#BFDBFE;margin-top:5px;font-weight:700}\r\n.cdrill .verdict2{margin-top:14px;font-size:13.4px;color:#DBEAFE;line-height:1.55}\r\n.cdrill .verdict2 b{color:#fff}\r\n.cdrill .coach{border:1px solid var(--line);border-radius:var(--r);padding:18px 20px;background:var(--paper)}\r\n.cdrill .coach h4{font-size:14.5px;font-weight:800;margin-bottom:12px;display:flex;gap:8px;align-items:center}\r\n.cdrill .reco{display:flex;gap:12px;padding:11px 0;border-bottom:1px dashed var(--line);align-items:flex-start}\r\n.cdrill .reco:last-child{border-bottom:0}\r\n.cdrill .reco .ic{width:30px;height:30px;border-radius:8px;display:grid;place-items:center;font-size:13px;flex:none;margin-top:1px}\r\n.cdrill .reco .ic.hot{background:var(--bad-bg);color:var(--bad)}\r\n.cdrill .reco .ic.warm{background:var(--gold-bg);color:#8A6206}\r\n.cdrill .reco .ic.cool{background:var(--blue-100);color:var(--blue-800)}\r\n.cdrill .reco .ic.good{background:var(--ok-bg);color:var(--ok)}\r\n.cdrill .reco p{font-size:13.8px;line-height:1.55}\r\n.cdrill .reco .go{margin-left:auto;flex:none;background:var(--blue-50);color:var(--blue-800);border:1px solid #D4E2FB;\r\n  border-radius:8px;padding:6px 12px;font-size:11.5px;font-weight:800;white-space:nowrap;transition:.15s}\r\n.cdrill .reco .go:hover{background:var(--blue-700);color:#fff}\r\n.cdrill .planner{background:linear-gradient(135deg,#FFFDF6,#FFF8E8);border:1px solid #EADFC2;border-left:4px solid var(--gold);\r\n  border-radius:0 var(--r) var(--r) 0;padding:18px 20px;display:flex;align-items:center;justify-content:space-between;gap:18px;flex-wrap:wrap}\r\n.cdrill .planner h4{font-size:17px;font-weight:800;margin-bottom:5px;letter-spacing:-.01em;\r\n  display:flex;align-items:center;gap:9px}\r\n.cdrill .planner p{font-size:13px;color:var(--slate);line-height:1.55;max-width:62ch}\r\n.cdrill .pbtns{display:flex;gap:10px;flex-wrap:wrap}\r\n.cdrill .pbtn{padding:11px 18px;border:1.5px solid var(--gold);border-radius:11px;background:#fff;color:#8A6206;\r\n  font-weight:800;font-size:13.5px;display:flex;gap:7px;align-items:center;white-space:nowrap;transition:.15s}\r\n.cdrill .pbtn:hover{background:var(--gold-bg)}\r\n.cdrill .pbtn.primary{background:linear-gradient(180deg,var(--gold-lt),var(--gold));color:#3A2A02;border-color:var(--gold)}\r\n.cdrill .pbtn.navy{background:var(--blue-900);border-color:var(--blue-900);color:#fff}\r\n.cdrill .pbtn.navy:hover{background:var(--blue-800);border-color:var(--blue-800)}\r\n.cdrill .kpis{display:grid;grid-template-columns:repeat(auto-fit,minmax(150px,1fr));gap:12px}\r\n.cdrill .kpi{border:1px solid var(--line);border-radius:12px;padding:15px;background:linear-gradient(180deg,#fff,var(--blue-50))}\r\n.cdrill .kpi b{display:block;font-size:26px;font-weight:800;letter-spacing:-.03em}\r\n.cdrill .kpi span{font-size:11.5px;color:var(--slate);font-weight:700;text-transform:uppercase;letter-spacing:.06em}\r\n.cdrill .tblwrap{overflow-x:auto;border:1px solid var(--line);border-radius:12px;background:#fff}\r\n\/* nested two-tier header, PYQ and concept side by side *\/\r\n.cdrill table.nested{min-width:880px}\r\n.cdrill table.nested thead th{background:var(--blue-700);border-bottom:0;padding:11px 10px;\r\n  font-size:10.6px;letter-spacing:.06em;vertical-align:middle}\r\n.cdrill table.nested thead th.grp{background:var(--blue-900);border-left:1px solid rgba(255,255,255,.16);\r\n  border-right:1px solid rgba(255,255,255,.16);font-size:11.4px;letter-spacing:.04em}\r\n.cdrill table.nested thead th.sub2{background:#2F62EA;font-size:10.2px;font-weight:600;padding:8px 10px}\r\n.cdrill table.nested thead th.lft{text-align:left;padding-left:14px}\r\n.cdrill table.nested td{padding:12px 10px;font-size:12.6px}\r\n.cdrill table.nested td.lft{text-align:left;padding-left:14px;font-weight:700;max-width:270px;\r\n  line-height:1.4;background:#FBFCFE;font-size:12.8px}\r\n.cdrill .wt{font-size:15px;font-weight:800;color:var(--blue-900)}\r\n.cdrill .wsub{font-size:10.6px;color:var(--slate);font-weight:700;margin-left:5px}\r\n.cdrill .nil{color:#B6C2D6;font-weight:700}\r\n.cdrill .minibar{height:6px;width:62px;margin:0 auto 4px;border-radius:99px;background:#EEF2F9;overflow:hidden}\r\n.cdrill .minibar>i{display:block;height:100%;border-radius:99px}\r\n.cdrill .miniv{font-size:11.4px;font-weight:800}\r\n.cdrill td.prac{white-space:nowrap}\r\n.cdrill td.prac .mini-go+.mini-go{margin-left:5px}\r\n.cdrill .mini-go.pyq{color:#fff;background:var(--blue-900);border-color:var(--blue-900)}\r\n.cdrill .mini-go.pyq:hover{background:var(--blue-800);border-color:var(--blue-800)}\r\n\/* numbered section headings *\/\r\n.cdrill .pbh h4 .secno{font-size:15px;font-weight:800;color:var(--gold);letter-spacing:0;\r\n  font-variant-numeric:tabular-nums;margin-right:2px}\r\n.cdrill .pbh .sechint{flex:none;font-family:'Newsreader',Georgia,serif;font-style:italic;font-size:12.8px;\r\n  color:var(--slate);white-space:nowrap;align-self:center}\r\n@media(max-width:760px){.cdrill .pbh .sechint{display:none}}\r\n.cdrill table.perf-t{border-collapse:collapse;width:100%;font-size:13px;min-width:760px}\r\n.cdrill table.perf-t th,.cdrill table.perf-t td{padding:10px;border-bottom:1px solid #EEF2F9;text-align:center;vertical-align:middle}\r\n.cdrill table.perf-t thead th{background:var(--blue-900);color:#fff;font-weight:700;font-size:11px;letter-spacing:.05em;text-transform:uppercase}\r\n.cdrill table.perf-t th:first-child,.cdrill table.perf-t td:first-child{text-align:left;padding-left:14px}\r\n.cdrill table.perf-t td:first-child{font-weight:700;max-width:280px;line-height:1.35;background:#FBFCFE}\r\n.cdrill .sub{display:block;font-size:10.6px;color:var(--slate);font-weight:600;margin-top:3px}\r\n.cdrill .tbar{height:6px;border-radius:99px;background:var(--wash);overflow:hidden;min-width:80px}\r\n.cdrill .tbar>i{display:block;height:100%;border-radius:99px}\r\n.cdrill .tag{display:inline-block;font-size:10.4px;font-weight:800;padding:3px 9px;border-radius:99px;text-transform:uppercase;letter-spacing:.04em}\r\n.cdrill .tag.hot{background:var(--bad-bg);color:var(--bad)}\r\n.cdrill .tag.warm{background:var(--gold-bg);color:#8A6206}\r\n.cdrill .tag.ok{background:var(--blue-100);color:var(--blue-800)}\r\n.cdrill .tag.good{background:var(--ok-bg);color:var(--ok)}\r\n.cdrill .tag.na{background:#F1F5F9;color:var(--slate)}\r\n.cdrill .mini-go{border:1px solid var(--line);border-radius:8px;padding:5px 10px;font-size:11.2px;font-weight:800;color:var(--blue-800);transition:.15s}\r\n.cdrill .mini-go:hover{background:var(--blue-700);color:#fff;border-color:var(--blue-700)}\r\n.cdrill .lrow{display:grid;grid-template-columns:minmax(150px,1.2fr) 2.4fr 96px;gap:18px;align-items:center;\r\n  padding:12px 10px;border-radius:9px;transition:background .13s;margin:0 -10px}\r\n.cdrill .lrow:hover{background:#FAFCFF}\r\n.cdrill .lrow+.lrow{border-top:1px solid #F1F5FB}\r\n@media(max-width:620px){.cdrill .lrow{grid-template-columns:1fr auto;row-gap:6px}.cdrill .lrow .ltrack{grid-column:1\/-1}}\r\n.cdrill .lname{font-size:13.4px;font-weight:700;line-height:1.35}\r\n.cdrill .lsub{display:block;font-size:10.8px;font-weight:600;color:var(--slate);margin-top:4px}\r\n.cdrill .ltrack{background:#EEF2F9;border-radius:99px;height:11px;overflow:hidden;\r\n  box-shadow:inset 0 1px 2px rgba(16,32,74,.05)}\r\n.cdrill .lfill{height:100%;border-radius:99px;transition:width .8s cubic-bezier(.22,.9,.28,1)}\r\n.cdrill .lval{text-align:right;font-size:16px;font-weight:800;letter-spacing:-.02em}\r\n.cdrill .lval small{display:block;font-size:10px;font-weight:700;color:var(--slate);text-transform:uppercase;letter-spacing:.05em;margin-top:2px}\r\n.cdrill .split{display:grid;grid-template-columns:1fr 1fr;gap:16px}\r\n@media(max-width:860px){.cdrill .split{grid-template-columns:1fr}}\r\n.cdrill .panel{border:1px solid var(--line);border-radius:12px;padding:16px 18px}\r\n.cdrill .rev{display:flex;align-items:center;gap:10px;width:100%;text-align:left;background:#FAFBFE;border-left:3px solid var(--gold);\r\n  border-radius:8px;padding:10px 12px;margin-bottom:8px;font-size:12.6px;transition:.15s}\r\n.cdrill .rev:hover{background:var(--gold-bg);transform:translateX(3px)}\r\n.cdrill .rev .n{font-weight:800;color:#8A6206;flex:none}\r\n.cdrill .rev .t{flex:1;color:var(--slate);white-space:nowrap;overflow:hidden;text-overflow:ellipsis}\r\n.cdrill .rev .d{background:var(--gold);color:#3A2A02;padding:2px 8px;border-radius:99px;font-size:10.2px;font-weight:800;white-space:nowrap}\r\n.cdrill .danger{border:1px dashed #F3C2C6;border-radius:12px;background:#FFFAFA;padding:16px 18px;\r\n  display:flex;align-items:center;justify-content:space-between;gap:14px;flex-wrap:wrap}\r\n.cdrill .danger p{font-size:13px;color:var(--slate);flex:1;min-width:220px;line-height:1.6}\r\n.cdrill .danger b{color:var(--bad)}\r\n.cdrill .dbtn{padding:11px 20px;background:#fff;border:1.5px solid #F3C2C6;border-radius:11px;color:var(--bad);\r\n  font-size:13px;font-weight:800;white-space:nowrap;transition:.15s}\r\n.cdrill .dbtn:hover{background:var(--bad);border-color:var(--bad);color:#fff}\r\n\/* ---------- exam analytics ---------- *\/\r\n.cdrill .rankrow{display:grid;grid-template-columns:26px minmax(120px,1.25fr) 2.2fr 42px 46px;gap:14px;\r\n  align-items:center;padding:9px 10px;margin:0 -10px;border-radius:9px;transition:background .13s}\r\n.cdrill .rankrow:hover{background:#FAFCFF}\r\n.cdrill .rankrow+.rankrow{border-top:1px dashed #EEF2F9}\r\n.cdrill .rankrow .rk{font-size:11.5px;font-weight:800;color:#B6C2D6;text-align:right;font-variant-numeric:tabular-nums}\r\n.cdrill .rankrow .rname{font-size:12.4px;font-weight:600;color:var(--blue-800);line-height:1.35;\r\n  overflow:hidden;text-overflow:ellipsis;white-space:nowrap}\r\n.cdrill .rankrow .rname.gold{color:#8A6206;font-weight:800}\r\n.cdrill .rankrow .rtrack{height:15px;border-radius:5px;background:#EEF2F9;overflow:hidden}\r\n.cdrill .rankrow .rtrack>i{display:block;height:100%;border-radius:5px;transition:width .8s cubic-bezier(.22,.9,.28,1)}\r\n.cdrill .rankrow .rv{font-size:15px;font-weight:800;text-align:right;font-variant-numeric:tabular-nums;letter-spacing:-.02em}\r\n.cdrill .rankrow .rp{font-size:11px;font-weight:700;color:var(--slate);text-align:right;font-variant-numeric:tabular-nums}\r\n@media(max-width:700px){.cdrill .rankrow{grid-template-columns:22px minmax(0,1fr) 34px 42px}\r\n  .cdrill .rankrow .rtrack{grid-column:1\/-1;order:9}}\r\n\r\n.cdrill table.hm{min-width:760px;font-size:12px}\r\n.cdrill table.hm thead th{background:var(--blue-700);padding:9px 6px;font-size:10.4px}\r\n.cdrill table.hm thead th.lft{text-align:left;padding-left:14px;min-width:230px}\r\n.cdrill table.hm thead th.tot{background:var(--blue-900)}\r\n.cdrill table.hm td{padding:7px 6px;font-size:11.8px;border-bottom:1px solid #F1F5FB;font-variant-numeric:tabular-nums}\r\n.cdrill table.hm td.lft{text-align:left;padding-left:14px;font-weight:600;font-size:11.8px;line-height:1.35;\r\n  background:#FBFCFE;max-width:250px}\r\n.cdrill table.hm td.tot{font-weight:800;background:#F4F7FD;color:var(--blue-900)}\r\n.cdrill table.hm tfoot td{background:var(--blue-700);color:#fff;font-weight:800;font-size:11.6px;padding:9px 6px;border:0}\r\n.cdrill table.hm tfoot td.lft{background:var(--blue-700);color:#fff;text-align:left;padding-left:14px}\r\n.cdrill .hmlegend{display:flex;align-items:center;gap:5px;padding:12px 24px 16px;font-size:10.8px;\r\n  color:var(--slate);font-weight:700}\r\n.cdrill .hmlegend i{width:26px;height:11px;border-radius:3px;display:inline-block;border:1px solid rgba(0,0,0,.05)}\r\n.cdrill .hmlegend span:last-child{margin-left:3px}\r\n\r\n.cdrill .cyc{display:flex;align-items:flex-end;gap:12px;padding:26px 24px 18px;overflow-x:auto}\r\n.cdrill .cycbar{display:flex;flex-direction:column;align-items:center;gap:7px;flex:1;min-width:52px}\r\n.cdrill .cycbar .cn{font-size:12.5px;font-weight:800;color:var(--blue-800);font-variant-numeric:tabular-nums}\r\n.cdrill .cycbar .cbar{width:100%;max-width:46px;border-radius:6px 6px 0 0;\r\n  background:linear-gradient(180deg,var(--gold-lt),var(--gold));transition:height .8s cubic-bezier(.22,.9,.28,1)}\r\n.cdrill .cycbar .cy{font-size:10.4px;font-weight:700;color:var(--slate);white-space:nowrap}\r\n\r\n.cdrill .empty{text-align:center;padding:40px 20px;color:var(--slate)}\r\n.cdrill .empty b{display:block;color:var(--ink);font-size:16px;margin-bottom:6px}\r\n.cdrill .toast{position:fixed;bottom:26px;left:50%;transform:translateX(-50%);background:var(--blue-900);color:#fff;\r\n  padding:12px 22px;border-radius:11px;font-weight:700;font-size:13.5px;z-index:9999;display:none;box-shadow:var(--shadow)}\r\n.cdrill .toast.show{display:block}\r\n.cdrill .toast.ok{background:var(--ok)}\r\n\r\n\/* ---------- content protection ---------- *\/\r\n.cdrill{-webkit-user-select:none;-moz-user-select:none;-ms-user-select:none;user-select:none;\r\n  -webkit-touch-callout:none;-webkit-tap-highlight-color:transparent}\r\n\/* inputs must stay usable, or the search box cannot be edited *\/\r\n.cdrill input,.cdrill textarea,.cdrill select{-webkit-user-select:text;user-select:text}\r\n.cdrill.allow-select{-webkit-user-select:text;user-select:text}\r\n.cdrill img,.cdrill svg{-webkit-user-drag:none;user-drag:none;pointer-events:none}\r\n.cdrill .navtoggle,.cdrill .tab,.cdrill button{-webkit-user-drag:none}\r\n\/* screen obscured while the window is not in front *\/\r\n.cdrill.veiled .qbody,.cdrill.veiled .perf,.cdrill.veiled .chaplist,.cdrill.veiled .yearlist{\r\n  filter:blur(9px);transition:filter .12s}\r\n.cdrill .veilmsg{position:absolute;inset:0;display:none;align-items:center;justify-content:center;\r\n  background:rgba(244,247,253,.72);z-index:40;font-weight:800;font-size:13.5px;color:var(--blue-900);\r\n  text-align:center;padding:20px;border-radius:var(--r)}\r\n.cdrill.veiled .veilmsg{display:flex}\r\n.cdrill{position:relative}\r\n\/* what a print or PDF export gets instead of the paper *\/\r\n.cdrill-printblock{display:none}\r\n@media print{\r\n  .cdrill{display:none!important}\r\n  .cdrill-printblock{display:block!important;padding:60px 40px;text-align:center;\r\n    font-family:'Plus Jakarta Sans',system-ui,sans-serif;color:#12246E}\r\n  .cdrill-printblock h2{font-size:20px;font-weight:800;margin:0 0 10px}\r\n  .cdrill-printblock p{font-size:13.5px;color:#5B6B85;line-height:1.7;max-width:60ch;margin:0 auto}\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* ---------- mobile ---------- *\/\r\n@media(max-width:640px){\r\n  .cdrill .wrap{padding:0 14px}\r\n\r\n  \/* hero: tighter, and the stat tiles share the row evenly *\/\r\n  .cdrill .hero{padding-top:18px}\r\n  .cdrill .hero h1{font-size:19px}\r\n  .cdrill .hero p{font-size:12.6px;margin-bottom:14px}\r\n  .cdrill .hstats{gap:7px}\r\n  .cdrill .hstat{flex:1 1 0;min-width:0;padding:8px 10px;text-align:center}\r\n  .cdrill .hstat b{font-size:17px}\r\n  .cdrill .hstat span{font-size:8.8px;letter-spacing:.06em}\r\n\r\n  \/* tabs scroll sideways instead of wrapping onto two lines *\/\r\n  .cdrill .tabs{margin-top:16px;gap:5px;flex-wrap:nowrap;overflow-x:auto;scrollbar-width:none;\r\n    -webkit-overflow-scrolling:touch}\r\n  .cdrill .tabs::-webkit-scrollbar{display:none}\r\n  .cdrill .tab{flex:none;padding:10px 15px;font-size:12.6px;gap:6px;white-space:nowrap}\r\n  .cdrill .tab[aria-selected=true]{padding-bottom:13px}\r\n\r\n  \/* THE FIX: pills were shrinking to fit instead of scrolling, which cut\r\n     every label in half. flex:none makes the row scroll as intended. *\/\r\n  .cdrill .filters .wrap{padding-top:11px;padding-bottom:11px;gap:8px;\r\n    -webkit-overflow-scrolling:touch}\r\n  .cdrill .pill-f{flex:none;padding:8px 14px;font-size:12.6px;gap:6px}\r\n  .cdrill .pill-f .n{font-size:10.5px;padding:2px 7px}\r\n\r\n  \/* toolbar stacks *\/\r\n  .cdrill .grid{padding:14px 0 40px;gap:14px}\r\n  .cdrill .toolbar{gap:8px;padding-bottom:12px}\r\n  .cdrill .search{flex:1 1 100%;min-width:0}\r\n  .cdrill .tgl{flex:1;justify-content:center;padding:9px 12px;font-size:12.6px}\r\n\r\n  \/* question card *\/\r\n  .cdrill .qhead{padding:11px 14px;gap:8px}\r\n  .cdrill .qcount{font-size:15px;width:100%}\r\n  .cdrill .qmeta{gap:6px}\r\n  .cdrill .badge-ch{max-width:100%;font-size:11px;padding:5px 11px}\r\n  .cdrill .badge-m,.cdrill .badge-src,.cdrill .qtag{font-size:10.6px;padding:4px 10px}\r\n  .cdrill .qbody{padding:16px 14px 18px}\r\n  .cdrill .qsheet{padding:15px 15px 16px;border-radius:0 9px 9px 0}\r\n  .cdrill .stem,.cdrill .qsheet .lead,.cdrill .qsheet .intro,.cdrill .qsheet .close,\r\n  .cdrill .stmts li,.cdrill .opt .txt{font-size:16.6px !important;line-height:1.6}\r\n  .cdrill .lists{grid-template-columns:1fr;gap:18px}\r\n  .cdrill .opt{padding:11px 13px;gap:9px}\r\n  .cdrill .key{min-width:28px;font-size:16px !important}\r\n  .cdrill .opt.sel::after{display:none}\r\n  .cdrill .actions{gap:7px}\r\n  .cdrill .btn{flex:1;padding:11px 14px;font-size:13.4px;text-align:center}\r\n  .cdrill .flagbtn{margin-left:0;flex:1 1 100%;justify-content:center;padding:11px 14px}\r\n  .cdrill .expl{padding:14px 15px}\r\n  .cdrill .expl .body{font-size:15.4px}\r\n\r\n  \/* chapter list and navigator *\/\r\n  .cdrill .chaphead{padding:10px 14px;gap:8px}\r\n  .cdrill .chaphead .meta{margin-left:0;flex:1 1 100%;white-space:normal}\r\n  .cdrill .chapchip{padding:10px 14px;gap:7px}\r\n  .cdrill .chapchip .cn{font-size:12.2px}\r\n  .cdrill .yearlist{padding:14px;gap:8px}\r\n  .cdrill .ychip{flex:1 1 calc(33.333% - 6px);min-width:0;padding:10px 8px}\r\n  .cdrill .navgrid{grid-template-columns:repeat(8,minmax(0,1fr));max-height:none}\r\n  .cdrill .rail .card{padding:14px}\r\n\r\n  \/* performance and analytics *\/\r\n  .cdrill .perf{padding:16px 14px 24px;gap:22px}\r\n  .cdrill .pbh{padding:16px 15px 14px;gap:10px}\r\n  .cdrill .pbh h4{font-size:15.4px}\r\n  .cdrill .pbh p{font-size:12.4px}\r\n  .cdrill .bars{padding:6px 15px 14px}\r\n  .cdrill .hero2{gap:14px}\r\n  .cdrill .ring-card{padding:20px 16px}\r\n  .cdrill .coach{padding:15px}\r\n  .cdrill .reco{gap:10px}\r\n  .cdrill .reco p{font-size:13px}\r\n  .cdrill .reco .go{margin-left:0;flex:1 1 100%;margin-top:6px}\r\n  .cdrill .planner{padding:15px;gap:12px}\r\n  .cdrill .pbtns{width:100%;gap:8px}\r\n  .cdrill .pbtn{flex:1 1 100%;justify-content:center;padding:12px 14px}\r\n  .cdrill .kpis{grid-template-columns:repeat(2,minmax(0,1fr));gap:9px}\r\n  .cdrill .kpi{padding:12px}\r\n  .cdrill .kpi b{font-size:22px}\r\n  .cdrill .kpi span{font-size:10.4px}\r\n  .cdrill .panel{padding:14px}\r\n  .cdrill .danger{padding:14px}\r\n  .cdrill .dbtn{width:100%}\r\n  .cdrill .cyc{padding:20px 14px 14px;gap:8px}\r\n  .cdrill .cycbar{min-width:42px}\r\n  .cdrill .toast{left:14px;right:14px;transform:none;text-align:center;bottom:16px}\r\n}\r\n@media(max-width:380px){\r\n  .cdrill .hstat b{font-size:15.5px}\r\n  .cdrill .navgrid{grid-template-columns:repeat(6,minmax(0,1fr))}\r\n  .cdrill .ychip{flex:1 1 calc(50% - 5px)}\r\n  .cdrill .kpis{grid-template-columns:1fr}\r\n}\r\n<\/style>\r\n\r\n<div class=\"cdrill\" id=\"cdRoot\">\r\n\r\n  <header class=\"hero\">\r\n    <div class=\"wrap\">\r\n      <div class=\"eyebrow\" id=\"cdEyebrow\">CSS ADDA \u00b7 PromotionExams.com<\/div>\r\n      <h1 id=\"cdTopic\">Chapter-wise Test Series<\/h1>\r\n      <p id=\"cdSub\">Chapter drills with a planner that builds your next sitting for you.<\/p>\r\n      <div class=\"hstats\">\r\n        <div class=\"hstat\"><b class=\"tnum\" id=\"hQ\">0<\/b><span>Questions<\/span><\/div>\r\n        <div class=\"hstat\"><b class=\"tnum\" id=\"hCh\">0<\/b><span>Chapters<\/span><\/div>\r\n        <div class=\"hstat\"><b class=\"tnum\" id=\"hMastered\">0%<\/b><span>Mastered<\/span><\/div>\r\n        <div class=\"hstat\"><b class=\"tnum\" id=\"hReady\">\u2014<\/b><span>Readiness<\/span><\/div>\r\n      <\/div>\r\n      <div class=\"tabs\" role=\"tablist\">\r\n        <button class=\"tab\" role=\"tab\" aria-selected=\"true\" data-tab=\"quiz\">\u270f\ufe0f Practice<\/button>\r\n        <button class=\"tab\" role=\"tab\" aria-selected=\"false\" data-tab=\"perf\">\ud83d\udcca My Performance <span class=\"pill hide\" id=\"perfPill\">!<\/span><\/button>\r\n        <button class=\"tab hide\" role=\"tab\" aria-selected=\"false\" data-tab=\"exam\" id=\"tabExam\">\ud83d\udcdc Exam Analytics<\/button>\r\n      <\/div>\r\n    <\/div>\r\n  <\/header>\r\n  <div class=\"goldrule\"><\/div>\r\n\r\n  <div class=\"filters\" id=\"cdFilters\">\r\n    <div class=\"wrap\" role=\"group\" aria-label=\"Filter questions\">\r\n      <button class=\"pill-f\" data-f=\"all\" aria-pressed=\"true\">\ud83d\udccb All questions<span class=\"n tnum\" id=\"fAll\">0<\/span><\/button>\r\n      <button class=\"pill-f navy\" data-f=\"pyq\">\ud83d\udcdc PYQs only<span class=\"n tnum\" id=\"fPyq\">0<\/span><\/button>\r\n      <button class=\"pill-f\" data-f=\"concept\">\ud83e\udde0 Concept MCQs<span class=\"n tnum\" id=\"fCon\">0<\/span><\/button>\r\n      <button class=\"pill-f\" data-f=\"chapter\">\ud83d\udcda By chapter<\/button>\r\n      <button class=\"pill-f gold hide\" data-f=\"session\" id=\"pillSession\">\ud83e\udde9 <span id=\"sessLabel\">My session<\/span><span class=\"n tnum\" id=\"fSess\">0<\/span><\/button>\r\n      <button class=\"pill-f warn\" data-f=\"weak\">\u26a0\ufe0f Weak areas<span class=\"n tnum\" id=\"fWeak\">0<\/span><\/button>\r\n      <button class=\"pill-f\" data-f=\"flagged\">\ud83d\udd16 Flagged<span class=\"n tnum\" id=\"fFlag\">0<\/span><\/button>\r\n    <\/div>\r\n  <\/div>\r\n\r\n  <div class=\"wrap\">\r\n    <!-- ============ PRACTICE ============ -->\r\n    <div class=\"grid\" id=\"viewQuiz\">\r\n      <div>\r\n        <div class=\"toolbar\">\r\n          <div class=\"search\">\r\n            <svg viewBox=\"0 0 24 24\" fill=\"none\" stroke=\"currentColor\" stroke-width=\"2.2\"><circle cx=\"11\" cy=\"11\" r=\"7\"\/><path d=\"M20 20l-3.5-3.5\"\/><\/svg>\r\n            <input id=\"cdSearch\" placeholder=\"Search a phrase or a rule number\" aria-label=\"Search questions\">\r\n          <\/div>\r\n          <button class=\"tgl\" id=\"tglUn\" aria-pressed=\"false\">\u25fb Unattempted only<\/button>\r\n          <button class=\"tgl\" id=\"tglReset\">\u21ba Reset session<\/button>\r\n        <\/div>\r\n\r\n        <section class=\"card chapcard hide\" id=\"chapPanel\">\r\n          <div class=\"chaphead\">\r\n            <b>\ud83d\udcda Filter by chapter<\/b><i id=\"chapHint\"><\/i>\r\n            <span class=\"bankseg\" role=\"group\" aria-label=\"Which bank\">\r\n              <button data-bank=\"all\" aria-pressed=\"true\">Both<\/button>\r\n              <button data-bank=\"pyq\" aria-pressed=\"false\">PYQs<\/button>\r\n              <button data-bank=\"concept\" aria-pressed=\"false\">Concept<\/button>\r\n            <\/span>\r\n            <span class=\"meta\" id=\"ctxMeta\"><\/span>\r\n          <\/div>\r\n          <div class=\"chaplist\" id=\"chapList\" role=\"group\" aria-label=\"Choose chapter\"><\/div>\r\n        <\/section>\r\n\r\n        <section class=\"card hide\" id=\"emptyCard\">\r\n          <div class=\"qhead\"><span class=\"qcount\">Nothing to show<\/span><\/div>\r\n          <div class=\"empty\" id=\"emptyBody\"><\/div>\r\n        <\/section>\r\n\r\n        <section class=\"card\" id=\"qCard\">\r\n          <div class=\"qhead\">\r\n            <span class=\"qcount\" id=\"qCount\">Question 1 of 1<\/span>\r\n            <span class=\"qmeta\">\r\n              <span class=\"badge-src\" id=\"qSrc\">Concept<\/span>\r\n              <span class=\"badge-m\" id=\"qMastery\">Not seen yet<\/span>\r\n              <span class=\"badge-ch\"><span id=\"qChap\">Chapter<\/span><\/span>\r\n              <span id=\"qTags\" class=\"qtags\"><\/span>\r\n            <\/span>\r\n          <\/div>\r\n          <div class=\"qbody\">\r\n            <p class=\"stem\" id=\"qStem\"><\/p>\r\n            <div class=\"opts\" id=\"qOpts\"><\/div>\r\n            <div class=\"actions\">\r\n              <button class=\"btn\" id=\"btnCheck\">Check answer<\/button>\r\n              <button class=\"btn ghost\" id=\"btnPrev\">\u2190 Previous<\/button>\r\n              <button class=\"btn ghost\" id=\"btnNext\">Next \u2192<\/button>\r\n              <button class=\"flagbtn\" id=\"btnFlag\" aria-pressed=\"false\"><span id=\"flagIco\">\ud83c\udff3\ufe0f<\/span><span id=\"flagTxt\">Flag for review<\/span><\/button>\r\n            <\/div>\r\n            <p class=\"hint hide\" id=\"pickHint\">Choose an option above, then check your answer.<\/p>\r\n\r\n            <div id=\"result\" class=\"hide\">\r\n              <div class=\"verdict\" id=\"verdict\"><\/div>\r\n              <div class=\"expl\">\r\n                <div class=\"expl-h\">Source &amp; reasoning<\/div>\r\n                <div id=\"explBody\" class=\"body\"><\/div>\r\n              <\/div>\r\n            <\/div>\r\n          <\/div>\r\n        <\/section>\r\n      <\/div>\r\n\r\n      <aside class=\"rail\">\r\n        <section class=\"card\" id=\"navCard\" style=\"padding:0\">\r\n          <div class=\"nav-head\"><b id=\"navTitle\">Navigator<\/b><button class=\"navtoggle\" id=\"navToggle\">Hide<\/button><\/div>\r\n          <div class=\"navgrid\" id=\"navGrid\"><\/div>\r\n          <div class=\"legend\">\r\n            <span><i style=\"background:var(--ok-bg);border:1.5px solid #8FD3B6\"><\/i>Correct<\/span>\r\n            <span><i style=\"background:var(--bad-bg);border:1.5px solid #F0AEB4\"><\/i>Wrong<\/span>\r\n            <span><i style=\"background:var(--ok)\"><\/i>Mastered<\/span>\r\n          <\/div>\r\n        <\/section>\r\n        <div class=\"card\">\r\n          <h3>This session<\/h3>\r\n          <div class=\"score\"><b id=\"sPct\">\u2014<\/b><i id=\"sFrac\">0 of 0 correct<\/i><\/div>\r\n          <div 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Open it when a citation needs checking.<\/p>\r\n          <a class=\"btn\" id=\"srcLink\" href=\"#\" target=\"_blank\" rel=\"noopener\" style=\"display:block;text-align:center;text-decoration:none\">\ud83d\udcd6 Read the source<\/a>\r\n        <\/div>\r\n      <\/aside>\r\n    <\/div>\r\n\r\n    <!-- ============ EXAM ANALYTICS ============ -->\r\n    <div class=\"hide\" id=\"viewExam\">\r\n      <section class=\"card\" style=\"margin:20px 0 60px\">\r\n        <div class=\"qhead\"><span class=\"qcount\">Exam Analytics<\/span><span class=\"badge-w\" id=\"examCount\">0 PYQs<\/span><\/div>\r\n        <div class=\"perf\" id=\"examBody\"><\/div>\r\n      <\/section>\r\n    <\/div>\r\n\r\n    <!-- ============ PERFORMANCE ============ -->\r\n    <div class=\"hide\" id=\"viewPerf\">\r\n      <section class=\"card\" style=\"margin:20px 0 60px\">\r\n        <div class=\"qhead\"><span class=\"qcount\">My Performance<\/span><span class=\"badge-w\" id=\"perfCount\">0 attempted<\/span><\/div>\r\n        <div class=\"perf\" id=\"perfBody\"><\/div>\r\n      <\/section>\r\n    <\/div>\r\n  <\/div>\r\n\r\n  <div class=\"veilmsg\" id=\"veilMsg\">Paused \u2014 bring this window back to the front to continue<\/div>\r\n  <div class=\"toast\" id=\"toast\"><\/div>\r\n<\/div>\r\n\r\n<div class=\"cdrill-printblock\">\r\n  <h2>This test series is not available in print<\/h2>\r\n  <p>The questions, explanations and your progress are licensed for use on\r\n     PromotionExams.com and cannot be printed or saved as a PDF. Please\r\n     work through them on screen.<\/p>\r\n<\/div>\r\n\r\n<script>\r\n(function(){\r\n\"use strict\";\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   1. CONFIGURATION  \u2190 EDIT PER SUBJECT\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nconst CFG = {\r\n  quizId : 'subject-pyq-chapterwise',  \/\/ unique per page \u2014 this is the progress key\r\n  topic  : 'Constitution of India (Articles 77; 79\u2013151; 245\u2013290A; 292\u2013312A; and 352\u2013360)',             \/\/ e.g. 'Right to Information Act, 2005'\r\n  eyebrow: '',                         \/\/ e.g. 'UPSC SO \/ Steno LDCE \u00b7 Paper II'\r\n  sub    : 'Previous year questions and chapter drills, weighted by what the paper actually asks.',\r\n\r\n  \/* --- SOURCE PAGE --------------------------------------------------- *\/\r\n  sourceUrl   : '',                 \/\/ e.g. 'https:\/\/promotionexams.com\/your-source-page\/'\r\n  sourceLabel : 'full source text',\r\n\r\n  masteryThreshold : 3,     \/\/ clean correct answers before a question counts as mastered\r\n  weakThreshold    : 1,     \/\/ wrong attempts before a question is flagged weak\r\n\r\n  priorAccuracy : 0.30,     \/\/ expected-score model: shrink raw accuracy toward this\r\n  priorStrength : 6,\r\n  retention     : { baseDays:3, growth:2.5, riskBelow:0.70 },\r\n\r\n  highYield   : 15,         \/\/ a chapter with this many PYQs is called high-yield\r\n\r\n  sessionSize : 25,         \/\/ Focused set\r\n  mockSize    : 50,         \/\/ Mock paper\r\n  pyqSize     : 30          \/\/ PYQ paper\r\n};\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   2. THE TWO BANKS  \u2190 PASTE YOUR QUESTIONS HERE\r\n   Same schema in both:\r\n      { id, chapter, question, options[], correct, explanation }\r\n   PYQ entries take one extra field:  year: 2023\r\n   Exam weight is COUNTED from pyqQuestions \u2014 you do not set it by hand.\r\n   The samples below are only so the page renders. Delete them.\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nconst pyqQuestions = [\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 1,\r\n    \"year\": \"2014\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Conduct of Government Business (Article 77)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following statements is incorrect?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The Parliament cannot enact legislation on water\",\r\n      \"The Constitution of India does not contain express provisions regarding secret session, but the Parliament can have secret session\",\r\n      \"The Prime Minister must disclose to the President such information pertaining to the decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union which he deems proper\",\r\n      \"The Parliament also includes the President of India\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The question asks for the <b>incorrect<\/b> statement, and that is option (c).<br><br><b>Why (c) is wrong:<\/b> <b>Article 78(a)<\/b> casts on the Prime Minister the duty to communicate to the President <i>all<\/i> decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and all proposals for legislation. This duty is <b>absolute and unqualified<\/b>. The words <i>which he deems proper<\/i> in the option wrongly convert a mandatory obligation into a matter of personal discretion. Discretion enters only under <b>Article 78(c)<\/b>, where the President may <i>require<\/i> the Prime Minister to submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers a matter on which a decision has been taken by a single Minister but which has not been considered by the Council. Article 78 is the informational companion to <b>Article 77<\/b>, under which all executive action of the Government of India is expressed to be taken in the name of the President and is authenticated in the manner prescribed by rules made by him.<br><br><b>Why the others are correct:<\/b><br>(a) Water is <b>Entry 17 of the State List<\/b> (water supplies, irrigation and canals, drainage and embankments, water storage and water power), so Parliament ordinarily cannot legislate on it. Its competence is confined to <b>Entry 56 of the Union List<\/b> \u2014 regulation and development of inter-State rivers and river valleys declared by Parliament by law to be expedient in the public interest \u2014 and to <b>Article 262<\/b>, which allows Parliament to provide for adjudication of inter-State river water disputes and to bar the jurisdiction of all courts, including the Supreme Court, in such disputes.<br>(b) The Constitution nowhere provides for secret sittings; the power flows from <b>Rule 248 of the Lok Sabha Rules of Procedure<\/b> and <b>Rule 258 of the Rajya Sabha Rules<\/b>, framed under <b>Article 118(1)<\/b>, under which the presiding officer may, on a request by the Leader of the House, direct that the House sit in secret.<br>(d) <b>Article 79<\/b> expressly makes the President a constituent part of Parliament, along with the Council of States and the House of the People.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 2,\r\n    \"year\": \"2009-11\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Statement I: The proposal to summon Rajya Sabha or Lok Sabha is initiated by the Prime Minister.\\nStatement II: The Prime Minister is the Leader of Rajya Sabha or Lok Sabha.\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I\",\r\n      \"Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I\",\r\n      \"Statement I is true but statement II is false\",\r\n      \"Statement I is false but statement II is true\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement I \\u2014 false.<\/b> The constitutional power to summon each House vests in the <b>President<\/b> under <b>Article 85(1)<\/b>, which also requires that not more than six months intervene between the last sitting in one session and the first sitting in the next. In practice the summoning proposal originates with the <b>Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs<\/b>, which recommends the dates; the Minister of Parliamentary Affairs then conveys the recommendation and the President issues the summons. It is therefore inaccurate to describe the proposal as being <i>initiated by the Prime Minister<\/i> personally.<br><br><b>Statement II \\u2014 true.<\/b> By settled parliamentary convention the Prime Minister is the <b>Leader of the House<\/b> in whichever House he is a member. If he is a member of the Lok Sabha he leads that House; if he is a Rajya Sabha member (as with Dr. Manmohan Singh, 2004\\u20132014) he leads the Council of States and nominates a Minister to lead the other House. The office of Leader of the House is recognised by <b>Rule 2 of the Rules of Procedure<\/b> of each House and by the Salaries and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977 framework, not by any Article of the Constitution.<br><br>Statement I being false and Statement II true, the answer is <b>(d)<\/b>.<br><br><i>[Correction: the source explanation concluded that Statement II was also false, which contradicts the marked answer (d).]<\/i>\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 3,\r\n    \"year\": \"2009-11\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one among the following statements about Pro-tem Speaker is not correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"He\/She is appointed by the President of India\",\r\n      \"He\/she takes oath\/affirmation before the President in the Central Hall of Parliament\",\r\n      \"He\/She administers oath\/affirmation to the newly elected members of Lok Sabha\",\r\n      \"The name of Pro-tem Speaker is suggested by the Prime Minister\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The office of Speaker <i>pro tem<\/i> finds no express mention in the Constitution; it rests on the <b>Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business<\/b> and on established convention, and exists to bridge the gap between the dissolution of the old House and the election of a Speaker by the new one under <b>Article 93<\/b>.<br><br><b>Why (b) is the incorrect statement:<\/b> The Speaker pro tem does take an oath before the President, but that oath is administered at <b>Rashtrapati Bhavan<\/b>, not in the Central Hall of Parliament. The Central Hall is used for the President's Address under Article 87 and for joint sittings under Article 108 \\u2014 not for swearing in the pro tem Speaker.<br><br><b>Why the others are correct:<\/b><br>(a) He is appointed by the <b>President<\/b>, the appointment being made under the convention giving effect to Rule 1 of the Lok Sabha Rules.<br>(c) His principal function is to administer the oath or affirmation under <b>Article 99<\/b>, in the form set out in the <b>Third Schedule<\/b>, to the newly elected members, and thereafter to preside over the election of the Speaker.<br>(d) The name is suggested by the Government \\u2014 in practice the Prime Minister \\u2014 and by convention the <b>senior-most member<\/b> of the House in terms of continuous parliamentary service is chosen. Three members are also appointed as a panel to assist him in administering the oath.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 4,\r\n    \"year\": \"2009-11\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Statement I: A member of Parliament can take oath\/subscribe affirmation in English or Hindi only.\\nStatement II: The official work of Parliament can be performed in English or Hindi only.\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I\",\r\n      \"Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I\",\r\n      \"Statement I is true but statement II is false\",\r\n      \"Statement I is false but statement II is true\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement I \\u2014 false.<\/b> <b>Article 99<\/b> requires every member, before taking his seat, to make and subscribe before the President or a person appointed by him an oath or affirmation according to the form set out in the <b>Third Schedule<\/b>. Neither Article 99 nor the Third Schedule restricts the language of the oath. A member may take the oath in <b>any of the languages listed in the Eighth Schedule<\/b> (currently 22 languages) or in English, and the Lok Sabha Secretariat routinely prepares the oath text in the language chosen by the member.<br><br><b>Statement II \\u2014 true.<\/b> <b>Article 120(1)<\/b> provides that business in Parliament shall be transacted in <b>Hindi or in English<\/b>. The proviso allows the Speaker of the House of the People or the Chairman of the Council of States to permit a member who cannot adequately express himself in either language to address the House in his <b>mother tongue<\/b>. Article 120(2) originally provided that the English option would lapse fifteen years after the commencement of the Constitution, but the Official Languages Act, 1963 continued the use of English indefinitely for parliamentary business.<br><br>Statement I false and Statement II true gives <b>(d)<\/b>.<br><br><i>[Correction: the source explanation concluded that Statement II was also false, contradicting the marked answer (d).]<\/i>\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 5,\r\n    \"year\": \"2009-11\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which of the statements given below is\/are correct?\\n1. If a Member of a State Legislative Assembly is elected to Lok Sabha and does not resign his\/her seat in the State Legislative Assembly within 14 days of the declaration of result, his\/her seat in the State Legislative Assembly shall become vacant\\n2. If a person, who is not a member of either House of the Parliament, is appointed as a Union Minister, he\/she has to be elected to either of the two Houses within a period of six months\\n3. A sitting Member of Lok Sabha cannot contest election to Rajya Sabha\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3\",\r\n      \"1 and 2\",\r\n      \"1 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement 1 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 101(2)<\/b> provides that where a person is chosen a member both of Parliament and of a State Legislature, his seat in <b>Parliament<\/b> becomes vacant at the expiry of the period specified in rules made by the President unless he has previously resigned his State seat. The <b>Prohibition of Simultaneous Membership Rules, 1950<\/b> fix that period at <b>fourteen days<\/b> from the date of publication of the result. (The statement's identification of which seat falls vacant is loosely worded, but the fourteen-day rule it states is the operative principle the examiner tested.)<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 75(5)<\/b> provides that a Minister who for any period of <b>six consecutive months<\/b> is not a member of either House of Parliament shall at the expiration of that period cease to be a Minister. In <i>S. P. Anand v. H. D. Deve Gowda (1996)<\/i> the Supreme Court upheld the appointment of a non-member as Prime Minister subject to this condition, and in <i>B. R. Kapur v. State of Tamil Nadu (2001)<\/i> it held that a person disqualified from being elected cannot be appointed at all.<br><br><b>Statement 3 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> There is <b>no constitutional bar<\/b> on a sitting member of one House contesting an election to the other. If he is elected, <b>Article 101(1)<\/b> operates: a person cannot be a member of both Houses, and under the 1950 Rules he must vacate one seat, failing which his seat in the first House falls vacant automatically.<br><br>Hence 1 and 2 only \\u2014 option <b>(c)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 6,\r\n    \"year\": \"2009-11\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Statement I: Members of Parliament enjoy Parliamentary privileges.\\nStatement II: During the currency of the Parliamentary session, a member of Parliament cannot be arrested in his constituency on any criminal case.\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I\",\r\n      \"Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I\",\r\n      \"Statement I is true but statement II is false\",\r\n      \"Statement I is false but statement II is true\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement I \\u2014 true.<\/b> <b>Article 105<\/b> confers on members (i) freedom of speech in Parliament, subject only to the Constitution and to the rules and standing orders regulating procedure, and (ii) immunity from liability in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by them in Parliament or any of its committees. Article 105(2) extends the same protection to publication of proceedings under the authority of a House, and <b>Article 105(3)<\/b> preserves the other privileges of the Houses and their members.<br><br><b>Statement II \\u2014 false.<\/b> The privilege of <b>freedom from arrest<\/b> derives not from the Constitution directly but from <b>Section 135 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908<\/b>, and it is confined to <b>civil<\/b> process. The immunity runs during the continuance of a session and for <b>forty days before and forty days after<\/b> it. There is <b>no immunity in criminal matters<\/b>, nor against detention under a preventive detention law; a member may be arrested on a criminal charge at any time, the only requirement being that the presiding officer be <b>informed<\/b> of the arrest, the reasons and the place of custody.<br><br>Statement I true and Statement II false gives <b>(c)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 7,\r\n    \"year\": \"2009-11\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Statement I: Point of Order is used by the Member of Parliament in the House to discuss some matters of national importance.\\nStatement II: Point of Order is a device used by the Members to attract the attention of the Chair when the Rules of Procedure are deviated from.\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I\",\r\n      \"Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I\",\r\n      \"Statement I is true but statement II is false\",\r\n      \"Statement I is false but statement II is true\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement I \\u2014 false.<\/b> A Point of Order is <b>not<\/b> a device for raising or discussing matters of national importance. Those objectives are served by other parliamentary devices \\u2014 the <b>Calling Attention Motion<\/b>, <b>Short Duration Discussion (Rule 193)<\/b>, <b>Adjournment Motion<\/b>, <b>Half-an-Hour Discussion<\/b> and <b>Zero Hour<\/b> mentions.<br><br><b>Statement II \\u2014 true.<\/b> A Point of Order, regulated by the Rules of Procedure framed by each House under <b>Article 118(1)<\/b>, relates strictly to the <b>interpretation or enforcement<\/b> of those Rules, or of such Articles of the Constitution as regulate the business of the House. Its essential features are that it must raise a question within the Chair's cognizance, it must not raise a question of substance or of policy, it cannot be raised on a matter already decided, and it <b>suspends the proceedings<\/b> until the Chair gives a ruling. The ruling of the Chair on a Point of Order is final.<br><br>Statement I false and Statement II true would ordinarily be option (d); the marked answer here is <b>(c)<\/b> as printed in the source key.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 8,\r\n    \"year\": \"2009-11\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which of the following statements regarding motion is\/are correct?\\n1. The term 'motion' in its wider sense means any proposal submitted to the House for eliciting a decision of the House\\n2. A Substitute motion is not for considering a matter or policy or a situation or a statement\\n3. A Substantive motion is a self-contained independent proposal submitted for approval of the House and capable of expressing a decision of the House\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"3 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Motions are governed by the Rules of Procedure made under <b>Article 118(1)<\/b>. No discussion on a matter of general public interest can take place except on a motion made with the consent of the Chair.<br><br><b>Statement 1 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> In its widest sense a <i>motion<\/i> is any proposal submitted to the House for eliciting its decision. Every question to be determined by the House is first raised as a motion.<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> A <b>substitute motion<\/b> is precisely a motion moved <i>in substitution<\/i> of an original motion, proposing an alternative to it, and it is moved for the consideration of a <b>policy, situation, statement or any other matter<\/b>. The statement inverts the definition.<br><br><b>Statement 3 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> A <b>substantive motion<\/b> is a self-contained independent proposal made in relation to an important matter, drafted so as to be capable of expressing a decision of the House \\u2014 for example, a motion for the removal of the Speaker, or for the impeachment of the President.<br><br>The three classes of motion are therefore <b>substantive<\/b>, <b>substitute<\/b> and <b>subsidiary<\/b> (the last comprising ancillary, superseding and amendment motions). Hence 1 and 3 only \\u2014 option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 9,\r\n    \"year\": \"2012-13\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which of the following statements regarding the President of India is\/are correct?\\n1. The President can summon, adjourn or prorogue both the Houses of the Parliament\\n2. The President can summon, adjourn, prorogue both the Houses and may send messages to either House of the Parliament\\n3. The President can summon, prorogue and dissolve the House of the People\\n4. The President can convene a joint session of both the Houses of the Parliament\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1\",\r\n      \"2\",\r\n      \"3 only\",\r\n      \"3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement 1 \\u2014 incorrect<\/b> and <b>Statement 2 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> Both wrongly attribute the power of <b>adjournment<\/b> to the President. Adjournment of a sitting, whether to a stated time or <i>sine die<\/i>, is exclusively the prerogative of the <b>presiding officer<\/b> \\u2014 the Speaker in the Lok Sabha and the Chairman in the Rajya Sabha \\u2014 under the Rules of Procedure. (Statement 2 is otherwise accurate in saying the President may send messages, which he may do under <b>Article 86(2)<\/b> with respect to a Bill pending in Parliament or otherwise, the House being bound to consider the message with all convenient despatch.)<br><br><b>Statement 3 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 85<\/b> empowers the President to summon each House (clause 1), to prorogue either House (clause 2(a)) and to <b>dissolve the House of the People<\/b> (clause 2(b)). The Council of States, being a permanent body under <b>Article 83(1)<\/b>, is <b>not subject to dissolution<\/b>.<br><br><b>Statement 4 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 108(1)<\/b> empowers the President to notify his intention to summon and thereafter to summon a <b>joint sitting<\/b> of the two Houses to resolve a deadlock over an ordinary Bill.<br><br>Hence 3 and 4 \\u2014 option <b>(d)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 10,\r\n    \"year\": \"2012-13\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which of the following statements regarding the Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha is\/are correct?\\n1. He shall vacate his office if he ceases to be a member of the Council.\\n2. He may, at any time, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign.\\n3. He may be removed from office by a resolution of the Council passed by a majority of all the then members of the Council.\\n4. He presides over the sittings of the Council of States in the absence of the Vice President.\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1 and 2\",\r\n      \"3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The office of Deputy Chairman is governed by <b>Articles 89 to 92<\/b>.<br><br><b>Statement 1 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 90(a)<\/b> \\u2014 the Deputy Chairman vacates his office if he ceases to be a member of the Council of States.<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> Under <b>Article 90(b)<\/b> the resignation is addressed to the <b>Chairman<\/b> (that is, the Vice-President), not to the President. This mirrors the Lok Sabha arrangement where the Deputy Speaker resigns to the Speaker under Article 94(b).<br><br><b>Statement 3 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 90(c)<\/b> \\u2014 he may be removed by a resolution of the Council passed by a <b>majority of all the then members<\/b>, and the proviso requires at least <b>fourteen days' notice<\/b> of the intention to move the resolution.<br><br><b>Statement 4 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 91<\/b> \\u2014 the Deputy Chairman performs the duties of the Chairman when that office is vacant or when the Vice-President is acting as, or discharging the functions of, the President, and he presides over sittings in the Chairman's absence. Note also <b>Article 92<\/b>: neither the Chairman nor the Deputy Chairman may preside while a resolution for his own removal is under consideration.<br><br>Hence 1, 3 and 4 \\u2014 option <b>(d)<\/b>.<br><br><i>[Correction: the source explanation cited Article 91(1)(a),(b),(c) for vacation, resignation and removal; the correct provision is Article 90.]<\/i>\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 11,\r\n    \"year\": \"2012-13\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The Speaker, Lok Sabha submits his\/her resignation to:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"the President\",\r\n      \"the Vice President\",\r\n      \"the Deputy Speaker\",\r\n      \"the Chief Justice of India\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 94(b)<\/b> \\u2014 the Speaker may at any time resign his office by writing under his hand addressed to the <b>Deputy Speaker<\/b>; correspondingly, the Deputy Speaker resigns by writing addressed to the <b>Speaker<\/b>.<br><br>This reciprocal arrangement is deliberate. It keeps the resignation of the House's presiding officers <b>entirely within the House<\/b>, insulating the office from the executive and preserving the autonomy and dignity of the legislature. It is a conscious departure from the pattern applicable to the President (who resigns to the Vice-President under Article 56(1)(a)) and the Vice-President (who resigns to the President under Article 67(a)).<br><br>Article 94 sets out three modes of cessation: (a) ceasing to be a member of the House; (b) resignation as above; and (c) removal by a resolution of the House passed by a majority of all the then members after fourteen days' notice.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 12,\r\n    \"year\": \"2012-13\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which of the following statements regarding the term of office of the Speaker is correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The Speaker shall remain in office till the dissolution of the Lok Sabha\",\r\n      \"The Speaker shall continue in office even after the dissolution of the present Lok Sabha till the constitution of the next Lok Sabha\",\r\n      \"The Speaker shall remain in office even after the dissolution of the Lok Sabha till the Speaker Pro tem is appointed by the President\",\r\n      \"The Speaker shall remain in office till the next Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The <b>second proviso to Article 94<\/b> provides that whenever the House of the People is dissolved, the Speaker shall <b>not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution<\/b>.<br><br>The rationale is continuity: although Article 94(a) would otherwise make the Speaker vacate office the moment he ceases to be a member (and on dissolution every member ceases to be one), the Constitution deliberately keeps the office filled so that there is at all times an authority competent to discharge the Speaker's functions \\u2014 for instance in relation to the Secretariat of the House under Article 98 and pending business.<br><br>Once the new House assembles, the <b>Speaker pro tem<\/b> appointed by the President takes over to administer the oath under Article 99 and to preside over the election of the new Speaker under <b>Article 93<\/b>. Options (a) and (b) are therefore both wrong \\u2014 the outgoing Speaker neither vacates at dissolution nor continues until the House is constituted, but precisely until <i>immediately before<\/i> its first meeting; option (d) is wrong because his tenure ends before, not at, the election of the successor.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 13,\r\n    \"year\": \"2012-13\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"What is meant by the term 'casting vote'?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"It is a vote exercised regularly by the Speaker\/Chairman when a Bill is passed in the House\",\r\n      \"In a Parliamentary Assembly, in case of equality of votes, the Presiding Officer has a casting vote\",\r\n      \"It is a vote exercised by the Prime Minister in the House\",\r\n      \"It is a vote cast by the Leader of the House when there is a tie over a Bill\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The <b>proviso to Article 100(1)<\/b> is the source of the concept: all questions at any sitting of either House or at a joint sitting are determined by a majority of votes of the members present and voting, <b>other than the Speaker or person acting as Chairman or Speaker<\/b>, who <b>shall not vote in the first instance but shall have and exercise a casting vote in the case of an equality of votes<\/b>.<br><br>Two consequences follow. First, the presiding officer is kept <b>neutral<\/b> in ordinary voting, which is the constitutional guarantee of the impartiality of the Chair. Second, he intervenes only to <b>break a deadlock<\/b>, and by convention exercises the casting vote so as to preserve the status quo rather than to advance a policy preference.<br><br>The sole exception is <b>Article 96(2)<\/b>: where a resolution for the removal of the Speaker or Chairman is under consideration, he may not preside but is <b>entitled to speak in and take part in the proceedings and to vote in the first instance<\/b> \\u2014 though not to a casting vote.<br><br>A well-known instance of the casting vote is the confidence motion of April 1999, when the Vajpayee Government fell by a single vote after the Speaker's ruling on the vote of a Member.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 14,\r\n    \"year\": \"2012-13\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The seat of an MP can be declared vacant if he remains absent from the sittings of the House without intimation for more than:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"65 days\",\r\n      \"60 days\",\r\n      \"40 days\",\r\n      \"70 days\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 101(4)<\/b> provides that if for a period of <b>sixty days<\/b> a member of either House is <b>without permission of the House<\/b> absent from all meetings thereof, the House <b>may declare<\/b> his seat vacant.<br><br>Three points of detail matter:<br>(i) The provision is <b>enabling, not automatic<\/b> \\u2014 the seat is not vacated by operation of law; the House must resolve to declare it vacant. In practice the Committee on Absence of Members from the Sittings of the House examines leave applications and reports to the House.<br>(ii) The <b>proviso<\/b> excludes from the computation of the sixty days any period during which the House is <b>prorogued<\/b> or is <b>adjourned for more than four consecutive days<\/b>.<br>(iii) Permission of the House removes the case from Article 101(4) altogether, which is why the question stresses absence <i>without intimation<\/i>.<br><br>Hence option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 15,\r\n    \"year\": \"2012-13\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements regarding simultaneous membership:\\n1. A member of a State Legislative Assembly if elected to the Lok Sabha and he does not resign his seat in one of the Houses, his seat in the Lok Sabha shall automatically become vacant after completion of fourteen days of publication of the result\\n2. A member of a State Legislative Assembly if elected to the Lok Sabha can resign one of his seats fourteen days after taking oath in the Lok Sabha\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"Both 1 and 2\",\r\n      \"Neither 1 nor 2\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement 1 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 101(2)<\/b> read with the <b>Prohibition of Simultaneous Membership Rules, 1950<\/b> provides that where a person is chosen a member both of Parliament and of a State Legislature, his seat in <b>Parliament<\/b> falls vacant on the expiry of <b>fourteen days from the date of publication of the result<\/b> in the Gazette, unless within that period he has resigned his seat in the State Legislature. The vacation is <b>automatic<\/b> \\u2014 no declaration by the House is needed, unlike Article 101(4).<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> The fourteen-day clock runs from the <b>publication of the result<\/b>, not from the taking of the oath. Since a member cannot in any event take his seat before making the oath under Article 99, tying the period to the oath would allow the fourteen days to be extended indefinitely by simply delaying the oath \\u2014 which is precisely what the Rules prevent.<br><br>Related provisions: <b>Article 101(1)<\/b> bars membership of both Houses of Parliament simultaneously, and <b>Article 101(3)<\/b> deals with vacation on resignation or disqualification.<br><br>Hence 1 only \\u2014 option <b>(a)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 16,\r\n    \"year\": \"2012-13\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements regarding Parliamentary Privileges:\\n1. Privileges mean rights and immunities enjoyed by the Members of the Parliament to perform their functions effectively\\n2. An MP cannot be arrested on civil or criminal ground as he enjoys Parliamentary Privileges\\n3. Privileges are enshrined in Article 105 of the Constitution of India\\n4. Makers of the Constitution of India have adopted Parliamentary Privileges from the British Parliament\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4\",\r\n      \"1 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement 1 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> Privileges are the special rights, immunities and exemptions enjoyed by the Houses collectively and by their members individually, without which they could not discharge their functions independently and effectively.<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> Freedom from arrest extends to <b>civil<\/b> process only \\u2014 forty days before, during, and forty days after a session, under <b>Section 135 CPC<\/b>. There is no immunity from arrest on a <b>criminal<\/b> charge or under a preventive detention law.<br><br><b>Statement 3 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 105<\/b> deals with the powers, privileges and immunities of Parliament and its members (<b>Article 194<\/b> makes corresponding provision for State Legislatures).<br><br><b>Statement 4 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 105(3)<\/b> as originally enacted defined the residual privileges as those of the <b>House of Commons<\/b> of the United Kingdom at the commencement of the Constitution. The <b>44th Amendment Act, 1978<\/b> substituted a self-referential formula \\u2014 the privileges as they stood immediately before the coming into force of Section 15 of that Act \\u2014 removing the express reference to the House of Commons. The change was one of <b>form rather than substance<\/b>, since the content of the privileges remained the same. Parliament has still not enacted a law codifying its privileges.<br><br>Hence 1, 3 and 4 \\u2014 option <b>(a)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 17,\r\n    \"year\": \"2012-13\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which of the statements given below is\/are correct?\\n1. The Speaker's conduct in regulating the procedure or maintaining order in the House will not be subject to the jurisdiction of any court.\\n2. An MP can be arrested on his way to the Parliament and back home.\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"Both 1 and 2\",\r\n      \"Neither 1 nor 2\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement 1 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 122(2)<\/b> provides that no officer or member of Parliament in whom powers are vested for regulating procedure or the conduct of business, or for maintaining order in Parliament, shall be subject to the jurisdiction of any court in respect of the exercise by him of those powers. This is reinforced by <b>Article 122(1)<\/b>, which bars the validity of any proceedings in Parliament from being called in question on the ground of any alleged <b>irregularity of procedure<\/b>. Courts have read this as barring review of procedural irregularity but not of <b>illegality or unconstitutionality<\/b> \\u2014 see <i>Raja Ram Pal v. Speaker, Lok Sabha (2007)<\/i>.<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> Since freedom from arrest operates only in <b>civil<\/b> matters, a member may be arrested on a <b>criminal charge<\/b> at any time, including while travelling to or from Parliament. The only procedural safeguard is that the arresting authority must immediately <b>intimate the Speaker or Chairman<\/b> of the fact of arrest, the reasons, the place of detention and the date of release; and no arrest may be made <b>within the precincts of the House<\/b> without the permission of the presiding officer.<br><br>Hence both \\u2014 option <b>(c)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 18,\r\n    \"year\": \"2012-13\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements relating to a newly elected MP:\\n1. He is entitled to receive salary and other entitlements from the date of declaration of the result.\\n2. He is entitled to take seat in the House only after taking oath and signing of Roll of Members.\\n3. He is entitled to ask questions\/take part in the Parliamentary Committee meetings from the date of declaration of the result.\\n4. He is entitled for Parliamentary Privileges only from the date of taking oath and signing of Roll of Members in the House.\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement 1 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 106<\/b> leaves salaries and allowances of members to be determined by Parliament by law; under the <b>Salary, Allowances and Pension of Members of Parliament Act, 1954<\/b> a member is entitled to salary and allowances from the <b>date on which he is duly elected<\/b> \\u2014 that is, from the declaration of the result \\u2014 and not from the date of the oath.<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 99<\/b> is explicit: every member shall, <b>before taking his seat<\/b>, make and subscribe the oath or affirmation in the form set out in the Third Schedule. <b>Article 104<\/b> reinforces this by imposing a penalty of Rs 500 per day on a person who sits or votes before making the oath.<br><br><b>Statement 3 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> Participation in the proceedings of the House \\u2014 asking questions, voting, serving on committees \\u2014 presupposes that the member has taken his seat, which requires the oath first.<br><br><b>Statement 4 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> Privileges attach from the <b>date of election<\/b>, not from the date of the oath, since the status of member is conferred by election.<br><br>Hence 1 and 2 only \\u2014 option <b>(c)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 19,\r\n    \"year\": \"2012-13\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which of the following statements regarding a Bill in the Parliament is\/are correct?\\n1. A Bill has to be introduced in both the Houses of the Parliament\\n2. A Bill has to be passed by both the Houses of the Parliament\\n3. Constitutional Amendment Bill has to be passed by a majority of the total membership of the House and two-third majority of members present and voting in each House\\n4. There can be joint sitting of the two Houses on a Constitutional Amendment Bill\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement 1 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> A Bill is introduced in <b>one<\/b> House; on being passed there it is <b>transmitted<\/b> to the other House for its agreement. <b>Article 107(1)<\/b> permits an ordinary Bill to originate in either House; a Money Bill may originate only in the House of the People (Article 109(1)).<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 107(2)<\/b> \\u2014 a Bill shall not be deemed to have been passed by the Houses of Parliament unless it has been <b>agreed to by both Houses<\/b>, either without amendment or with such amendments only as are agreed to by both. Thereafter it goes to the President under Article 111.<br><br><b>Statement 3 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 368(2)<\/b> requires passage in each House by a majority of the <b>total membership<\/b> of that House <i>and<\/i> by a majority of <b>not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting<\/b> \\u2014 the classic special majority.<br><br><b>Statement 4 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> Article 368 requires passage <b>in each House separately<\/b>. There is no provision for a joint sitting on a Constitutional Amendment Bill; a disagreement between the Houses simply causes the Bill to fail. Article 108 is confined to ordinary Bills.<br><br>Hence 2 and 3 only \\u2014 option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 20,\r\n    \"year\": \"2012-13\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which among the following is the correct chronology regarding passing of a bill in Lok Sabha\/Rajya Sabha:\\n1. Discussion on the principles of the Bill and its provisions\\n2. Motion for leave to introduce a bill\\n3. Discussion on the motion that the bill be passed\\n4. Clause by clause consideration of the bill as introduced\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1-2-3-4\",\r\n      \"2-1-4-3\",\r\n      \"2-4-1-3\",\r\n      \"1-4-3-2\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The legislative process in each House proceeds through <b>three readings<\/b>, and the correct order of the items listed is <b>2 \\u2013 1 \\u2013 4 \\u2013 3<\/b>.<br><br><b>Step 2 \\u2014 First Reading:<\/b> the member in charge moves for <b>leave to introduce<\/b> the Bill; if leave is granted the Bill is introduced and published in the Gazette. There is no debate on merits at this stage, though a brief statement may be permitted if introduction is opposed.<br><br><b>Step 1 \\u2014 Second Reading, first stage:<\/b> <b>general discussion<\/b> on the principles of the Bill and its provisions. At the end of this stage the House may take it into consideration, refer it to a Select or Joint Committee, or circulate it for eliciting public opinion.<br><br><b>Step 4 \\u2014 Second Reading, second stage:<\/b> <b>clause-by-clause consideration<\/b>, when amendments are moved and voted upon. This is the most substantive stage.<br><br><b>Step 3 \\u2014 Third Reading:<\/b> discussion is confined to the motion that <b>the Bill be passed<\/b>; only formal, verbal or consequential amendments are allowed. The Bill is then transmitted to the other House.<br><br>Hence option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 21,\r\n    \"year\": \"2012-13\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements regarding a Bill:\\n1. A Bill passes through three stages, viz., first reading, second reading and third reading in the House\\n2. A Bill is sent to a Parliamentary Committee after it is passed by one House\\n3. Report of a Parliamentary Committee on a Bill has a recommendatory value\\n4. A Bill introduced and passed in one House can be straight away taken up for discussion in the other House\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement 1 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> Every Bill passes through <b>three readings<\/b> in each House \\u2014 introduction, second reading (general discussion plus clause-by-clause consideration) and third reading on the motion that the Bill be passed.<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> Reference to a <b>Department-related Standing Committee, Select Committee or Joint Committee<\/b> takes place <i>during<\/i> the Bill's passage through the originating House \\u2014 typically at the consideration stage of the second reading \\u2014 and not after the House has passed it. Once a House has passed a Bill it is transmitted to the other House.<br><br><b>Statement 3 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> A committee report is <b>recommendatory<\/b> only; neither the House nor the Government is bound to accept it, though in practice its recommendations carry substantial persuasive weight.<br><br><b>Statement 4 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> A Bill passed by one House and transmitted to the other is taken up there directly at the introduction stage without any fresh motion for leave, the Bill being deemed to have been introduced on transmission.<br><br>Hence 1, 3 and 4 \\u2014 option <b>(a)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 22,\r\n    \"year\": \"2012-13\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which of the following statements relating to a Bill after its introduction in the Parliament is\/are correct?\\n1. That it be taken into consideration\\n2. That it may be referred to a Select Committee of the House or Joint Committee of the Houses\\n3. That it be circulated for the purpose of eliciting opinion thereon\\n4. That it be referred to a joint sitting of the two Houses\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"3 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"At the commencement of the <b>second reading<\/b>, the member in charge may move any one of three motions, which is exactly what statements 1 to 3 describe:<br><br><b>Statement 1 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> That the Bill be <b>taken into consideration<\/b> \\u2014 leading directly to general discussion and then clause-by-clause consideration.<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> That it be referred to a <b>Select Committee<\/b> of that House or to a <b>Joint Committee<\/b> of the two Houses, with a date fixed for presentation of the report.<br><br><b>Statement 3 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> That it be <b>circulated for the purpose of eliciting opinion<\/b> thereon, usually where the Bill affects a wide public interest.<br><br><b>Statement 4 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> A <b>joint sitting<\/b> under <b>Article 108<\/b> is a deadlock-breaking device, not a stage in the ordinary passage of a Bill. It becomes available only after (a) the other House has rejected the Bill, or (b) the Houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments, or (c) more than <b>six months<\/b> have elapsed from the date of reception of the Bill by the other House without its being passed. It cannot be resorted to immediately after introduction.<br><br>Hence 1, 2 and 3 \\u2014 option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 23,\r\n    \"year\": \"2012-13\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which of the following statements regarding joint sitting of the Parliament is\/are correct?\\n1. It can be convened by the President of India.\\n2. It is always presided over by the President of India.\\n3. A Bill considered in a joint sitting of the two Houses may be passed by a simple majority.\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"3 only\",\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement 1 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 108(1)<\/b> \\u2014 the <b>President<\/b> may notify his intention to summon the Houses to meet in a joint sitting, and may thereafter summon them accordingly.<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> <b>Article 118(4)<\/b> provides that the <b>Speaker of the House of the People<\/b>, or in his absence such person as may be determined by rules of procedure made under Article 118(3), shall preside over a joint sitting. The President never presides; indeed he does not sit in either House at all. If the Speaker is absent, the Deputy Speaker presides; failing him, the Deputy Chairman of the Council of States; failing him, such other member as may be determined by the sitting.<br><br><b>Statement 3 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 108(4)<\/b> \\u2014 the Bill is deemed passed at a joint sitting if it is agreed to by a <b>majority of the total number of members of both Houses present and voting<\/b>. Since the Lok Sabha's membership is roughly double that of the Rajya Sabha, this arithmetic effectively favours the popular House.<br><br>Hence 1 and 3 only \\u2014 option <b>(a)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 24,\r\n    \"year\": \"2012-13\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements regarding joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha over a Bill:\\n1. It is convened if there is a dispute over the Bill between the two Houses over the amendments made.\\n2. It is convened if more than six months have elapsed from the date of reception of the Bill by the other House without the Bill being passed by it.\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"Both 1 and 2\",\r\n      \"Neither 1 nor 2\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 108(1)<\/b> lays down three alternative grounds on which the President may summon a joint sitting of the two Houses in relation to an ordinary Bill:<br><br><b>Clause (a)<\/b> \\u2014 the Bill has been <b>rejected<\/b> by the other House;<br><b>Clause (b)<\/b> \\u2014 the Houses have <b>finally disagreed as to the amendments<\/b> to be made in the Bill (this is Statement 1, hence correct);<br><b>Clause (c)<\/b> \\u2014 more than <b>six months<\/b> have elapsed from the date of the reception of the Bill by the other House without the Bill being passed by it (this is Statement 2, hence correct).<br><br>In computing the six months, no account is taken of any period during which the other House is <b>prorogued<\/b> or <b>adjourned for more than four consecutive days<\/b> (Explanation to Article 108(1)).<br><br>Two exclusions must be remembered: the proviso to Article 108(1) bars a joint sitting for a <b>Money Bill<\/b>, and <b>Article 368<\/b> excludes it for a Constitutional Amendment Bill.<br><br>Hence both \\u2014 option <b>(c)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 25,\r\n    \"year\": \"2012-13\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Name two Bills passed in joint sittings of the two Houses:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Dowry Prohibition Bill and Prevention of Terrorism Bill\",\r\n      \"Maternity and Child Care Bill and Human Rights Bill\",\r\n      \"Anti-Terrorism Bill and Cow Slaughter (Prevention) Bill\",\r\n      \"Banking Service (Repeal) Bill and Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Bill\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Only <b>three joint sittings<\/b> have been held since the Constitution came into force, all under <b>Article 108<\/b>:<br><br><b>1961 \\u2014 Dowry Prohibition Bill<\/b>, the first ever joint sitting, presided over by Speaker M. A. Ayyangar.<br><b>1978 \\u2014 Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill<\/b>, presided over by Speaker K. S. Hegde.<br><b>2002 \\u2014 Prevention of Terrorism Bill (POTA)<\/b>, presided over by Speaker G. M. C. Balayogi \\u2014 the only occasion on which the Bill had been positively rejected by the Rajya Sabha before the joint sitting.<br><br>Option (a) correctly names two of these three. Option (d) is a trap: it correctly names the Banking Service (Repeal) Bill but pairs it with the <b>TADA<\/b> Bill, which was never the subject of a joint sitting; options (b) and (c) name Bills that never went to a joint sitting at all.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 26,\r\n    \"year\": \"2012-13\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements regarding Money Bill:\\n1. A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha\\n2. A Money Bill has to be certified by the Speaker, Lok Sabha\\n3. A Money Bill can be introduced without the recommendation of the President of India\\n4. There cannot be a joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha over a Money Bill\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"3 and 4\",\r\n      \"1 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement 1 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 109(1)<\/b> \\u2014 a Money Bill shall <b>not be introduced in the Council of States<\/b>. It originates only in the House of the People. After passage it is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha, which has only <b>fourteen days<\/b> to return it with recommendations; the Lok Sabha may accept or reject those recommendations, and if the Bill is not returned within fourteen days it is deemed passed by both Houses (Article 109(5)).<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 110(3)<\/b> \\u2014 if any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill, the decision of the <b>Speaker of the House of the People<\/b> is <b>final<\/b>; and <b>Article 110(4)<\/b> requires the Speaker to endorse his certificate on the Bill when it is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha and when it is presented to the President for assent.<br><br><b>Statement 3 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> <b>Article 117(1)<\/b> bars the introduction of a Bill making provision for any of the matters in Article 110(1)(a) to (f) except on the <b>recommendation of the President<\/b>.<br><br><b>Statement 4 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> The <b>proviso to Article 108(1)<\/b> expressly excludes Money Bills from the joint-sitting mechanism, which is logical because Article 109 already gives the Lok Sabha the final word.<br><br>Hence 1, 2 and 4 \\u2014 option <b>(a)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 27,\r\n    \"year\": \"2012-13\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which of the following is not correct regarding veto power of the President of India?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The President in case of Bills other than Money Bills, can return for reconsideration to the Parliament\",\r\n      \"It is not obligatory for the President to give assent to a Bill passed by the State Legislature\",\r\n      \"It is obligatory for the President to give his assent to the Constitutional Amendment Bill\",\r\n      \"The President is bound by the Constitution to give his assent to a Bill within six months\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The question asks for the statement that is <b>not correct<\/b>, and that is option (d).<br><br><b>Why (d) is wrong:<\/b> <b>Article 111<\/b> requires the President to declare either that he assents to the Bill or that he withholds assent, and the proviso allows him to return a Bill (other than a Money Bill) for reconsideration <i>as soon as possible<\/i> \\u2014 but the Constitution prescribes <b>no time limit<\/b> within which he must act. It is this silence that gives rise to the so-called <b>pocket veto<\/b>, famously exercised by President Zail Singh in respect of the <b>Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill, 1986<\/b>, which was neither assented to nor returned. If a returned Bill is passed again by both Houses, with or without amendment, the President <b>shall not withhold assent<\/b> \\u2014 the suspensive veto is exhausted.<br><br><b>Why the others are correct:<\/b><br>(a) The first proviso to Article 111 permits return for reconsideration in the case of Bills other than Money Bills.<br>(b) Under <b>Article 200<\/b> a Governor may reserve a State Bill for the consideration of the President, and under <b>Article 201<\/b> the President may assent or withhold assent \\u2014 the assent is not obligatory. This is the <b>absolute veto<\/b> in respect of reserved State Bills.<br>(c) Since the <b>24th Amendment Act, 1971<\/b> inserted clause (2) into Article 368, the President is <b>bound<\/b> to give assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill duly passed by the special majority.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 28,\r\n    \"year\": \"2012-13\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"What is a Financial Bill?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"A Bill if enacted would involve expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India\",\r\n      \"A Bill containing only provisions dealing with alteration, remission, addition of tax\",\r\n      \"A Bill deals only with budget of a particular Ministry\",\r\n      \"A Bill if enacted would involve expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India and the Contingency Fund of India\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 117(3)<\/b> defines the second class of Financial Bill \\u2014 commonly called <b>Financial Bill Category B<\/b> \\u2014 as a Bill which, if enacted and brought into operation, <b>would involve expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India<\/b>. Such a Bill may be introduced in <b>either House<\/b>, but neither House may <b>pass<\/b> it unless the President has recommended its consideration.<br><br>The classification to remember is threefold:<br><b>(i) Money Bill \\u2014 Article 110(1):<\/b> contains <b>only<\/b> matters listed in clauses (a) to (g), such as imposition or alteration of a tax, borrowing, custody of the Consolidated or Contingency Fund, appropriation, declaring expenditure charged, receipt into or issue from the Consolidated Fund. Certified by the Speaker.<br><b>(ii) Financial Bill Category A \\u2014 Article 117(1):<\/b> contains matters in Article 110(1) <b>plus other general matters<\/b>. Introduced only in the Lok Sabha and only on the President's recommendation.<br><b>(iii) Financial Bill Category B \\u2014 Article 117(3):<\/b> involves expenditure from the Consolidated Fund but contains none of the Article 110(1) matters.<br><br>Option (b) describes a <b>Money Bill<\/b>, not a Financial Bill; option (d) wrongly brings in the Contingency Fund, which is governed by Article 267. Hence option <b>(a)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 29,\r\n    \"year\": \"2014\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following statements is incorrect?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The Council of States consists of elected and nominated members\",\r\n      \"The Council of States is not subject to dissolution\",\r\n      \"One-third of the members of the Council of States retire every five years\",\r\n      \"The Vice President of India is the ex officio Chairman of the Council of States\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The incorrect statement is option (c).<br><br><b>Why (c) is wrong:<\/b> <b>Article 83(1)<\/b> \\u2014 the Council of States shall not be subject to dissolution, but <b>as nearly as possible one-third of its members shall retire on the expiration of every second year<\/b>, in accordance with provisions made by Parliament by law. Since one-third retires every two years, each member enjoys a term of <b>six years<\/b>. The option's \\\"every five years\\\" is therefore doubly wrong \\u2014 wrong on the retirement cycle and inconsistent with the six-year term.<br><br><b>Why the others are correct:<\/b><br>(a) <b>Article 80(1)<\/b> \\u2014 the Council consists of <b>twelve nominated members<\/b> (special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art and social service, under Article 80(3)) and <b>not more than 238 representatives<\/b> of the States and Union territories.<br>(b) <b>Article 83(1)<\/b> \\u2014 the Council of States is a <b>permanent body<\/b> and is not subject to dissolution, in contrast to the House of the People, whose normal term is five years under Article 83(2).<br>(d) <b>Article 89(1)<\/b> \\u2014 the Vice-President of India shall be <b>ex officio Chairman<\/b> of the Council of States; the Council also chooses a Deputy Chairman from among its members.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 30,\r\n    \"year\": \"2014\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following qualifications is not necessary to become qualified to be a member of Council of States?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"He\/She is a citizen of India\",\r\n      \"He\/She is not less than 30 years of age\",\r\n      \"He\/She is a voter\",\r\n      \"He\/She is a resident of the area from which he\/she is seeking election\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 84<\/b> prescribes only three qualifications for membership of either House:<br><b>(a)<\/b> he must be a <b>citizen of India<\/b>, and must make and subscribe before a person authorised by the Election Commission an oath or affirmation in the form in the Third Schedule;<br><b>(b)<\/b> he must be not less than <b>thirty years of age<\/b> for the Council of States and not less than <b>twenty-five years<\/b> for the House of the People;<br><b>(c)<\/b> he must possess such other qualifications as may be prescribed by Parliament by law \\u2014 principally, under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, that he be an <b>elector<\/b> for a parliamentary constituency.<br><br><b>Why (d) is not a requirement:<\/b> There is <b>no residence qualification<\/b>. Section 3 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 originally required a Rajya Sabha candidate to be an elector in the State from which he sought election, but the <b>Representation of the People (Amendment) Act, 2003<\/b> deleted that requirement, substituting registration as an elector in <i>any<\/i> parliamentary constituency in India. The amendment was challenged and <b>upheld<\/b> in <i>Kuldip Nayar v. Union of India (2006)<\/i>, where the Supreme Court held that residence is not a constitutional requirement of federalism and that the Rajya Sabha represents States through their elected legislators, not through residents.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 31,\r\n    \"year\": \"2014\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"What is\/are the difference between the terms 'adjournment' and 'prorogue' in Parliamentary parlance?\\n1. Adjournment means postponement of the sitting of the House from one time to another specified time for the reassembling of the House; prorogue means to conclude the sitting of the House indefinitely\\n2. Adjournment is made by the President, while prorogue is done by the Speaker\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"Both 1 and 2\",\r\n      \"Neither 1 nor 2\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement 1 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Adjournment<\/b> suspends the work of a sitting for a specified time \\u2014 hours, days or weeks \\u2014 with the session continuing; adjournment <i>sine die<\/i> terminates the sitting without naming a day for reassembly, but the session still subsists until prorogued. <b>Prorogation<\/b> terminates a <b>session<\/b> of the House; a fresh summons by the President is required for the next session.<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 incorrect; it reverses the two authorities.<\/b> Adjournment is ordered by the <b>presiding officer<\/b> \\u2014 the Speaker or the Chairman \\u2014 under the Rules of Procedure. Prorogation is ordered by the <b>President<\/b> under <b>Article 85(2)(a)<\/b>.<br><br>Effects to remember:<br>(i) On adjournment, pending notices, motions and business survive.<br>(ii) On prorogation, <b>pending notices lapse<\/b>, but under <b>Article 107(3)<\/b> a <b>Bill pending in Parliament does not lapse<\/b> by reason of prorogation.<br>(iii) On <b>dissolution<\/b> of the Lok Sabha, most pending business including Bills lapses under Article 107(5), subject to the saving in the proviso to Article 107(4).<br><br>Hence 1 only \\u2014 option <b>(a)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 32,\r\n    \"year\": \"2014\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which of the following statements with regard to the Parliament of India is\/are correct?\\n1. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India can take part in the proceedings and cast vote in the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha\\n2. The Attorney General of India shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise take part in the proceedings of either House\\n3. The Solicitor General shall have the right to speak in, and take part in the proceedings of either House or any joint sitting of the Houses\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement 1 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> The <b>Comptroller and Auditor General<\/b> has <b>no right<\/b> either to participate in the proceedings of Parliament or to vote. His constitutional link with Parliament is indirect: under <b>Article 151(1)<\/b> his reports on the accounts of the Union are submitted to the <b>President<\/b>, who causes them to be laid before each House, whereupon they are examined by the Public Accounts Committee and the Committee on Public Undertakings.<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 88<\/b> \\u2014 every Minister and the <b>Attorney-General of India<\/b> shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint sitting, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member \\u2014 but shall <b>not be entitled to vote<\/b>.<br><br><b>Statement 3 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> Article 88 names only Ministers and the Attorney-General. The <b>Solicitor General<\/b> (and the Additional Solicitors General) are appointed under the <b>Law Officers (Conditions of Service) Rules, 1987<\/b> and are <b>statutory, not constitutional<\/b>, functionaries; they enjoy no right of audience in Parliament. The Attorney-General alone is a constitutional office, created by <b>Article 76<\/b>.<br><br>Hence 2 only \\u2014 option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 33,\r\n    \"year\": \"2014\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The quorum required for the sittings of the Lok Sabha is:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"one-third of the total membership of the House\",\r\n      \"one-fourth of the total membership of the House\",\r\n      \"one-tenth of the total membership of the House\",\r\n      \"one-sixth of the total membership of the House\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 100(3)<\/b> \\u2014 until Parliament by law otherwise provides, the quorum to constitute a meeting of either House shall be <b>one-tenth of the total number of members<\/b> of that House. Parliament has not so provided, so the constitutional figure continues to apply.<br><br>Working it out: on the present strength of <b>543<\/b> members of the Lok Sabha the quorum is <b>55<\/b>; for the Rajya Sabha, on a strength of 245, it is <b>25<\/b>.<br><br><b>Article 100(4)<\/b> states the consequence of a shortfall: if at any time during a meeting there is no quorum, it is the duty of the Chairman or Speaker either to <b>adjourn<\/b> the House or to <b>suspend the meeting<\/b> until there is a quorum. Note also <b>Article 100(2)<\/b>: the House has power to act <b>notwithstanding any vacancy<\/b> in its membership, and proceedings are valid even if it is later discovered that a person not entitled to do so sat or voted.<br><br><i>[Correction: the source explanation used a strength of 545 including two nominated Anglo-Indian members; those seats stood removed when the 104th Amendment omitted Article 331 with effect from 25 January 2020.]<\/i>\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 34,\r\n    \"year\": \"2014\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"In which one of the following cases, the seat of a member of the Lok Sabha can be treated as vacant?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The member of the Lok Sabha is also the Chairperson of the National Commission for Women\",\r\n      \"Without any intimation to the Speaker, the member remained absent from 62 meetings of the Lok Sabha which included 5 days during which the House was adjourned\",\r\n      \"The Lok Sabha member was a discharged insolvent\",\r\n      \"The Lok Sabha member elected as an independent candidate joins a political party\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Why (d) is correct:<\/b> <b>Paragraph 2(2) of the Tenth Schedule<\/b> provides that a member elected <b>otherwise than as a candidate set up by any political party<\/b> \\u2014 that is, an independent \\u2014 shall be disqualified if he <b>joins any political party<\/b> after his election. The disqualification is immediate and admits of no exception; contrast paragraph 2(3), which allows a <b>nominated<\/b> member six months from taking his seat to join a party.<br><br><b>Why (a) is wrong:<\/b> The office of Chairperson of the National Commission for Women is exempted from the office-of-profit disqualification under <b>Article 102(1)(a)<\/b> by the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959, as amended.<br><br><b>Why (b) is wrong:<\/b> Absence must be for <b>sixty days<\/b> under <b>Article 101(4)<\/b>, but the <b>proviso<\/b> excludes any period during which the House is prorogued or <b>adjourned for more than four consecutive days<\/b>. Deducting the five adjournment days from 62 leaves 57 \\u2014 below the threshold. Moreover the provision is only enabling: the House <i>may<\/i> declare the seat vacant.<br><br><b>Why (c) is wrong:<\/b> <b>Article 102(1)(c)<\/b> disqualifies only an <b>undischarged<\/b> insolvent. A discharged insolvent suffers no disqualification.<br><br>Hence option <b>(d)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 35,\r\n    \"year\": \"2014\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"There can be a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament for:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Money Bill\",\r\n      \"Constitutional Amendment Bill\",\r\n      \"Ordinary Bill\",\r\n      \"Appropriation Bill\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"A joint sitting under <b>Article 108<\/b> is available <b>only for an ordinary Bill<\/b>. Eliminating the other three:<br><br><b>(a) Money Bill \\u2014 excluded<\/b> by the express <b>proviso to Article 108(1)<\/b>. No deadlock can arise in the first place, because under <b>Article 109(5)<\/b> a Money Bill not returned by the Rajya Sabha within fourteen days is deemed passed by both Houses.<br><br><b>(b) Constitutional Amendment Bill \\u2014 excluded<\/b> because <b>Article 368(2)<\/b> requires the Bill to be passed <b>in each House<\/b> by the prescribed special majority. Disagreement between the Houses simply defeats the Bill; there is no deadlock-breaking machinery. The Constitution (24th Amendment) proposal on this point and the failure of several amendment Bills in the Rajya Sabha illustrate the position.<br><br><b>(d) Appropriation Bill \\u2014 excluded<\/b> because it is itself a <b>Money Bill<\/b>, dealing with appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India under <b>Article 114<\/b>, and so falls within the proviso to Article 108(1).<br><br>Hence option <b>(c)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 36,\r\n    \"year\": \"2014\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which of the following statements regarding an Appropriation Bill is\/are correct?\\n1. It can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha\\n2. It is introduced immediately after adoption of the demands for grants\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"Both 1 and 2\",\r\n      \"Neither 1 nor 2\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement 1 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> An Appropriation Bill is a <b>Money Bill<\/b> within Article 110(1)(c) and (e), and by <b>Article 109(1)<\/b> it can be introduced only in the <b>House of the People<\/b>.<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 114(1)<\/b> \\u2014 as soon as may be after the <b>grants under Article 113<\/b> have been made by the House of the People, there shall be introduced a Bill to provide for the appropriation out of the Consolidated Fund of India of all moneys required to meet (a) the grants so made, and (b) the expenditure <b>charged<\/b> on the Consolidated Fund but not exceeding in any case the amount shown in the annual financial statement.<br><br>Two further features are worth remembering:<br>(i) <b>Article 114(2)<\/b> bars any amendment which would vary the amount or alter the destination of a grant, or vary the amount of charged expenditure \\u2014 the presiding officer's decision on admissibility being final.<br>(ii) <b>Article 114(3)<\/b> makes it unlawful to withdraw any money from the Consolidated Fund of India except under appropriation made by law passed in accordance with Article 114.<br><br>Hence both \\u2014 option <b>(c)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 37,\r\n    \"year\": \"2014\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements regarding Financial Bill under Article 117(3) of the Constitution:\\n1. It can be introduced without the recommendation of the President\\n2. It can be introduced either in the Lok Sabha or in the Rajya Sabha\\n3. It would involve expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India\\n4. Unless the recommendation of the President is received, the Bill cannot be considered by the Lok Sabha\/the Rajya Sabha\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"4 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 117(3)<\/b> provides that a Bill which, if enacted and brought into operation, would involve expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India <b>shall not be passed by either House unless the President has recommended to that House the consideration of the Bill<\/b>.<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> Because the bar operates at the stage of <b>consideration and passing<\/b>, and not at introduction, a Category B Financial Bill may originate in <b>either House<\/b>. This distinguishes it from a Category A Financial Bill under Article 117(1), which can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and only on the President's recommendation.<br><br><b>Statement 3 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> It reproduces the defining feature of the Bill under Article 117(3) \\u2014 expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India.<br><br><b>Statement 4 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> This is the operative bar in Article 117(3): no House may pass such a Bill without the President's recommendation for its consideration.<br><br><b>Statement 1 \\u2014 treated as incorrect by the examiner.<\/b> Although as a matter of strict text the President's recommendation is not required for <i>introduction<\/i>, the marked key treats statement 1 as wrong because the effective and only constitutional requirement is the recommendation for consideration \\u2014 statement 4 states the position correctly and statement 1 is regarded as a misleading restatement.<br><br>Hence 2, 3 and 4 \\u2014 option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 38,\r\n    \"year\": \"2015\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which of the following statements relating to Lok Sabha are correct?\\n1. The President summons and prorogues the House.\\n2. The Speaker determines the time when a sitting of the House is adjourned sine die or to a particular day.\\n3. The Speaker has the power to recognize parties and groups in the House.\\n4. The Election Commission has the power to recognize parties and groups in the House.\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement 1 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 85(1)<\/b> gives the President the power to <b>summon<\/b> each House, and <b>Article 85(2)(a)<\/b> the power to <b>prorogue<\/b> it.<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Adjournment<\/b>, whether to a specified day or <i>sine die<\/i>, is a power of the <b>Speaker<\/b> exercised under the Rules of Procedure; it is a matter of the internal management of sittings and not of the summoning of sessions.<br><br><b>Statement 3 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> Recognition of <b>parties and groups within the House<\/b> \\u2014 for the purposes of seating, allotment of time in debates, membership of committees and recognition of the <b>Leader of the Opposition<\/b> \\u2014 is the <b>Speaker's<\/b> prerogative under the Directions by the Speaker. The working convention requires a party to command at least one-tenth of the total membership of the House to be recognised as a party, and at least thirty members to be recognised as a group.<br><br><b>Statement 4 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> The <b>Election Commission<\/b>, acting under <b>Article 324<\/b> and the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, recognises parties as <b>National<\/b> or <b>State<\/b> parties for <b>electoral<\/b> purposes, principally symbol allotment. That recognition has nothing to do with the status of parties inside the House.<br><br>Hence 1, 2 and 3 \\u2014 option <b>(c)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 39,\r\n    \"year\": \"2015\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following statements on adjournment and prorogation of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha is correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"While the House is adjourned to meet again at a particular time and date, prorogation ends the meeting of the House without deciding any time and date for its next meeting\",\r\n      \"While the House is adjourned not to meet again at a particular time and date, prorogation ends the meeting of the House by deciding time and date for its next meeting\",\r\n      \"Prorogation and adjournment are similar terms with regard to the Houses\",\r\n      \"Adjournment of the Houses completes the business of the House\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Adjournment<\/b> suspends a sitting to a stated hour, day or date; the <b>session continues<\/b> and pending business survives. It is ordered by the <b>presiding officer<\/b>.<br><br><b>Prorogation<\/b> under <b>Article 85(2)(a)<\/b> is ordered by the <b>President<\/b> and <b>terminates the session<\/b> itself. No date is fixed for the next meeting; the House can meet again only on a <b>fresh summons<\/b> issued by the President under Article 85(1), subject to the six-month rule.<br><br>Option (a) captures exactly this contrast and is therefore correct. Option (b) reverses the two. Option (c) is wrong because the terms differ in the authority exercising the power, in their effect on the session, and in their effect on pending business. Option (d) is wrong because adjournment merely suspends business; it does not complete it \\u2014 unfinished business is taken up when the House reassembles.<br><br>Note the effect on Bills: prorogation does <b>not<\/b> cause a pending Bill to lapse (<b>Article 107(3)<\/b>), whereas <b>dissolution<\/b> of the Lok Sabha generally does (Article 107(5)).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 40,\r\n    \"year\": \"2015\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which of the following statements relating to the President\/Vice President are correct?\\n1. The President may resign his office by writing under his hand addressed to the Chief Justice of India\\n2. The President may resign his office by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice President of India\\n3. The Vice President may resign his office by writing under his hand addressed to the President\\n4. The Speaker of Lok Sabha may resign his office by writing under his hand addressed to the President\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4\",\r\n      \"1 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement 1 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> The President does <b>not<\/b> resign to the Chief Justice of India. The Chief Justice's role is confined to administering the oath of office to the President under <b>Article 60<\/b>.<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 56(1)(a)<\/b> \\u2014 the President may resign by writing under his hand addressed to the <b>Vice-President<\/b>, who under Article 56(2) must forthwith communicate the resignation to the Speaker of the House of the People.<br><br><b>Statement 3 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 67(a)<\/b> \\u2014 the Vice-President may resign by writing under his hand addressed to the <b>President<\/b>.<br><br><b>Statement 4 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> <b>Article 94(b)<\/b> \\u2014 the Speaker resigns by writing addressed to the <b>Deputy Speaker<\/b>, not to the President, a design that keeps the office of the presiding officers free of executive involvement.<br><br>Hence 2 and 3 only \\u2014 option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 41,\r\n    \"year\": \"2015\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which of the following statements relating to the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers is\/are correct?\\n1. After a general election to Lok Sabha, the Prime Minister and other ministers are appointed and administered oaths of office and of secrecy before the new Lok Sabha holds its first sitting\\n2. The Prime Minister and other ministers have also to make and subscribe oath or affirmation as Members of Parliament in the House to which they belong\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"Both 1 and 2\",\r\n      \"Neither 1 nor 2\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement 1 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 75(1)<\/b> \\u2014 the Prime Minister is appointed by the President and the other Ministers are appointed by the President on the Prime Minister's advice. <b>Article 75(4)<\/b> requires that before a Minister enters upon his office, the President shall administer to him the <b>oath of office and of secrecy<\/b> according to the forms set out in the <b>Third Schedule<\/b>. Since government must be in place from the moment the results are declared, this ceremony takes place at Rashtrapati Bhavan <b>before<\/b> the newly elected House holds its first sitting.<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> The ministerial oath is <b>distinct<\/b> from the parliamentary oath. Every Minister who is a member of a House must <b>separately<\/b> make and subscribe the oath under <b>Article 99<\/b> in the form in the Third Schedule before taking his seat in that House \\u2014 administered by the Speaker pro tem in a newly constituted Lok Sabha. Failure to do so attracts the penalty in Article 104.<br><br>The two oaths serve different purposes: the Article 75(4) oath conditions the holding of <b>executive office<\/b>; the Article 99 oath conditions the exercise of <b>legislative membership<\/b>.<br><br>Hence both \\u2014 option <b>(c)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 42,\r\n    \"year\": \"2015\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following statements regarding Parliamentary privileges is correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Freedom from arrest extends to criminal offences also.\",\r\n      \"Freedom from arrest does not extend to criminal offence.\",\r\n      \"Freedom from arrest can be claimed in respect of Preventive Detention also.\",\r\n      \"Freedom from arrest can be claimed even for non-Parliamentary work.\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The privilege of <b>freedom from arrest<\/b> is not conferred by any Article of the Constitution in terms; it is one of the privileges preserved by <b>Article 105(3)<\/b> and given statutory shape by <b>Section 135 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908<\/b>.<br><br><b>Scope:<\/b> It operates only in <b>civil<\/b> proceedings \\u2014 typically arrest in execution of a decree \\u2014 and only during the continuance of a session and for <b>forty days before and forty days after<\/b> it.<br><br><b>Exclusions:<\/b><br>(i) It does <b>not<\/b> extend to arrest on a <b>criminal charge<\/b>, which is why option (a) is wrong and option (b) is correct.<br>(ii) It does <b>not<\/b> extend to detention under a <b>preventive detention law<\/b> \\u2014 hence option (c) is wrong. This was settled in <i>K. Anandan Nambiar v. Chief Secretary, Government of Madras (1966)<\/i>.<br>(iii) The privilege attaches to the member <b>qua member<\/b> in connection with his parliamentary duties; it cannot be claimed for wholly unconnected private activity \\u2014 hence option (d) is wrong.<br><br>The procedural safeguard that survives in criminal cases is only one of <b>intimation<\/b>: the arresting authority must inform the Speaker or Chairman of the arrest, its reasons and the place of detention, and no arrest may be effected within the precincts of the House without the presiding officer's permission.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 43,\r\n    \"year\": \"2015\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Who determines the question as to whether a Member of Lok Sabha has become subject to disqualification on the ground of defection in terms of Tenth Schedule of the Constitution?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The Speaker of Lok Sabha\",\r\n      \"The President of India\",\r\n      \"The Supreme Court of India\",\r\n      \"The Election Commission of India\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Paragraph 6 of the Tenth Schedule<\/b>, attracted by <b>Article 102(2)<\/b>, provides that if any question arises as to whether a member has become subject to disqualification on the ground of defection, the question shall be referred for the decision of the <b>Chairman or, as the case may be, the Speaker<\/b> of such House, and his decision shall be <b>final<\/b>. Paragraph 6(2) deems all such proceedings to be proceedings in Parliament within Article 122.<br><br><b>Judicial review:<\/b> In <i>Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1992)<\/i> the Supreme Court struck down <b>paragraph 7<\/b> (which had purported to oust the jurisdiction of all courts) for want of ratification by the States under the proviso to Article 368(2), and held that the presiding officer, while deciding a defection question, acts as a <b>tribunal<\/b>. His decision is therefore amenable to judicial review, though on limited grounds \\u2014 <b>mala fides, perversity, violation of a constitutional mandate, or breach of natural justice<\/b> \\u2014 and ordinarily only after the decision is rendered.<br><br><b>Contrast with Article 102(1):<\/b> Disqualifications on the other grounds \\u2014 office of profit, unsound mind, undischarged insolvency, loss of citizenship \\u2014 are decided by the <b>President<\/b> under <b>Article 103<\/b>, who must obtain and act according to the <b>opinion of the Election Commission<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 44,\r\n    \"year\": \"2015\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"A Bill undergoes three readings in each House before it is submitted to the President for his assent. Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to the three readings of the Bill?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The first reading refers to the motion for leave to introduce the Bill on the adoption of which the Bill is introduced\",\r\n      \"The second reading refers to general discussion, clause by clause consideration and adoption of the Bill\",\r\n      \"The third reading refers to passage of the Bill\",\r\n      \"None of the above\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"All three descriptions in options (a), (b) and (c) are <b>accurate<\/b>, so the statement that is not correct is <b>none of them<\/b> \\u2014 option (d).<br><br><b>First reading:<\/b> the motion for leave to introduce the Bill; on its adoption the Bill is introduced and published in the Gazette. Where the Bill has already been published before introduction, leave is not required.<br><br><b>Second reading:<\/b> the substantive stage, comprising (i) <b>general discussion<\/b> on the principles of the Bill, at the end of which the House may take it into consideration, refer it to a Select or Joint Committee, or circulate it for public opinion; and (ii) <b>clause-by-clause consideration<\/b>, when amendments are moved and each clause and schedule is put to vote.<br><br><b>Third reading:<\/b> debate confined to the motion that <b>the Bill be passed<\/b>; only formal, verbal or consequential amendments may be moved.<br><br>The three-reading procedure is not laid down in the text of the Constitution at all. It flows from the <b>Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business<\/b> framed by each House under <b>Article 118(1)<\/b> \\u2014 a point examiners frequently test.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 45,\r\n    \"year\": \"2015\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements about Money Bill:\\n1. Under the Constitution of India, a Money Bill cannot be returned to the House by the President for reconsideration\\n2. Provision of Article 108 of the Constitution of India is applicable to a Money Bill\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"Both 1 and 2\",\r\n      \"Neither 1 nor 2\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement 1 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> The <b>first proviso to Article 111<\/b> permits the President to return a Bill for reconsideration <b>only if it is not a Money Bill<\/b>. In respect of a Money Bill the President may therefore either assent or withhold assent; he cannot return it. In practice assent is invariably given, since a Money Bill is introduced only on his own recommendation under Article 117(1).<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> The <b>proviso to Article 108(1)<\/b> expressly excludes a Money Bill from the joint-sitting mechanism. The exclusion is structurally coherent: <b>Article 109<\/b> already resolves any inter-House disagreement in favour of the House of the People \\u2014 the Rajya Sabha must return the Bill within <b>fourteen days<\/b> with such recommendations as it thinks fit, the Lok Sabha may accept or reject them, and if the Bill is not returned in time it is <b>deemed to have been passed by both Houses<\/b> at the end of that period (Article 109(5)). No deadlock can therefore arise requiring a joint sitting.<br><br>Hence 1 only \\u2014 option <b>(a)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 46,\r\n    \"year\": \"2015\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements regarding assent of the President on a Bill passed by Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha:\\n1. The President can give assent or withhold assent to a Bill\\n2. The President is not bound to give assent to Constitutional Amendment Bill\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"Both 1 and 2\",\r\n      \"Neither 1 nor 2\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement 1 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 111<\/b> \\u2014 when a Bill has been passed by the Houses of Parliament and is presented to the President, he shall declare either that he <b>assents<\/b> to the Bill or that he <b>withholds assent<\/b> therefrom; and by the proviso he may, as soon as possible, return a Bill other than a Money Bill with a message requesting reconsideration. If the Houses pass the Bill again, with or without amendment, the President <b>shall not withhold assent<\/b>.<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> The <b>24th Amendment Act, 1971<\/b> inserted into <b>Article 368(2)<\/b> the words requiring that the Bill, on being presented to the President, <b>\\\"shall\\\" be assented to<\/b>. The President is therefore <b>bound<\/b> to assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill duly passed by the prescribed special majority (and, where the proviso applies, ratified by not less than one-half of the State Legislatures). The amendment was a legislative response to <i>Golaknath v. State of Punjab (1967)<\/i> and was itself upheld in <i>Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)<\/i>, subject to the basic structure doctrine.<br><br>Hence 1 only \\u2014 option <b>(a)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 47,\r\n    \"year\": \"2015\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following statements relating to Constitutional Amendment Bill is correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"In case of any disagreement between the two Houses of Parliament on a Constitutional Amendment Bill, there cannot be a joint sitting of the Houses of Parliament\",\r\n      \"The President is not bound to give assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by prescribed special majority\",\r\n      \"There can be a joint sitting on a Constitutional Amendment Bill\",\r\n      \"Constitutional Amendment Bill can be passed even without a division\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Why (a) is correct:<\/b> <b>Article 368(2)<\/b> requires the Bill to be passed <b>in each House<\/b> by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. There is <b>no provision for a joint sitting<\/b>; if the Houses disagree, the Bill simply fails. Article 108 is confined to ordinary Bills and, by its proviso, excludes Money Bills.<br><br><b>Why (b) is wrong:<\/b> Since the <b>24th Amendment Act, 1971<\/b>, assent to a duly passed Constitutional Amendment Bill is <b>obligatory<\/b>.<br><br><b>Why (c) is wrong:<\/b> It is the converse of (a).<br><br><b>Why (d) is wrong:<\/b> A <b>division<\/b> is indispensable. The special majority requires a numerical count of both the total membership and of two-thirds of those present and voting, and that count can only be established by recording votes. A Constitutional Amendment Bill can therefore never be passed by voice vote.<br><br>Note also that where the amendment touches the entrenched provisions listed in the <b>proviso to Article 368(2)<\/b> \\u2014 such as the election of the President, the extent of Union and State executive power, the Seventh Schedule, representation of States in Parliament, or Article 368 itself \\u2014 <b>ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States<\/b> is additionally required.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 48,\r\n    \"year\": \"2016-17\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Parliament of India consists of:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"the President of India only\",\r\n      \"the House of the People and the Council of States only\",\r\n      \"the President of India, the House of the People and the Council of States\",\r\n      \"the Vice-President of India, the House of the People and the Council of States\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 79<\/b> \\u2014 there shall be a Parliament for the Union which shall consist of the <b>President<\/b> and <b>two Houses<\/b> to be known respectively as the <b>Council of States<\/b> and the <b>House of the People<\/b>.<br><br><b>Why the President is a component:<\/b> Although he does not sit or participate in either House, no Bill can become law without his assent under <b>Article 111<\/b>; he summons and prorogues the Houses and dissolves the Lok Sabha under <b>Article 85<\/b>; he addresses the Houses under <b>Article 86<\/b> and delivers the special address under <b>Article 87<\/b>; he may promulgate Ordinances having the force of an Act under <b>Article 123<\/b>; and his prior recommendation is required for certain financial Bills under Article 117. The scheme is inherited from the Westminster conception of the <b>King-in-Parliament<\/b>.<br><br><b>Why the Vice-President is not:<\/b> He is the <b>ex officio Chairman<\/b> of the Council of States under <b>Article 89(1)<\/b>, and presides over it, but he is not a member of the House and is not a constituent element of Parliament under Article 79.<br><br>Hence option <b>(c)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 49,\r\n    \"year\": \"2016-17\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which of the following statements about Attorney General of India is correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"He has the right to take part in the proceedings and vote in either House of Parliament\",\r\n      \"He has the right to take part in the proceedings but has no right to vote in either House of Parliament\",\r\n      \"He cannot attend a joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha\",\r\n      \"He cannot take part in the Committee meetings of Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 88<\/b> is the governing provision: every Minister and the Attorney-General of India shall have the <b>right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of<\/b>, (i) either House, (ii) any <b>joint sitting<\/b> of the Houses, and (iii) any <b>committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member<\/b>, but shall <b>not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote<\/b>.<br><br>This makes option (b) correct and disposes of options (a), (c) and (d) at once \\u2014 he has no vote, but he may attend a joint sitting and may take part in committee proceedings where named a member.<br><br><b>Background on the office:<\/b> The Attorney-General is appointed by the President under <b>Article 76(1)<\/b> from among persons qualified to be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court. He is the <b>first law officer<\/b> of the Union, gives advice on legal matters referred to him by the President, performs duties of a legal character assigned to him, and has <b>right of audience in all courts<\/b> in the territory of India under <b>Article 76(3)<\/b>. He holds office during the pleasure of the President (Article 76(4)) and receives such remuneration as the President may determine. He is not a member of the Cabinet and is permitted private practice, subject to restrictions.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 50,\r\n    \"year\": \"2016-17\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to dissolution of the Lok Sabha?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker hold their offices.\",\r\n      \"Only the Deputy Speaker vacates his office.\",\r\n      \"Both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker vacate their offices.\",\r\n      \"Both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker continue to be Members of Lok Sabha.\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"On dissolution every member of the House ceases to be a member, and by <b>Article 94(a)<\/b> the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker would both vacate office on that ground. But the <b>second proviso to Article 94<\/b> creates an exception for the <b>Speaker alone<\/b>: whenever the House of the People is dissolved, the Speaker shall <b>not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the House after the dissolution<\/b>.<br><br><b>Consequences:<\/b><br>(i) The <b>Deputy Speaker vacates<\/b> office immediately on dissolution \\u2014 no saving clause protects him.<br>(ii) The <b>Speaker continues<\/b> in office, though not as a member of the House, until immediately before the first sitting of the new House, at which point the Speaker pro tem appointed by the President takes over.<br>(iii) Option (d) is wrong on a further ground \\u2014 neither continues to be a <b>Member<\/b> of the Lok Sabha, since the House itself has ceased to exist; the Speaker retains only the <b>office<\/b>, not membership.<br><br>The rationale is continuity of the office of the presiding authority, particularly in relation to the Secretariat of the House under <b>Article 98<\/b>.<br><br>Hence option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 51,\r\n    \"year\": \"2016-17\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to Speaker of Lok Sabha?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Speaker tenders his resignation letter addressed to the President\",\r\n      \"When the office of the Speaker is vacant the duties of his office shall be performed by the Deputy Speaker\",\r\n      \"The Speaker holds office at the pleasure of the President\",\r\n      \"The Speaker can summon a joint session of Parliament\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Why (b) is correct:<\/b> <b>Article 95(1)<\/b> \\u2014 while the office of Speaker is vacant, the duties of the office shall be performed by the <b>Deputy Speaker<\/b>, or if the office of Deputy Speaker is also vacant, by such member of the House as the <b>President may appoint<\/b> for the purpose. Article 95(2) deals with the Speaker's absence from a sitting, when the Deputy Speaker, or a person from the panel of Chairpersons, presides.<br><br><b>Why (a) is wrong:<\/b> Under <b>Article 94(b)<\/b> the Speaker resigns by writing addressed to the <b>Deputy Speaker<\/b>.<br><br><b>Why (c) is wrong:<\/b> The Speaker does <b>not<\/b> hold office at the pleasure of the President. He is elected by the House under <b>Article 93<\/b> and can be removed only by a <b>resolution of the House passed by a majority of all the then members<\/b> after fourteen days' notice (Article 94(c)). His salary is <b>charged on the Consolidated Fund of India<\/b> under Article 97 and is therefore non-votable \\u2014 a further guarantee of independence.<br><br><b>Why (d) is wrong:<\/b> Only the <b>President<\/b> may summon a joint sitting, under <b>Article 108(1)<\/b>. The Speaker's role is to <b>preside<\/b> over it under <b>Article 118(4)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 52,\r\n    \"year\": \"2016-17\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to removal of the Speaker of Lok Sabha?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The Speaker may be removed from his office by the President on a resolution of Lok Sabha passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House\",\r\n      \"The Speaker may be removed from his office by a resolution of Lok Sabha passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House\",\r\n      \"At least 21 days notice has to be given to move a resolution to remove the Speaker\",\r\n      \"In computing the period of notice for removing the Speaker, both the terminal days are included\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 94(c)<\/b> \\u2014 the Speaker may be <b>removed from his office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House<\/b>. The proviso requires that <b>at least fourteen days' notice<\/b> of the intention to move the resolution be given.<br><br><b>Why (a) is wrong:<\/b> No Presidential order or executive act is involved. The House removes its own presiding officer; this is what makes option (b) the only correct statement.<br><br><b>Why (c) is wrong:<\/b> The notice period is <b>fourteen days<\/b>, not twenty-one.<br><br><b>Why (d) is wrong:<\/b> In computing the fourteen days, the terminal days are <b>excluded<\/b> under the ordinary rule of construction applied to such notice periods.<br><br><b>Related safeguards:<\/b> Under <b>Article 96(1)<\/b> the Speaker shall <b>not preside<\/b> while a resolution for his removal is under consideration, though he may be present. Under <b>Article 96(2)<\/b> he has the right to <b>speak in and otherwise take part in<\/b> the proceedings and to <b>vote in the first instance<\/b> on such a resolution, but not to a casting vote. Since he continues in office until immediately before the first meeting of the new House after a dissolution, a removal resolution may be moved only in a functioning House.<br><br>Hence option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 53,\r\n    \"year\": \"2016-17\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following statements regarding Speaker Pro-tem is correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Speaker Pro-tem is elected by the Lok Sabha\",\r\n      \"Speaker Pro-tem is appointed by the President and signs the Roll of Members in Lok Sabha\",\r\n      \"Speaker Pro-tem does not preside over the first meeting of Lok Sabha\",\r\n      \"Speaker Pro-tem is appointed by the Prime Minister\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The Speaker <i>pro tem<\/i> is a creature of <b>convention and the Rules of Procedure<\/b>, not of the express text of the Constitution. His office exists to bridge the interval between the assembling of a newly elected House and the election of its Speaker under <b>Article 93<\/b>.<br><br><b>Why (b) is correct:<\/b> He is appointed by the <b>President<\/b>, is himself administered the oath by the President, and thereafter takes his own seat by <b>signing the Roll of Members<\/b> before administering the oath to others.<br><br><b>Why (a) is wrong:<\/b> He is not elected by the House; election under Article 93 applies to the Speaker and Deputy Speaker.<br><br><b>Why (c) is wrong:<\/b> Presiding over the <b>first meeting<\/b> of the newly constituted House is his principal function \\u2014 he administers the oath or affirmation under <b>Article 99<\/b> and then presides over the election of the Speaker, whereupon his office ceases.<br><br><b>Why (d) is wrong:<\/b> The Prime Minister may <b>suggest<\/b> the name \\u2014 by convention that of the <b>senior-most member<\/b> in terms of continuous parliamentary service \\u2014 but the <b>appointment<\/b> is made by the President.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 54,\r\n    \"year\": \"2016-17\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"A Member of Lok Sabha does not become disqualified to continue as a Member of the House if the person:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"voluntarily gives up his\/her membership of the political party from which he\/she was elected\",\r\n      \"is expelled by the political party from which he\/she had been elected to the House\",\r\n      \"joins a political party after being elected as an independent candidate\",\r\n      \"abstains from voting contrary to the direction issued by his\/her political Party\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The Tenth Schedule lists the grounds of defection exhaustively, and <b>expulsion is not among them<\/b>.<br><br><b>Why (b) attracts no disqualification:<\/b> <b>Paragraph 2(1)(a)<\/b> speaks of a member who has <b>voluntarily given up<\/b> his membership of the party. Expulsion by the party is an act of the party, not a voluntary act of the member, and therefore falls outside the paragraph. An expelled member continues to be treated for the purposes of the Tenth Schedule as belonging to his original party and is designated an <b>\\\"unattached\\\" member<\/b> in the House.<br><br><b>Why the others do attract disqualification:<\/b><br>(a) <b>Paragraph 2(1)(a)<\/b> \\u2014 voluntarily giving up membership. The Supreme Court has held that \\\"voluntarily giving up\\\" is <b>wider than formal resignation<\/b> and may be inferred from conduct (<i>Ravi S. Naik v. Union of India, 1994<\/i>).<br>(c) <b>Paragraph 2(2)<\/b> \\u2014 an independent member who joins any political party after election is disqualified.<br>(d) <b>Paragraph 2(1)(b)<\/b> \\u2014 voting or <b>abstaining from voting<\/b> contrary to the direction of the party (the whip), without prior permission and without condonation within fifteen days.<br><br>The only saving is <b>paragraph 4<\/b> (merger, where not less than two-thirds of the members of the legislature party agree); the <b>split<\/b> exception in paragraph 3 was deleted by the <b>91st Amendment Act, 2003<\/b>.<br><br>Hence option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 55,\r\n    \"year\": \"2016-17\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements with regard to the Members of Parliament:\\n1. Nominated and elected Members get Nomination\/Election certificate from the Returning Officer\\n2. Nominated Member gets the Letter of Nomination from the Ministry of Law\\n3. A nominated Member can join any political party only within 6 months of his nomination\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement 1 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> Only <b>elected<\/b> members receive a certificate of election from the <b>Returning Officer<\/b>. A <b>nominated<\/b> member is not the product of any election and therefore has no Returning Officer and no election certificate.<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> A member nominated to the Council of States under <b>Article 80(1)(a)<\/b> and 80(3), or formerly to the House of the People under Article 331, receives a <b>Letter of Nomination<\/b> signed on behalf of the President, the notification being processed by the <b>Legislative Department of the Ministry of Law and Justice<\/b>.<br><br><b>Statement 3 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Paragraph 2(3) of the Tenth Schedule<\/b> provides that a nominated member shall be disqualified if he joins any political party <b>after the expiry of six months<\/b> from the date on which he takes his seat. Within that window he may join a party freely without attracting disqualification. This concession recognises that nominated members enter the House without any party affiliation. Contrast <b>paragraph 2(2)<\/b>, under which an <b>independent<\/b> elected member is disqualified the moment he joins a party \\u2014 he gets no such six-month grace period.<br><br>Hence 2 and 3 only \\u2014 option <b>(d)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 56,\r\n    \"year\": \"2016-17\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following statements is not correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Before 1923, a Bill passed by one House and transmitted to the other House of the Central Legislative Assembly did not lapse upon dissolution of the House which had passed it\",\r\n      \"Bills passed by Lok Sabha but pending in Rajya Sabha on the date of dissolution of Lok Sabha, lapse\",\r\n      \"Only Bills originating in Rajya Sabha which have not been passed by Lok Sabha but are still pending before Rajya Sabha, lapse\",\r\n      \"Only Bills originating in Rajya Sabha which have not been passed by Lok Sabha but are still pending before Rajya Sabha, do not lapse\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Options (c) and (d) state exactly opposite propositions, so one of them must be the incorrect statement; the incorrect one is <b>(c)<\/b>.<br><br><b>The governing rule \\u2014 Article 107(4) and (5):<\/b><br>(i) <b>Article 107(5)<\/b> \\u2014 a Bill <b>pending in the House of the People<\/b>, or <b>passed by the House of the People and pending in the Council of States<\/b>, <b>lapses<\/b> on a dissolution of the House of the People. This is why option (b) is correct.<br>(ii) <b>Proviso to Article 107(4)<\/b> \\u2014 a Bill <b>pending in the Council of States which has not been passed by the House of the People<\/b> does <b>not lapse<\/b> on dissolution. The Council of States being a permanent body under Article 83(1), such a Bill survives. This is why option (d) is correct and option (c), which asserts the contrary, is the incorrect statement.<br>(iii) <b>Article 107(3)<\/b> \\u2014 no pending Bill lapses by reason of <b>prorogation<\/b>.<br><br><b>Also surviving dissolution:<\/b> a Bill in respect of which the President has notified his intention to summon a joint sitting under <b>Article 108(2)<\/b>, and a Bill passed by both Houses and awaiting the President's assent or returned by him for reconsideration.<br><br>Option (a) reflects the pre-1923 position under the Government of India Act, 1919 framework and is correct as stated.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 57,\r\n    \"year\": \"2016-17\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which of the following statements is\/are correct with regard to the effects of dissolution of Lok Sabha?\\n1. The dissolution is irrevocable\\n2. All business pending before the Lok Sabha lapses\\n3. A Bill passed by the Lok Sabha immediately before its dissolution can be taken up by the Rajya Sabha\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement 1 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> Dissolution under <b>Article 85(2)(b)<\/b> brings the life of the House to an end; unlike an adjournment or prorogation it is <b>irrevocable<\/b>, and the House can be revived only by fresh general elections.<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> All business pending before the House \\u2014 Bills, notices, motions, resolutions, questions and pending committee references \\u2014 <b>lapses<\/b>. Committees of the House also cease to exist.<br><br><b>Statement 3 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> Under <b>Article 107(5)<\/b> a Bill which has been <b>passed by the House of the People and is pending in the Council of States<\/b> <b>lapses<\/b> on dissolution of the House of the People. The Rajya Sabha therefore cannot take it up; the Bill must be introduced afresh in the newly constituted House.<br><br><b>Exceptions to the lapsing rule, worth memorising:<\/b><br>(i) A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha not passed by the Lok Sabha \\u2014 <b>does not lapse<\/b> (proviso to Article 107(4)).<br>(ii) A Bill in respect of which the President has notified his intention to summon a <b>joint sitting<\/b> \\u2014 does not lapse (Article 108(2)).<br>(iii) A Bill passed by both Houses and pending assent, or returned by the President for reconsideration \\u2014 does not lapse.<br>(iv) Pending assurances to be examined by the Committee on Government Assurances, and notices for the removal of the Speaker\/Deputy Speaker, do not lapse.<br><br>Hence 1 and 2 only \\u2014 option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 58,\r\n    \"year\": \"2016-17\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following statements is correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"A Bill can be taken up in a joint sitting of the Houses notwithstanding the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.\",\r\n      \"A Bill cannot be taken up in a joint sitting of the Houses after Lok Sabha is dissolved.\",\r\n      \"Joint session cannot be convened by the President after dissolution of Lok Sabha even though the President notified his intention to summon the Joint Sitting of the Houses.\",\r\n      \"There is express provision in the Constitution regarding the effect of dissolution on a Bill which has been passed by the two Houses and sent to the President for assent.\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 108(2)<\/b> is the key: if the President has <b>notified his intention<\/b> to summon the Houses to meet in a joint sitting, neither House shall proceed further with the Bill, and the President may summon the Houses to meet in a joint sitting <b>notwithstanding that a dissolution of the House of the People has intervened<\/b> since the notification. This makes options (a) correct and (b) and (c) wrong.<br><br><b>The timing distinction to note:<\/b> the opening words of <b>Article 108(1)<\/b> \\u2014 <i>unless the Bill has elapsed by reason of a dissolution of the House of the People<\/i> \\u2014 apply to the period <b>before<\/b> the President's notification. Once the notification issues, Article 108(2) protects the Bill from the consequences of dissolution. The trigger is therefore the notification, not the summoning.<br><br><b>Why (d) is wrong:<\/b> The Constitution contains <b>no express provision<\/b> on the effect of dissolution upon a Bill already passed by both Houses and presented to the President for assent. The accepted view, resting on practice rather than text, is that such a Bill does <b>not<\/b> lapse, because the legislative process of the Houses is complete and only the executive act of assent remains.<br><br>Hence option <b>(a)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 59,\r\n    \"year\": \"2016-17\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. The Financial Bills of category B if enacted and brought into operation, would involve expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India\\n2. Financial Bills of category A can be introduced only in Lok Sabha\\n3. Financial Bill of category B requires recommendation of the President for its introduction\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement 1 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> This is the definition of a <b>Category B Financial Bill<\/b> in <b>Article 117(3)<\/b>: a Bill which, if enacted and brought into operation, would involve <b>expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India<\/b>, but which contains none of the matters specified in Article 110(1).<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> A <b>Category A Financial Bill<\/b> under <b>Article 117(1)<\/b> contains one or more of the matters listed in <b>Article 110(1)(a) to (f)<\/b> together with other general matters. Because it partakes of the character of a Money Bill, it may be introduced <b>only in the House of the People<\/b> and <b>only on the recommendation of the President<\/b>.<br><br><b>Statement 3 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> For a Category B Bill the President's recommendation is required not for <b>introduction<\/b> but for <b>consideration<\/b> \\u2014 <i>shall not be passed by either House unless the President has recommended to that House the consideration of the Bill<\/i>. Consequently it may be introduced in <b>either House<\/b> without any prior recommendation.<br><br><b>Summary of the three-fold classification:<\/b> Money Bill (Article 110) \\u2014 only Article 110(1) matters, Lok Sabha only, President's recommendation for introduction, Speaker's certificate; Financial Bill A (Article 117(1)) \\u2014 Article 110 matters plus others, Lok Sabha only, recommendation for introduction, but <b>no<\/b> Speaker's certificate and the Rajya Sabha has full powers; Financial Bill B (Article 117(3)) \\u2014 mere expenditure, either House, recommendation for consideration.<br><br>Hence 1 and 2 only \\u2014 option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 60,\r\n    \"year\": \"2019-20\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The President of India can nominate how many members to the Rajya Sabha?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"6\",\r\n      \"10\",\r\n      \"12\",\r\n      \"16\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 80(1)(a)<\/b> \\u2014 the Council of States shall consist of <b>twelve members to be nominated by the President<\/b> in accordance with the provisions of clause (3), and not more than 238 representatives of the States and of the Union territories.<br><br><b>Article 80(3)<\/b> \\u2014 the members to be nominated shall consist of persons having <b>special knowledge or practical experience<\/b> in respect of <b>literature, science, art and social service<\/b>.<br><br><b>Strength arithmetic:<\/b> the <b>maximum sanctioned strength<\/b> of the Council of States is <b>250<\/b> (238 + 12); its <b>actual strength<\/b> at present is <b>245<\/b> (233 representatives of States and Union territories + 12 nominated), because not all the 238 seats have been allotted.<br><br><b>Related points:<\/b> Representatives of the States are elected by the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies under <b>Article 80(4)<\/b> by proportional representation through the single transferable vote; representatives of Union territories are chosen in such manner as Parliament may by law prescribe under <b>Article 80(5)<\/b>. A nominated member may join a political party within six months of taking his seat without attracting disqualification under paragraph 2(3) of the Tenth Schedule.<br><br>Hence option <b>(c)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 61,\r\n    \"year\": \"2019-20\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which provision of the Constitution of India refers to a political party?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Election of the President of India under Article 55\",\r\n      \"Disqualification for membership of the Parliament under Article 102\",\r\n      \"Superintendence, direction and control of elections under Article 324\",\r\n      \"Defection under Tenth Schedule\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The <b>Tenth Schedule<\/b>, inserted by the <b>52nd Amendment Act, 1985<\/b> and given constitutional anchorage by <b>Article 102(2)<\/b> and <b>Article 191(2)<\/b>, is the <b>only<\/b> part of the Constitution that expressly uses and defines the expression <b>\\\"political party\\\"<\/b>. Paragraph 1(c) defines an <i>original political party<\/i> and paragraph 1(b) a <i>legislature party<\/i>, and the entire anti-defection scheme is built on the concepts of party membership and party direction (the whip).<br><br><b>Why the others do not qualify:<\/b><br>(a) <b>Article 55<\/b> deals with the manner of election of the President \\u2014 proportional representation by single transferable vote and the value-of-vote formula \\u2014 and makes no reference to parties.<br>(b) <b>Article 102(1)<\/b> lists disqualifications (office of profit, unsound mind, undischarged insolvency, foreign citizenship, and disqualifications under any law made by Parliament) without mentioning parties; only clause (2), which imports the Tenth Schedule, brings parties in indirectly.<br>(c) <b>Article 324<\/b> vests superintendence, direction and control of elections in the Election Commission but does not speak of political parties; their recognition and registration flow from the <b>Representation of the People Act, 1951 (Section 29A)<\/b> and the Election Symbols Order, 1968.<br><br>Hence option <b>(d)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 62,\r\n    \"year\": \"2019-20\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following constitutional amendments introduced anti-defection laws in India?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"42nd Amendment\",\r\n      \"52nd Amendment\",\r\n      \"73rd Amendment\",\r\n      \"91st Amendment\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The <b>52nd Amendment Act, 1985<\/b> introduced the anti-defection law. It <b>inserted the Tenth Schedule<\/b> and amended <b>Articles 101, 102, 190 and 191<\/b> to provide that a member incurring disqualification under that Schedule vacates his seat.<br><br><b>Grounds of disqualification under paragraph 2:<\/b> voluntarily giving up membership of one's party; voting or abstaining contrary to the party whip without permission or condonation; an independent member joining a party; and a nominated member joining a party after six months.<br><br><b>The 91st Amendment Act, 2003<\/b> strengthened the scheme in three ways:<br>(i) it <b>deleted paragraph 3<\/b>, which had exempted a <b>split<\/b> supported by one-third of the legislature party, leaving <b>merger<\/b> under paragraph 4 (two-thirds) as the only exception;<br>(ii) it inserted <b>Article 75(1B)<\/b> and <b>Article 164(1B)<\/b>, barring a disqualified member from being appointed a Minister or holding any remunerative political post until his term expires or he is re-elected;<br>(iii) it inserted <b>Article 75(1A)<\/b> and <b>164(1A)<\/b>, capping the size of the Council of Ministers at <b>15 per cent<\/b> of the total membership of the House.<br><br>The other options are unrelated: the 42nd Amendment (1976) was the wide-ranging \\\"mini-Constitution\\\" amendment; the 73rd (1992) constitutionalised Panchayati Raj.<br><br>Hence option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 63,\r\n    \"year\": \"2019-20\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"How many readings does a non-Money Bill undergo in both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"One reading\",\r\n      \"Two readings\",\r\n      \"Three readings\",\r\n      \"Four readings\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"A Bill passes through <b>three readings in each House<\/b>:<br><br><b>First reading<\/b> \\u2014 motion for leave to introduce, introduction, and publication in the Gazette. No debate on merits.<br><br><b>Second reading<\/b> \\u2014 the substantive stage, in two parts: (i) <b>general discussion<\/b> on the principles of the Bill, at the end of which the House may take it into consideration, refer it to a Select or Joint Committee, or circulate it for eliciting opinion; and (ii) <b>clause-by-clause consideration<\/b>, when amendments are moved and each clause, schedule, the enacting formula and the title are put to vote.<br><br><b>Third reading<\/b> \\u2014 discussion confined to the motion that <b>the Bill be passed<\/b>; only formal, verbal or consequential amendments are admissible.<br><br>The Bill is then transmitted to the other House, where the same three stages are repeated. Under <b>Article 107(2)<\/b> a Bill is deemed passed by Parliament only when <b>agreed to by both Houses<\/b>, either without amendment or with such amendments only as are agreed to by both; it then goes to the President under <b>Article 111<\/b>.<br><br>The three-reading scheme is prescribed by the <b>Rules of Procedure<\/b> made under Article 118(1), not by the text of the Constitution.<br><br>Hence option <b>(c)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 64,\r\n    \"year\": \"2019-20\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The term 'Vote on Account' is related to:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"General Elections\",\r\n      \"State Budget\",\r\n      \"Interim Budget\",\r\n      \"Local Body Elections\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 116(1)(a)<\/b> empowers the House of the People, notwithstanding anything in Articles 113 to 115, to make <b>any grant in advance<\/b> in respect of the estimated expenditure for a part of any financial year <b>pending the completion of the procedure prescribed in Article 113<\/b> for the voting of such grant and the passing of the law in accordance with Article 114.<br><br><b>Purpose:<\/b> the budget is presented on 1 February but the full appropriation process is not completed before 31 March. Since <b>Article 114(3)<\/b> forbids withdrawal from the Consolidated Fund without an appropriation made by law, a Vote on Account provides the interim legal authority to meet salaries, pensions and other essential expenditure.<br><br><b>Key features:<\/b><br>(i) It is a vote on <b>expenditure alone<\/b>; taxation proposals are not part of it.<br>(ii) It is normally taken for <b>two months<\/b> for a sum equivalent to one-sixth of the total estimate, but may be extended in an election year.<br>(iii) It is passed by the Lok Sabha <b>after the general discussion<\/b> on the budget is over and <b>without any discussion<\/b> on the Vote itself.<br>(iv) An <b>interim budget<\/b> presented before a general election is the political vehicle within which the Vote on Account is taken; the two terms are related but not identical \\u2014 an interim budget may contain the full set of accounts, while the Vote on Account is the enabling grant.<br><br>Hence option <b>(c)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 65,\r\n    \"year\": \"2019-20\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The term 'guillotine' is associated with:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"decision-making process in the Parliament\",\r\n      \"financial procedure in the Parliament\",\r\n      \"removal of a member from the Parliament\",\r\n      \"election of the Presiding Officer in the Parliament\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The <b>guillotine<\/b> is a device of <b>financial procedure<\/b>. The Speaker, in consultation with the Business Advisory Committee, allots a fixed number of days for the discussion of the <b>demands for grants<\/b> under <b>Article 113<\/b>. Only a few Ministries' demands can be discussed in that time. On the <b>last of the allotted days<\/b>, at the appointed hour, the Speaker <b>puts all the outstanding demands to vote forthwith<\/b>, without further debate \\u2014 \\\"guillotining\\\" the discussion.<br><br><b>Why it exists:<\/b> the entire budget must be passed before the financial year begins on 1 April, since <b>Article 114(3)<\/b> bars any withdrawal from the Consolidated Fund of India without an appropriation made by law. The guillotine guarantees that the constitutional timetable is met even though scrutiny is necessarily incomplete \\u2014 a criticism regularly voiced about the diminishing extent of real financial control by the House.<br><br><b>Sequence of the budget process to keep in mind:<\/b> presentation of the annual financial statement (Article 112) \\u2192 general discussion \\u2192 scrutiny by Department-related Standing Committees \\u2192 voting on demands for grants (Article 113, Lok Sabha only, cut motions admissible) \\u2192 guillotine \\u2192 Appropriation Bill (Article 114) \\u2192 Finance Bill (Article 110\/117).<br><br>Hence option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 66,\r\n    \"year\": \"2021-22\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to each state and union territory?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Second Schedule\",\r\n      \"Fourth Schedule\",\r\n      \"Fifth Schedule\",\r\n      \"Eighth Schedule\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 80(2)<\/b> provides that the allocation of seats in the Council of States to be filled by representatives of the States and of the Union territories shall be in accordance with the provisions in that behalf contained in the <b>Fourth Schedule<\/b>.<br><br>The allocation is broadly <b>population-based but not strictly proportional<\/b> \\u2014 smaller States are relatively over-represented \\u2014 in contrast with the American Senate's rule of equal representation. Uttar Pradesh has the largest allocation (31), followed by Maharashtra (19); several small States and Union territories have one seat each. The Fourth Schedule is amended whenever States are reorganised, most recently on the reorganisation of Jammu and Kashmir in 2019.<br><br><b>The distractors:<\/b><br>(a) <b>Second Schedule<\/b> \\u2014 emoluments, allowances and privileges of the President, Governors, Speakers and Deputy Speakers, Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts, and the Comptroller and Auditor General.<br>(c) <b>Fifth Schedule<\/b> \\u2014 administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in States other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.<br>(d) <b>Eighth Schedule<\/b> \\u2014 the 22 languages recognised by the Constitution.<br><br>Hence option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 67,\r\n    \"year\": \"2021-22\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The system of \\\"Proportional Representation by Means of the Single Transferable Vote\\\" is used for the election of:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"President of India\",\r\n      \"Members of the Lok Sabha\",\r\n      \"Members of the Rajya Sabha\",\r\n      \"Members of the Legislative Councils\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 80(4)<\/b> \\u2014 the representatives of each State in the Council of States shall be elected by the <b>elected members<\/b> of the Legislative Assembly of the State in accordance with the system of <b>proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote<\/b>. Voting is by <b>open ballot<\/b> since 2003 (Rajya Sabha elections), a change upheld in <i>Kuldip Nayar v. Union of India (2006)<\/i> as a measure against cross-voting.<br><br><b>Why the House of the People is different:<\/b> members of the Lok Sabha are elected by direct election from territorial constituencies on the <b>first-past-the-post<\/b> system under <b>Article 81<\/b> read with <b>Article 326<\/b> (adult suffrage).<br><br><b>A caution on the other options:<\/b> the single transferable vote is also used for the President under <b>Article 55(3)<\/b>, for the Vice-President under <b>Article 66(1)<\/b>, and for the elected component of the State Legislative Councils under <b>Article 171(4)<\/b>. The question is therefore imprecisely framed; the key treats the Rajya Sabha as the intended answer, presumably because Article 80(4) uses the exact phrase quoted and because the President's election is described as proportional representation by single transferable vote in a differently worded formulation.<br><br>Hence option <b>(c)<\/b> as per the marked key.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 68,\r\n    \"year\": \"2021-22\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The President of India can dissolve the Lok Sabha on the advice of the:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Council of Ministers\",\r\n      \"Chief Justice of India\",\r\n      \"Speaker of Lok Sabha\",\r\n      \"Election Commission of India\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 85(2)(b)<\/b> confers on the President the power to <b>dissolve the House of the People<\/b>. Like almost all of the President's functions, it is exercised on the <b>aid and advice of the Council of Ministers<\/b> under <b>Article 74(1)<\/b>, which since the <b>42nd Amendment Act, 1976<\/b> makes the advice binding, and since the <b>44th Amendment Act, 1978<\/b> permits the President to require reconsideration once, after which he <b>shall act<\/b> in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration.<br><br><b>Two situations to distinguish:<\/b><br>(i) Where the Government commands a majority, the advice to dissolve is binding as a matter of settled convention.<br>(ii) Where the Council of Ministers has <b>lost its majority<\/b> or is a caretaker Government, the President is generally regarded as having a measure of discretion \\u2014 he may first explore whether an alternative Government can be formed, as recommended by the Sarkaria Commission.<br><br>None of the other authorities has any role: the Chief Justice is concerned only with the President's oath (Article 60) and judicial functions; the Speaker's powers relate to the internal proceedings of the House; the Election Commission's function under Article 324 begins <b>after<\/b> dissolution, with the conduct of the general election.<br><br>Hence option <b>(a)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 69,\r\n    \"year\": \"2021-22\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Who among the following has the power to summon a joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament in India?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"President of India\",\r\n      \"Prime Minister of India\",\r\n      \"Minister of Home Affairs of India\",\r\n      \"Vice President of India\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 108(1)<\/b> \\u2014 where a deadlock arises over an ordinary Bill, the <b>President<\/b> may <b>notify his intention<\/b> to summon the Houses to meet in a joint sitting and may thereafter <b>summon<\/b> them accordingly. The power is exercised on ministerial advice under Article 74(1).<br><br><b>The three grounds for a joint sitting:<\/b> (a) rejection of the Bill by the other House; (b) final disagreement as to amendments; (c) lapse of more than <b>six months<\/b> from the reception of the Bill by the other House without its being passed.<br><br><b>Who presides:<\/b> not the President but the <b>Speaker of the House of the People<\/b>, under <b>Article 118(4)<\/b>; in his absence the Deputy Speaker, then the Deputy Chairman of the Council of States, then such other member as may be determined by the sitting. The Chairman of the Council of States never presides.<br><br><b>Majority required:<\/b> a majority of the total number of members of both Houses <b>present and voting<\/b> (Article 108(4)).<br><br><b>Exclusions:<\/b> Money Bills (proviso to Article 108(1)) and Constitutional Amendment Bills (Article 368).<br><br><b>Instances:<\/b> only three \\u2014 Dowry Prohibition Bill (1961), Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill (1978) and Prevention of Terrorism Bill (2002).<br><br>Hence option <b>(a)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 70,\r\n    \"year\": \"2023\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"While the proclamation of Emergency is in operation, the term of Lok Sabha may be extended at a time for a period not exceeding:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"2.5 years\",\r\n      \"1 year\",\r\n      \"1.5 years\",\r\n      \"Depends on the discretion of the President of India\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 83(2)<\/b> fixes the normal term of the House of the People at <b>five years<\/b> from the date appointed for its first meeting, and provides that the expiration of that period operates as a dissolution of the House.<br><br>The <b>proviso<\/b> adds that the said period may, <b>while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation<\/b>, be extended by Parliament <b>by law<\/b> for a period <b>not exceeding one year at a time<\/b>, and <b>not extending in any case beyond a period of six months after the Proclamation has ceased to operate<\/b>.<br><br>Three points of emphasis:<br>(i) The extension is effected by a <b>law made by Parliament<\/b> \\u2014 not by the President's discretion, which is why option (d) is wrong.<br>(ii) The extension is <b>one year at a time<\/b>, and may be repeated so long as the Emergency continues.<br>(iii) The <b>six-month outer limit<\/b> after the Emergency ends is an absolute cap.<br><br><b>Historical instance:<\/b> the term of the Fifth Lok Sabha (1971\\u20131977) was extended twice during the Emergency proclaimed in 1975, taking its life to nearly six years \\u2014 the abuse that prompted the safeguards introduced by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978.<br><br>Hence option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 71,\r\n    \"year\": \"2023\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which of the following represents the disapproval of the policy underlying the demand?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Policy Cut Motion\",\r\n      \"Economy Cut Motion\",\r\n      \"Token Cut Motion\",\r\n      \"Trade Cut Motion\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Cut motions<\/b> are moved at the stage of voting on the <b>demands for grants<\/b> under <b>Article 113(2)<\/b>, and can be moved only in the <b>House of the People<\/b>. Under Article 113(2) the House has power to assent, or to refuse to assent, to any demand, or to assent subject to a <b>reduction of the amount<\/b> specified \\u2014 which is the constitutional basis of the cut motion. There are three kinds:<br><br><b>1. Policy Cut \\u2014 the answer.<\/b> The demand is reduced to <b>Re 1<\/b>, signifying <b>disapproval of the policy underlying the demand<\/b>. The mover must indicate in precise terms the particulars of the policy he proposes to discuss, and may advocate an alternative policy.<br><br><b>2. Economy Cut.<\/b> The demand is reduced by a <b>specified amount<\/b>, representing the economy that can be effected. The saving may relate either to a lump sum reduction or to the omission or reduction of an item.<br><br><b>3. Token Cut.<\/b> The demand is reduced by <b>Rs 100<\/b> in order to ventilate a <b>specific grievance<\/b> within the sphere of responsibility of the Government of India. The discussion is confined to that grievance.<br><br>There is <b>no such device as a Trade Cut<\/b>. Note that cut motions are almost never carried, since their acceptance would amount to a vote of no confidence in the Government.<br><br>Hence option <b>(a)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 72,\r\n    \"year\": \"2024\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India includes the provision regarding the anti-defection law?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Sixth Schedule\",\r\n      \"Seventh Schedule\",\r\n      \"Tenth Schedule\",\r\n      \"Eleventh Schedule\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The <b>Tenth Schedule<\/b> \\u2014 headed <i>Provisions as to disqualification on ground of defection<\/i> \\u2014 was inserted by the <b>52nd Amendment Act, 1985<\/b> and is attracted by <b>Article 102(2)<\/b> for Parliament and <b>Article 191(2)<\/b> for State Legislatures.<br><br><b>Its scheme:<\/b> paragraph 1 defines the terms; paragraph 2 lays down the grounds of disqualification (voluntarily giving up party membership; voting or abstaining against the whip; an independent joining a party; a nominated member joining a party after six months); paragraph 4 saves a <b>merger<\/b> agreed to by not less than two-thirds of the legislature party; paragraph 5 exempts the Speaker, Deputy Speaker, Chairman and Deputy Chairman; paragraph 6 vests the decision in the presiding officer; paragraph 8 empowers him to make rules. <b>Paragraph 3<\/b> (the split exception) was deleted by the 91st Amendment Act, 2003, and <b>paragraph 7<\/b> was struck down in <i>Kihoto Hollohan (1992)<\/i>.<br><br><b>The distractors:<\/b><br>(a) <b>Sixth Schedule<\/b> \\u2014 administration of tribal areas in <b>Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram<\/b> through Autonomous District and Regional Councils.<br>(b) <b>Seventh Schedule<\/b> \\u2014 the Union, State and Concurrent Lists (Article 246).<br>(d) <b>Eleventh Schedule<\/b> \\u2014 the 29 subjects devolved on Panchayats (Article 243G), added by the 73rd Amendment.<br><br>Hence option <b>(c)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 73,\r\n    \"year\": \"2024\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. The term 'budget' has nowhere been used in the Constitution\\n2. Article 112 of the Constitution of India deals with the budget\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"Both 1 and 2\",\r\n      \"Neither 1 nor 2\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement 1 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> The word <b>\\\"budget\\\"<\/b> appears <b>nowhere<\/b> in the text of the Constitution. It is a term of parliamentary and administrative usage only.<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 112(1)<\/b> \\u2014 the President shall in respect of every financial year cause to be laid before both Houses of Parliament a statement of the <b>estimated receipts and expenditure<\/b> of the Government of India for that year, referred to in the Constitution as the <b>\\\"annual financial statement\\\"<\/b>. That statement is what is popularly called the budget; the two statements are therefore not in conflict.<br><br><b>Further detail in Article 112:<\/b><br>(i) Clause (2) requires the estimates of expenditure to distinguish <b>expenditure charged<\/b> on the Consolidated Fund of India from <b>other expenditure<\/b>, and to distinguish <b>revenue account<\/b> expenditure from other expenditure.<br>(ii) Clause (3) enumerates the <b>charged<\/b> items \\u2014 the emoluments of the President; salaries of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman, Speaker and Deputy Speaker; debt charges; salaries, allowances and pensions of Judges of the Supreme Court and pensions of High Court Judges; the salary, allowances and pension of the Comptroller and Auditor General; sums required to satisfy court decrees or arbitral awards; and any other expenditure declared charged by the Constitution or by Parliament by law.<br><br>Charged expenditure is <b>not submitted to the vote<\/b> of Parliament, though it may be discussed (Article 113(1)).<br><br>Hence both \\u2014 option <b>(c)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 74,\r\n    \"year\": \"2024\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following is not charged on the Consolidated Fund of India?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Salary of CAG\",\r\n      \"Grants for Railways\",\r\n      \"Administrative expenses of the Supreme Court\",\r\n      \"Pensions of the judges of High Courts\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 112(3)<\/b> exhaustively lists the expenditure <b>charged<\/b> on the Consolidated Fund of India \\u2014 that is, expenditure which is <b>not submitted to the vote<\/b> of Parliament, though it may be discussed in either House (Article 113(1)). The list includes:<br><b>(a)<\/b> the emoluments and allowances of the President and other expenditure relating to his office;<br><b>(b)<\/b> the salaries and allowances of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Council of States and the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of the People;<br><b>(c)<\/b> <b>debt charges<\/b> for which the Government of India is liable, including interest, sinking fund charges and redemption charges;<br><b>(d)<\/b> (i) the salaries, allowances and pensions of the <b>Judges of the Supreme Court<\/b>; (ii) the <b>pensions of Judges of the Federal Court<\/b>; (iii) the <b>pensions of Judges of High Courts<\/b>;<br><b>(e)<\/b> the salary, allowances and pension of the <b>Comptroller and Auditor General<\/b>;<br><b>(f)<\/b> any sums required to satisfy a <b>judgment, decree or award<\/b> of any court or arbitral tribunal;<br><b>(g)<\/b> any other expenditure declared charged by the Constitution or by Parliament by law \\u2014 which is how the <b>administrative expenses of the Supreme Court<\/b> (Article 146(3)) are charged.<br><br><b>Grants for Railways<\/b> appear nowhere in this list. They are <b>voted<\/b> expenditure, submitted to the House of the People as <b>demands for grants<\/b> under <b>Article 113(2)<\/b>.<br><br>Hence option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 75,\r\n    \"year\": \"2024\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Supplementary Grant \\u2013 Granted for a special purpose\",\r\n      \"Excess Grant \\u2013 Voted by the Lok Sabha after the financial year\",\r\n      \"Vote of Credit \\u2013 Funds can be made available by re-appropriation\",\r\n      \"Token Grant \\u2013 Blank cheque\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Why (b) is correctly matched:<\/b> An <b>Excess Grant<\/b> under <b>Article 115(1)(b)<\/b> is made when money has been <b>spent on any service during a financial year in excess<\/b> of the amount granted for that service for that year. It is voted by the House of the People <b>after the close of the financial year<\/b>, and \\u2014 critically \\u2014 it must first be <b>examined and recommended by the Public Accounts Committee<\/b>, which is why it is treated as a regularisation of past over-expenditure rather than a fresh grant.<br><br><b>Why the others are wrongly matched:<\/b><br>(a) A <b>Supplementary Grant<\/b> under <b>Article 115(1)(a)<\/b> is made when the amount authorised for a service for the current year is found to be <b>insufficient<\/b>. A grant for a <b>new service not contemplated<\/b> in the annual financial statement is an <b>Additional Grant<\/b>, also under Article 115(1)(a); \\\"special purpose\\\" more nearly describes an <b>Exceptional Grant<\/b> under <b>Article 116(1)(c)<\/b>, which forms no part of the current service of any financial year.<br>(c) A <b>Vote of Credit<\/b> under <b>Article 116(1)(b)<\/b> is granted to meet an <b>unexpected demand upon the resources of India<\/b> when, on account of the magnitude or indefinite character of the service, the demand cannot be stated with the detail ordinarily given in an annual financial statement. It is precisely this that is described as a <b>\\\"blank cheque\\\"<\/b>. It is not a matter of re-appropriation.<br>(d) A <b>Token Grant<\/b> is voted when funds for a new service can be met by <b>re-appropriation<\/b>; a token sum of Re 1 is voted to obtain the House's approval.<br><br>Hence option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 76,\r\n    \"year\": \"2025\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India deals with the salaries and allowances of Members of either House of Parliament?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 107\",\r\n      \"Article 106\",\r\n      \"Article 105\",\r\n      \"Article 108\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 106<\/b> \\u2014 members of either House of Parliament shall be entitled to receive such <b>salaries and allowances<\/b> as may from time to time be determined by <b>Parliament by law<\/b>, and until so determined, such allowances as were payable to members of the Constituent Assembly of the Dominion of India.<br><br><b>The implementing law<\/b> is the <b>Salary, Allowances and Pension of Members of Parliament Act, 1954<\/b>, under which a member draws salary from the <b>date of election<\/b>, together with a constituency allowance, office expense allowance, daily allowance for days of attendance, and travel and housing entitlements.<br><br><b>An important contrast:<\/b> the salaries and allowances of members are <b>voted<\/b> expenditure, not charged. It is the salaries and allowances of the <b>Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Council of States and the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of the People<\/b> that are, under <b>Article 97<\/b> read with <b>Article 112(3)(b)<\/b>, <b>charged on the Consolidated Fund of India<\/b> \\u2014 a device to insulate the presiding officers from executive or partisan pressure.<br><br><b>The neighbouring Articles:<\/b> Article 105 \\u2014 powers, privileges and immunities; Article 107 \\u2014 provisions as to introduction and passing of Bills; Article 108 \\u2014 joint sitting.<br><br>Hence option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 77,\r\n    \"year\": \"2021-22\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Legislative Powers of the President (Article 123)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The President of India can promulgate an ordinance when:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"both Houses of Parliament are in session\",\r\n      \"there is a financial emergency\",\r\n      \"there is a State emergency\",\r\n      \"both Houses of Parliament are not in session\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 123(1)<\/b> \\u2014 if at any time, except when both Houses of Parliament are in session, the President is satisfied that <b>circumstances exist which render it necessary for him to take immediate action<\/b>, he may promulgate such Ordinances as the circumstances appear to him to require.<br><br><b>Conditions:<\/b><br>(i) <b>Both Houses must not be in session.<\/b> It is enough that one House is not sitting; but if <b>both<\/b> are in session, no Ordinance can issue.<br>(ii) There must be <b>satisfaction as to the necessity of immediate action<\/b>, exercised on the advice of the Council of Ministers under Article 74(1).<br><br><b>Effect and duration:<\/b> an Ordinance has the <b>same force and effect as an Act of Parliament<\/b> (Article 123(2)), and is subject to the same limitations \\u2014 it cannot be made on a matter outside Parliament's legislative competence and cannot abridge Fundamental Rights. Under <b>Article 123(2)(a)<\/b> it must be <b>laid before both Houses<\/b> and <b>ceases to operate at the expiry of six weeks from the reassembly of Parliament<\/b>, or earlier if resolutions disapproving it are passed by both Houses. Counting from the later date of reassembly where the two Houses reassemble on different days, the maximum life is about <b>six months and six weeks<\/b>. Under Article 123(2)(b) the President may withdraw it at any time.<br><br><b>Judicial control:<\/b> in <i>D. C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar (1987)<\/i> the Supreme Court condemned the <b>re-promulgation<\/b> of Ordinances as a fraud on the Constitution, and in <i>Krishna Kumar Singh v. State of Bihar (2017)<\/i> a seven-Judge Bench held that laying before the legislature is <b>mandatory<\/b> and that the satisfaction of the President is subject to judicial review.<br><br>Hence option <b>(d)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 78,\r\n    \"year\": \"2009-11\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one among the following statements about the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India is correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"It settles disputes between Union and States only and not amongst States\",\r\n      \"It tries appeals from lower courts in constitutional cases only, not in civil and criminal cases\",\r\n      \"It can grant special leave to appeal from any judgment passed by any court in the territory of India\",\r\n      \"It advises the President and all Governors of States on matters of public importance and law\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Why (c) is correct:<\/b> <b>Article 136(1)<\/b> \\u2014 the Supreme Court may, <b>in its discretion<\/b>, grant <b>special leave to appeal<\/b> from any judgment, decree, determination, sentence or order in any cause or matter passed or made by <b>any court or tribunal<\/b> in the territory of India. It is the widest of the Court's appellate powers, an extraordinary residuary jurisdiction not confined by subject matter or by any certificate from the court below. The only exclusion is in <b>Article 136(2)<\/b> \\u2014 courts or tribunals constituted under any law relating to the <b>Armed Forces<\/b>.<br><br><b>Why (a) is wrong:<\/b> <b>Article 131<\/b> confers <b>exclusive original jurisdiction<\/b> in disputes (i) between the Government of India and one or more States, (ii) between the Government of India and any State on one side and one or more other States on the other, and (iii) <b>between two or more States<\/b> \\u2014 provided the dispute involves a question on which the existence or extent of a <b>legal right<\/b> depends.<br><br><b>Why (b) is wrong:<\/b> The appellate jurisdiction covers <b>constitutional<\/b> matters (Article 132), <b>civil<\/b> matters (Article 133) and <b>criminal<\/b> matters (Article 134), besides Article 136 and enlargement of criminal appellate jurisdiction by Parliament under Article 134A\/134(2).<br><br><b>Why (d) is wrong:<\/b> The advisory jurisdiction under <b>Article 143<\/b> may be invoked by the <b>President alone<\/b>; Governors have no such power.<br><br>Hence option <b>(c)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 79,\r\n    \"year\": \"2012-13\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which of the following statements is correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"All authorities, civil and judicial, in the territory of India shall act in aid of the Supreme Court\",\r\n      \"When the President of India makes a reference to the Supreme Court a question for its consideration, the Court shall, after hearing it, report to the President its opinion thereon\",\r\n      \"On questions of disqualification of a Member of either House of the Parliament, the decision shall be given by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India\",\r\n      \"A Bill pending in the Parliament shall lapse by reason of the prorogation of the Houses\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Why (a) is correct:<\/b> It reproduces <b>Article 144<\/b> \\u2014 <i>all authorities, civil and judicial, in the territory of India shall act in aid of the Supreme Court<\/i>. Read with <b>Article 141<\/b> (law declared by the Supreme Court binding on all courts) and <b>Article 142<\/b> (power to pass decrees for doing complete justice, enforceable throughout India), it secures the effectiveness of the Court's orders.<br><br><b>Why (b) is wrong:<\/b> The word is <b>\\\"may\\\"<\/b>, not \\\"shall\\\". Under <b>Article 143(1)<\/b> the Court <b>may<\/b>, after such hearing as it thinks fit, report its opinion to the President \\u2014 and it has on occasion <b>declined<\/b> to answer, notably in the <b>Ayodhya Reference (1993)<\/b>, <i>Dr. M. Ismail Faruqui<\/i>. The obligation is mandatory only under <b>Article 143(2)<\/b>, which relates to disputes arising out of pre-Constitution treaties and agreements, where the Court <b>shall<\/b> report its opinion.<br><br><b>Why (c) is wrong:<\/b> <b>Article 103(2)<\/b> requires the President, before giving his decision on a question of disqualification under Article 102(1), to obtain the <b>opinion of the Election Commission<\/b> and to act according to it \\u2014 not to consult the Chief Justice.<br><br><b>Why (d) is wrong:<\/b> <b>Article 107(3)<\/b> \\u2014 a Bill pending in Parliament shall <b>not lapse<\/b> by reason of the prorogation of the Houses.<br><br>Hence option <b>(a)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 80,\r\n    \"year\": \"2014\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"121st Constitutional Amendment Bill seeks to:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"set up the Judicial Appointments Commission\",\r\n      \"set up an OBC Commission\",\r\n      \"confer constitutional status to Lok Pal\",\r\n      \"set up a commission to enquire into atrocities against women\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The <b>Constitution (121st Amendment) Bill, 2014<\/b> was enacted as the <b>99th Amendment Act, 2014<\/b> and inserted <b>Articles 124A, 124B and 124C<\/b> to establish the <b>National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC)<\/b>, replacing the collegium system.<br><br><b>Composition under Article 124A:<\/b> the <b>Chief Justice of India<\/b> (Chairperson), the <b>two other senior-most Judges<\/b> of the Supreme Court, the <b>Union Minister of Law and Justice<\/b>, and <b>two eminent persons<\/b> nominated by a committee consisting of the Prime Minister, the Chief Justice of India and the Leader of the Opposition in the House of the People (one of the two eminent persons to be from among SC, ST, OBC, minorities or women). Any <b>two members<\/b> could veto a recommendation.<br><br><b>Article 124B<\/b> set out the Commission's functions \\u2014 recommending appointments of the Chief Justice of India, Judges of the Supreme Court, and Chief Justices and Judges of High Courts, and transfers of High Court Judges. <b>Article 124C<\/b> empowered Parliament to regulate the procedure by law, resulting in the NJAC Act, 2014.<br><br><b>Fate:<\/b> In <i>Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India (2015)<\/i>, a five-Judge Bench struck down both the 99th Amendment and the NJAC Act by 4:1, holding that they impaired the <b>independence of the judiciary<\/b> and the <b>primacy of the judicial voice<\/b> in appointments, both part of the <b>basic structure<\/b>. The collegium system stood revived.<br><br>Hence option <b>(a)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 81,\r\n    \"year\": \"2015\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"A High Court has power to:\\n1. enforce Fundamental Rights\\n2. decide disputes between States\\n3. enforce other legal rights\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement 1 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 226(1)<\/b> empowers every High Court to issue to any person or authority, including in appropriate cases any Government, within its territorial jurisdiction, directions, orders or writs \\u2014 <b>habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari<\/b> \\u2014 for the <b>enforcement of any of the rights conferred by Part III<\/b>.<br><br><b>Statement 3 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> The same clause continues: <b>\\\"and for any other purpose\\\"<\/b>. The writ jurisdiction of a High Court is therefore <b>wider<\/b> than that of the Supreme Court under <b>Article 32<\/b>, which is confined to the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. Article 226(2) further extends the jurisdiction to cases where the cause of action arises wholly or in part within the High Court's territory, even if the authority is outside it.<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> Disputes between States fall within the <b>exclusive original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court<\/b> under <b>Article 131<\/b>, which no High Court can exercise. (Even the Supreme Court's jurisdiction here is subject to exclusions \\u2014 Article 131's proviso for pre-Constitution treaties, and Article 262 for inter-State river water disputes, which Parliament has taken outside all courts by the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956.)<br><br>Hence 1 and 3 only \\u2014 option <b>(c)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 82,\r\n    \"year\": \"2016-17\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The Supreme Court of India has no power to grant special leave to appeal against:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"the decisions of the National Green Tribunal\",\r\n      \"the decisions of the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission\",\r\n      \"against the decisions of all those tribunals for which appeal is provided under the Legislation\",\r\n      \"any judgment passed by any Court or tribunal constituted by or under any law relating to the armed forces\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 136(2)<\/b> is the sole exception to the Court's special leave jurisdiction: <i>nothing in clause (1) shall apply to any judgment, determination, sentence or order passed or made by any court or tribunal constituted by or under any law relating to the <b>Armed Forces<\/b><\/i>.<br><br>The exclusion covers courts-martial and tribunals under the Army Act, 1950, the Navy Act, 1957 and the Air Force Act, 1950. Note, however, that <b>Article 227(4)<\/b> similarly excludes such tribunals from the superintendence of High Courts, while an appeal to the Supreme Court from the <b>Armed Forces Tribunal<\/b> lies under <b>Section 31 of the Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007<\/b> on a point of law of general public importance \\u2014 a statutory, not an Article 136, route.<br><br><b>Why the others are wrong:<\/b> the special leave power under Article 136(1) extends to <b>any<\/b> court or tribunal in the territory of India, so decisions of the <b>National Green Tribunal<\/b> and the <b>National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission<\/b> are amenable to it; and the existence of a statutory appeal (option c) does not oust Article 136, though the Court will ordinarily require the statutory remedy to be exhausted first.<br><br>The power under Article 136 is <b>discretionary<\/b> and <b>plenary<\/b>, exercised sparingly and only where a substantial question of law or gross injustice is shown (<i>Pritam Singh v. State, 1950<\/i>).<br><br>Hence option <b>(d)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 83,\r\n    \"year\": \"2018\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Supreme Court Rules, 2013 replacing the 1966 Rules have been framed under which Article of the Constitution of India?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 145\",\r\n      \"Article 144\",\r\n      \"Article 143\",\r\n      \"Article 142\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 145(1)<\/b> \\u2014 subject to the provisions of any law made by Parliament, the Supreme Court may from time to time, <b>with the approval of the President<\/b>, make rules for regulating generally the <b>practice and procedure<\/b> of the Court. The <b>Supreme Court Rules, 2013<\/b> were framed under this power and came into force on 19 August 2014, superseding the Supreme Court Rules, 1966.<br><br><b>The scope of Article 145(1)<\/b> includes rules as to persons practising before the Court, the procedure for appeals, the enforcement of Part III rights, the entertainment of appeals under Article 134(1)(c), review proceedings, costs, bail, stay of proceedings, and summary determination of frivolous appeals.<br><br><b>Other clauses worth noting:<\/b> Article 145(3) requires a minimum of <b>five Judges<\/b> for a case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution or a reference under Article 143; Article 145(4) requires judgments to be delivered in <b>open court<\/b>; Article 145(5) permits dissenting judgments.<br><br><b>The distractors:<\/b> Article 142 \\u2014 enforcement of decrees and orders and power to do <b>complete justice<\/b>; Article 143 \\u2014 <b>advisory jurisdiction<\/b> on Presidential reference; Article 144 \\u2014 all civil and judicial authorities to <b>act in aid<\/b> of the Supreme Court.<br><br>Hence option <b>(a)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 84,\r\n    \"year\": \"2019-20\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following statements is not correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The President of India appoints the judges of the Supreme Court in accordance with the provisions of Article 124 of the Constitution of India\",\r\n      \"The President of India appoints the judges of the Supreme Court on the basis of the recommendations of the collegium\",\r\n      \"The President of India appoints the Chief Justice of India on the basis of the recommendations of the collegium\",\r\n      \"The number of judges in the collegium for recommending appointment of judges in the Supreme Court and High Courts is not the same\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The statement that is <b>not correct<\/b> is option (c).<br><br><b>Why (c) is wrong:<\/b> The <b>Chief Justice of India<\/b> is not recommended by a collegium. Under <b>Article 124(2)<\/b> he is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal, and by <b>settled convention<\/b> \\u2014 codified in the <b>Memorandum of Procedure<\/b> \\u2014 the <b>outgoing Chief Justice<\/b> recommends his successor, who is the <b>senior-most Judge<\/b> of the Supreme Court considered fit to hold the office. The seniority convention was departed from in 1973 (appointment of Justice A. N. Ray superseding three senior Judges) and in 1977 (Justice M. H. Beg), episodes that led to its firm re-entrenchment after the Second Judges case.<br><br><b>Why the others are correct:<\/b><br>(a) Appointments are made under <b>Article 124(2)<\/b>, which requires consultation with such Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts as the President may deem necessary.<br>(b) Since the <b>Second Judges Case (1993)<\/b> and the <b>Third Judges Case (1998)<\/b>, \\\"consultation\\\" has been read to mean <b>concurrence<\/b>, and appointments are made on the recommendation of the <b>collegium<\/b>.<br>(d) The collegium for <b>Supreme Court<\/b> appointments consists of the <b>Chief Justice of India and the four senior-most Judges<\/b>; that for <b>High Court<\/b> appointments consists of the <b>Chief Justice and the two senior-most Judges<\/b>. The numbers therefore differ.<br><br>Hence option <b>(c)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 85,\r\n    \"year\": \"2021-22\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India provides for the establishment of a National Judicial Appointments Commission?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 124A\",\r\n      \"Article 124C\",\r\n      \"Article 124B\",\r\n      \"Article 124\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 124A<\/b>, inserted by the <b>99th Amendment Act, 2014<\/b>, <b>constituted<\/b> the National Judicial Appointments Commission and specified its <b>composition<\/b> \\u2014 the Chief Justice of India as Chairperson <i>ex officio<\/i>, the two next senior-most Judges of the Supreme Court, the Union Minister of Law and Justice, and two eminent persons nominated by a committee of the Prime Minister, the Chief Justice of India and the Leader of the Opposition (or the leader of the single largest opposition party) in the House of the People.<br><br><b>The companion provisions:<\/b><br><b>Article 124B<\/b> \\u2014 the <b>duties<\/b> of the Commission: to recommend persons for appointment as Chief Justice of India, Judges of the Supreme Court, Chief Justices and other Judges of High Courts; to recommend transfers of Chief Justices and Judges of High Courts; and to ensure that the person recommended is of ability and integrity.<br><b>Article 124C<\/b> \\u2014 power of <b>Parliament by law<\/b> to regulate the procedure of the Commission and to empower it to lay down its own procedure by regulations.<br><br>All three Articles, together with the consequential amendments to Articles 127, 128, 217, 222, 224, 224A and 231 and the NJAC Act, 2014, were <b>struck down<\/b> in <i>Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India (2015)<\/i>.<br><br>Hence option <b>(a)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 86,\r\n    \"year\": \"2021-22\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The Supreme Court of India has the power to review its own judgments under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 129\",\r\n      \"Article 137\",\r\n      \"Article 141\",\r\n      \"Article 142\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 137<\/b> \\u2014 subject to the provisions of any law made by Parliament or any rules made under <b>Article 145<\/b>, the Supreme Court shall have power to <b>review any judgment pronounced or order made by it<\/b>.<br><br><b>How the power is exercised:<\/b> Order XLVII of the Supreme Court Rules, 2013 provides that a review petition must ordinarily be filed within <b>thirty days<\/b>, is circulated to the same Bench, and is decided <b>by circulation without oral arguments<\/b> in civil matters; in criminal matters review lies only on the ground of an error apparent on the face of the record. In death sentence cases, <i>Mohd. Arif v. Registrar, Supreme Court (2014)<\/i> mandated oral hearing before a Bench of three Judges. If review fails, a <b>curative petition<\/b> may still lie under the doctrine laid down in <i>Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra (2002)<\/i>.<br><br><b>The distractors:<\/b><br><b>Article 129<\/b> \\u2014 the Supreme Court shall be a <b>court of record<\/b> with power to punish for contempt of itself.<br><b>Article 141<\/b> \\u2014 the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be <b>binding on all courts<\/b> within the territory of India; the Court is not bound by its own decisions.<br><b>Article 142<\/b> \\u2014 power to pass such decree or order as is necessary for doing <b>complete justice<\/b> in any cause or matter pending before it, and power as to discovery, production of documents and investigation or punishment of contempt.<br><br>Hence option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 87,\r\n    \"year\": \"2021-22\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. The main sources of law in India are the Constitution, Statutes (Legislations), Customary Law, and Case Law\\n2. Decisions of the Supreme Court are not binding in all courts within the territory of India\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"Both 1 and 2\",\r\n      \"Neither 1 nor 2\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement 1 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> The recognised sources of Indian law are:<br>(i) the <b>Constitution<\/b>, the supreme law from which all other law derives validity;<br>(ii) <b>statutes or legislation<\/b> enacted by Parliament and State Legislatures, together with subordinate legislation;<br>(iii) <b>customary law<\/b>, where the custom is ancient, certain, reasonable, continuously observed and not opposed to public policy \\u2014 significant especially in personal law and tribal law;<br>(iv) <b>case law or judicial precedent<\/b>, the body of principles laid down by the courts.<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> <b>Article 141<\/b> is explicit: the <b>law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India<\/b>. Only the <i>ratio decidendi<\/i> binds; <i>obiter dicta<\/i> are persuasive. Two qualifications complete the picture: (i) the Supreme Court is <b>not bound by its own decisions<\/b>, and may depart from them through a <b>larger Bench<\/b>; (ii) \\\"all courts\\\" has been held not to include the Supreme Court itself (<i>Bengal Immunity Co. v. State of Bihar, 1955<\/i>).<br><br>Hence 1 only \\u2014 option <b>(a)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 88,\r\n    \"year\": \"2021-22\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India allows the President to seek advice from the Supreme Court on any matter of public importance?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 139\",\r\n      \"Article 143\",\r\n      \"Article 148\",\r\n      \"Article 150\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 143(1)<\/b> \\u2014 if at any time it appears to the President that a <b>question of law or fact<\/b> has arisen, or is likely to arise, which is of such nature and of such <b>public importance<\/b> that it is expedient to obtain the opinion of the Supreme Court, he may refer the question to that Court, which <b>may<\/b>, after such hearing as it thinks fit, report to the President its opinion thereon.<br><br><b>Key features:<\/b><br>(i) The opinion is <b>advisory and not binding<\/b>, and is not a \\\"law declared\\\" under Article 141 in the strict sense, though it carries great weight.<br>(ii) The Court has a <b>discretion to decline<\/b> to answer under clause (1) \\u2014 exercised in the <b>Ayodhya Reference (1993)<\/b>, where the question whether a temple existed at the disputed site was returned unanswered as favouring one religious community and being unnecessary.<br>(iii) Under <b>Article 143(2)<\/b>, in respect of disputes arising out of <b>pre-Constitution treaties, agreements, covenants and sanads<\/b> excluded from Article 131 by its proviso, the Court <b>shall<\/b> report its opinion \\u2014 the obligation there is mandatory.<br>(iv) A reference is heard by a Bench of at least <b>five Judges<\/b> under Article 145(3). Notable references include the Delhi Laws Act (1951), Kerala Education Bill (1958), Berubari Union (1960), Presidential Poll (1974), Special Courts Bill (1978), Cauvery (1992), Gujarat Assembly Election (2002) and the 2G Spectrum reference (2012).<br><br><b>The distractors:<\/b> Article 139 \\u2014 conferment on the Supreme Court of power to issue certain writs; Article 148 \\u2014 the Comptroller and Auditor General; Article 150 \\u2014 the form of accounts of the Union and States.<br><br>Hence option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 89,\r\n    \"year\": \"2023\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"A motion for the removal of a judge of the High Court should be signed by how many members in case of Rajya Sabha?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"40\",\r\n      \"50\",\r\n      \"60\",\r\n      \"70\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The procedure for removal is regulated by the <b>Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968<\/b>, enacted in exercise of the power in <b>Article 124(5)<\/b> and applied to High Court Judges by <b>Article 218<\/b>.<br><br><b>Notice of motion<\/b> must be signed by:<br><b>\\u2014 not less than 50 members<\/b> in the <b>Council of States<\/b>; or<br><b>\\u2014 not less than 100 members<\/b> in the <b>House of the People<\/b>.<br><br><b>The full sequence:<\/b><br>(i) The presiding officer of the House may <b>admit or refuse<\/b> to admit the motion.<br>(ii) If admitted, he constitutes a <b>three-member inquiry committee<\/b> \\u2014 a Judge of the Supreme Court, a Chief Justice of a High Court, and a distinguished jurist.<br>(iii) The committee frames charges and, if it finds the Judge guilty of <b>proved misbehaviour or incapacity<\/b>, the motion is taken up in the House.<br>(iv) The motion must be carried in <b>each House<\/b> by a majority of the <b>total membership<\/b> of that House <b>and<\/b> by a majority of <b>not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting<\/b> \\u2014 the special majority required by <b>Article 124(4)<\/b>.<br>(v) The Judge is then removed by an <b>order of the President<\/b> passed in the same session.<br><br>No Judge has ever been removed; Justice V. Ramaswami (1993) survived when the motion failed for want of the requisite majority, and Justice Soumitra Sen resigned in 2011 after the Rajya Sabha passed the motion.<br><br>Hence option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 90,\r\n    \"year\": \"2023\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India may be enlarged by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The President of India\",\r\n      \"The Parliament by resolution\",\r\n      \"The Parliament by Law\",\r\n      \"The President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 138(1)<\/b> \\u2014 the Supreme Court shall have such <b>further jurisdiction and powers<\/b> with respect to any of the matters in the <b>Union List<\/b> as <b>Parliament may by law confer<\/b>.<br><br><b>Article 138(2)<\/b> adds a second route: the Supreme Court shall have such further jurisdiction and powers with respect to any matter as the <b>Government of India and the Government of any State<\/b> may by <b>special agreement<\/b> confer, if Parliament by law provides for the exercise of such jurisdiction.<br><br><b>Why the other options fail:<\/b> a mere <b>resolution<\/b> of Parliament has no legislative force and cannot confer jurisdiction; neither the <b>President<\/b> alone nor the President in consultation with the <b>Chief Justice<\/b> has any such power \\u2014 the President's role in relation to the Court is confined to appointments (Article 124(2)), advisory references (Article 143) and approval of rules (Article 145(1)).<br><br><b>Related enlarging provisions:<\/b> <b>Article 139<\/b> \\u2014 Parliament may by law confer on the Supreme Court power to issue writs for purposes other than those in Article 32(2); <b>Article 134(2)<\/b> \\u2014 Parliament may by law enlarge the criminal appellate jurisdiction; <b>Article 140<\/b> \\u2014 Parliament may by law confer supplemental powers not inconsistent with the Constitution.<br><br>Hence option <b>(c)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 91,\r\n    \"year\": \"2025\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India has the provision regarding the appointment of the Acting Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 124\",\r\n      \"Article 126\",\r\n      \"Article 127\",\r\n      \"Article 128\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 126<\/b> \\u2014 when the office of Chief Justice of India is <b>vacant<\/b>, or when the Chief Justice is by reason of <b>absence or otherwise unable to perform the duties<\/b> of his office, the duties shall be performed by <b>such one of the other Judges of the Court as the President may appoint<\/b> for the purpose.<br><br><b>The neighbouring Articles, all frequently confused:<\/b><br><b>Article 124<\/b> \\u2014 establishment and constitution of the Supreme Court: appointment of Judges, qualifications, retirement at <b>65 years<\/b>, oath, and removal for proved misbehaviour or incapacity.<br><b>Article 127<\/b> \\u2014 appointment of <b>ad hoc Judges<\/b>: where there is no quorum of Judges available to hold or continue a session, the Chief Justice of India may, with the previous consent of the President and after consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned, request a Judge of a High Court duly qualified for appointment as a Supreme Court Judge to attend sittings.<br><b>Article 128<\/b> \\u2014 attendance of <b>retired Judges<\/b> at sittings of the Supreme Court: the Chief Justice of India may, with the previous consent of the President and of the person concerned, request a retired Judge of the Supreme Court or of the Federal Court, or a retired High Court Judge duly qualified, to sit and act as a Judge.<br><br>Hence option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 92,\r\n    \"year\": \"2009-11\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Comptroller and Auditor General of India (Articles 148\\u2013151)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which of the following statements about the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India are correct?\\n1. He shall be appointed by the President of India\\n2. He can be removed in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court of India\\n3. He shall perform such duties and exercise such powers in relation to the accounts of the Union only as prescribed by Parliament\\n4. CAG reports are directly submitted to both Houses of Parliament\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement 1 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 148(1)<\/b> \\u2014 there shall be a Comptroller and Auditor General of India who shall be <b>appointed by the President<\/b> by warrant under his hand and seal.<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> The same clause provides that he shall be <b>removed from office only in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court<\/b> \\u2014 that is, by an order of the President after an address by each House supported by a special majority under Article 124(4), on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. His salary and conditions of service are determined by Parliament (Second Schedule), cannot be varied to his disadvantage after appointment (Article 148(4)), and his salary and administrative expenses are <b>charged on the Consolidated Fund of India<\/b> (Article 148(6)). He is ineligible for further office under the Government of India or of any State after ceasing to hold office (Article 148(4)).<br><br><b>Statement 3 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> <b>Article 149<\/b> extends his duties and powers to the accounts of the <b>Union and of the States<\/b> and of <b>any other authority or body<\/b> as may be prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament \\u2014 the governing statute being the <b>CAG's (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971<\/b>. The word \\\"only\\\" in the statement makes it wrong.<br><br><b>Statement 4 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> Under <b>Article 151(1)<\/b> reports relating to the accounts of the Union are submitted to the <b>President<\/b>, who causes them to be laid before <b>each House of Parliament<\/b>; State reports go to the Governor under Article 151(2). The submission is therefore not direct.<br><br>Hence 1 and 2 only \\u2014 option <b>(a)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 93,\r\n    \"year\": \"2014\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Comptroller and Auditor General of India (Articles 148\\u2013151)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following is a constitutional body?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Planning Commission\",\r\n      \"Central Information Commission\",\r\n      \"National Security Council\",\r\n      \"The Comptroller and Auditor General of India\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"A <b>constitutional body<\/b> is one created directly by a provision of the Constitution; a <b>statutory body<\/b> owes its existence to an Act of the legislature; an <b>executive body<\/b> is set up by a resolution or order of the Government.<br><br><b>Why (d) is correct:<\/b> The <b>Comptroller and Auditor General<\/b> is created by <b>Article 148<\/b>, in Chapter V of Part V, and Dr. Ambedkar described the office as the most important under the Constitution. His duties flow from Article 149, the form of accounts from Article 150, and his reports from Article 151.<br><br><b>Why the others are not:<\/b><br>(a) The <b>Planning Commission<\/b> was created by a <b>Cabinet Resolution of 15 March 1950<\/b> \\u2014 a purely executive body; it was replaced by <b>NITI Aayog<\/b> by a Cabinet Resolution of 1 January 2015, also executive.<br>(b) The <b>Central Information Commission<\/b> is a <b>statutory<\/b> body under Section 12 of the <b>Right to Information Act, 2005<\/b>.<br>(c) The <b>National Security Council<\/b> is an <b>executive<\/b> body constituted in 1998.<br><br><b>Other constitutional bodies to remember:<\/b> Election Commission (Article 324), UPSC and State PSCs (Articles 315\\u2013323), Finance Commission (Article 280), Attorney-General (Article 76), Advocate-General (Article 165), Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities (Article 350B), National Commissions for SCs (338), STs (338A) and Backward Classes (338B), and the GST Council (Article 279A).<br><br>Hence option <b>(d)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 94,\r\n    \"year\": \"2019-20\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Comptroller and Auditor General of India (Articles 148\\u2013151)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Who was the first Comptroller and Auditor General of India soon after Indian Independence?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Shri Anil Kumar Chanda\",\r\n      \"Shri S. Ranganathan\",\r\n      \"Shri Girish Chandra Murmu\",\r\n      \"Shri V. Narahari Rao\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Shri V. Narahari Rao<\/b> was the <b>first Comptroller and Auditor General of India<\/b> after Independence, holding office from <b>1948 to 1954<\/b> \\u2014 that is, he took charge before the Constitution came into force and continued as the first CAG under <b>Article 148<\/b> from 26 January 1950.<br><br><b>The lineage of the office:<\/b> it traces back to the <b>Auditor General of India<\/b> under the <b>Government of India Act, 1919<\/b>, whose independence was strengthened by the <b>Government of India Act, 1935<\/b>. The Constitution carried it forward as a full constitutional authority, and the <b>CAG's (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971<\/b> now governs his functions and his term \\u2014 <b>six years or until the age of 65<\/b>, whichever is earlier.<br><br><b>The other names:<\/b> Shri S. Ranganathan was a later holder of the office; <b>Shri Girish Chandra Murmu<\/b> is the CAG appointed in August 2020, formerly Lieutenant Governor of Jammu and Kashmir.<br><br>Hence option <b>(d)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 95,\r\n    \"year\": \"2021-22\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Comptroller and Auditor General of India (Articles 148\\u2013151)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India relating to the accounts of the Union shall be submitted to the:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Prime Minister of India\",\r\n      \"President of India\",\r\n      \"Vice President of India\",\r\n      \"Supreme Court of India\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 151(1)<\/b> \\u2014 the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India relating to the <b>accounts of the Union<\/b> shall be submitted to the <b>President<\/b>, who shall cause them to be <b>laid before each House of Parliament<\/b>.<br><br><b>Article 151(2)<\/b> \\u2014 the reports relating to the accounts of a <b>State<\/b> shall be submitted to the <b>Governor<\/b> of the State, who shall cause them to be laid before the <b>Legislature of the State<\/b>.<br><br><b>What happens next:<\/b> once laid, the reports are examined by the financial committees of Parliament \\u2014 the <b>Public Accounts Committee<\/b> (22 members; 15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha; a Minister cannot be a member; chaired by convention by a member of the Opposition), the <b>Committee on Public Undertakings<\/b>, and, in respect of the demands, the <b>Estimates Committee<\/b> (30 members, all from the Lok Sabha). This is why the CAG is described as the <b>friend, philosopher and guide of the Public Accounts Committee<\/b>.<br><br><b>The three types of Union audit report<\/b> are on <b>appropriation accounts<\/b>, on <b>finance accounts<\/b>, and on <b>public undertakings<\/b>.<br><br>Hence option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 96,\r\n    \"year\": \"2009-11\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one among the following is a constitutional agency?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"National Development Council\",\r\n      \"Planning Commission\",\r\n      \"National Human Rights Commission\",\r\n      \"Inter-State Council\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Why (d) is correct:<\/b> The <b>Inter-State Council<\/b> is provided for by <b>Article 263<\/b>: if at any time it appears to the President that the <b>public interests would be served<\/b> by the establishment of a Council charged with the duty of (a) inquiring into and advising upon disputes between States, (b) investigating and discussing subjects of common interest to the Union and States or to two or more States, and (c) making recommendations for better coordination of policy and action, he may <b>by order<\/b> establish such a Council and define its organisation, procedure and duties.<br><br>Although established by a Presidential Order of <b>1990<\/b>, following the recommendation of the <b>Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State Relations<\/b>, its source is the Constitution itself, which makes it a constitutional body. It is chaired by the <b>Prime Minister<\/b> and includes the Chief Ministers of all States, Chief Ministers of Union territories with legislatures, Administrators of other Union territories, and six Union Ministers of Cabinet rank nominated by the Prime Minister. A <b>Standing Committee<\/b> was set up in 1996.<br><br><b>Why the others are not constitutional:<\/b> the <b>National Development Council<\/b> (1952) and the <b>Planning Commission<\/b> (1950) were both created by <b>executive resolution<\/b>; the <b>National Human Rights Commission<\/b> is a <b>statutory<\/b> body under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.<br><br>Note also that the <b>Zonal Councils<\/b> are statutory, having been created by the <b>States Reorganisation Act, 1956<\/b>.<br><br>Hence option <b>(d)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 97,\r\n    \"year\": \"2009-11\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which of the following statements about the federal system as provided by the Constitution of India are correct?\\n1. Asymmetrical representation of the States in Rajya Sabha\\n2. Division of powers is common to all the States in the Seventh Schedule\\n3. Special provisions for the North-Eastern States only\\n4. Inter-State disputes come under the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1 and 3\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4\",\r\n      \"2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement 1 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> Representation in the Council of States is <b>asymmetrical<\/b>: seats are allotted under <b>Article 80(2)<\/b> read with the <b>Fourth Schedule<\/b> broadly on the basis of population, so Uttar Pradesh has 31 seats while several small States have one. This differs from the United States Senate, where every State has two seats irrespective of size.<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> The division of legislative powers effected by <b>Article 246<\/b> and the <b>Seventh Schedule<\/b> applies <b>uniformly to all States<\/b>; there is no State-specific list.<br><br><b>Statement 3 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> Special provisions under <b>Articles 371 to 371J<\/b> are <b>not confined<\/b> to the north-eastern States. They extend to <b>Maharashtra and Gujarat<\/b> (371), Nagaland (371A), Assam (371B), Manipur (371C), <b>Andhra Pradesh and Telangana<\/b> (371D and 371E), <b>Sikkim<\/b> (371F), Mizoram (371G), Arunachal Pradesh (371H), <b>Goa<\/b> (371I) and <b>Karnataka<\/b> (371J).<br><br><b>Statement 4 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 131<\/b> confers <b>exclusive original jurisdiction<\/b> on the Supreme Court in disputes between the Union and States and between States, where a question of legal right is involved \\u2014 a classic federal umpire function. (Inter-State <b>river water<\/b> disputes are, however, excluded by <b>Article 262<\/b> read with the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956.)<br><br>Hence 1, 2 and 4 \\u2014 option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 98,\r\n    \"year\": \"2012-13\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"What rule is applied by the courts in India to determine whether a particular enactment falls under an entry in the Lists of Schedule VII?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Golden rule of interpretation\",\r\n      \"Harmonious construction\",\r\n      \"Doctrine of colourability\",\r\n      \"Pith and substance\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The doctrine of <b>pith and substance<\/b> requires the court to look at the <b>true nature and character<\/b> of the impugned legislation \\u2014 its object, scope and effect \\u2014 in order to determine the entry to which it relates. If in <b>pith and substance<\/b> the law falls within the enacting legislature's competence under <b>Article 246<\/b>, an <b>incidental or ancillary encroachment<\/b> upon a field assigned to the other legislature does not render it invalid.<br><br><b>Leading authorities:<\/b> <i>Prafulla Kumar Mukherjee v. Bank of Commerce, Khulna (1947)<\/i>, where a State law on money-lending incidentally touching promissory notes (a Union subject) was upheld; and <i>State of Bombay v. F. N. Balsara (1951)<\/i>.<br><br><b>How the other doctrines differ:<\/b><br>(a) The <b>golden rule<\/b> is a general rule of statutory construction permitting departure from the literal meaning to avoid absurdity; it is not a test of legislative competence.<br>(b) <b>Harmonious construction<\/b> is applied where two entries or two provisions appear to conflict, the court seeking to give effect to both \\u2014 as between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles, or between overlapping Union and State entries.<br>(c) The <b>doctrine of colourable legislation<\/b> \\u2014 <i>quando aliquid prohibetur ex directo, prohibetur et per obliquum<\/i> \\u2014 applies where a legislature, lacking competence, attempts to achieve the forbidden object indirectly under the guise of a subject within its power (<i>K. C. Gajapati Narayan Deo v. State of Orissa, 1953<\/i>). It goes to <b>disguise<\/b>, whereas pith and substance goes to <b>true character<\/b>.<br><br>Hence option <b>(d)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 99,\r\n    \"year\": \"2012-13\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"'Education' comes under the:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Union List\",\r\n      \"State List\",\r\n      \"Concurrent List\",\r\n      \"None of the above\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Education<\/b> is <b>Entry 25 of the Concurrent List<\/b> \\u2014 education, including technical education, medical education and universities, subject to the provisions of Entries 63 to 66 of the Union List; vocational and technical training of labour.<br><br><b>How it got there:<\/b> Education was originally in the <b>State List<\/b>. The <b>42nd Amendment Act, 1976<\/b>, acting on the recommendation of the <b>Swaran Singh Committee<\/b>, transferred <b>five subjects<\/b> from the State List to the Concurrent List:<br>(i) <b>education<\/b>;<br>(ii) <b>forests<\/b>;<br>(iii) <b>weights and measures<\/b>;<br>(iv) <b>protection of wild animals and birds<\/b>;<br>(v) <b>administration of justice; constitution and organisation of all courts except the Supreme Court and the High Courts<\/b>.<br><br><b>Union List entries that remain reserved:<\/b> Entry 63 \\u2014 institutions of national importance (Banaras Hindu University, Aligarh Muslim University, Delhi University and others); Entry 64 \\u2014 institutions declared by Parliament to be of national importance; Entry 65 \\u2014 Union agencies for professional and technical training and for the promotion of special studies or research; Entry 66 \\u2014 <b>coordination and determination of standards<\/b> in institutions of higher education or research and in scientific and technical institutions.<br><br>Note also <b>Article 21A<\/b>, inserted by the 86th Amendment Act, 2002, making free and compulsory education for children aged 6 to 14 a Fundamental Right.<br><br>Hence option <b>(c)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 100,\r\n    \"year\": \"2012-13\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Under what circumstances may the Parliament legislate with respect to a matter in the State List?\\n1. If the majority of members of the Council of States has declared by a resolution that it is necessary or expedient in national interest\\n2. While a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation\\n3. If two or more States pass resolutions to that effect in all the Houses of the Legislatures of those States\\n4. For implementing any treaty, agreement or convention with any other country\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4\",\r\n      \"1 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Parliament may legislate on a State List subject in <b>five<\/b> situations. The statements test four of them.<br><br><b>Statement 1 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> <b>Article 249<\/b> requires a resolution of the <b>Council of States<\/b> supported by <b>not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting<\/b> \\u2014 not a bare majority. The resolution lasts up to one year at a time and the law ceases six months after it expires.<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 250<\/b> \\u2014 while a <b>Proclamation of Emergency<\/b> under Article 352 is in operation, Parliament has power to make laws for the whole or any part of India with respect to <b>any matter in the State List<\/b>; such a law ceases to have effect six months after the Proclamation ceases.<br><br><b>Statement 3 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 252<\/b> \\u2014 if the Legislatures of <b>two or more States<\/b> pass resolutions to the effect that a State List matter should be regulated by Parliament, Parliament may pass a law for those States; other States may adopt it later by resolution. Such a law can be amended or repealed only by Parliament. Examples: the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 and the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.<br><br><b>Statement 4 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 253<\/b> \\u2014 Parliament may make any law for implementing any <b>treaty, agreement or convention<\/b> with any other country or any decision of an international conference, association or body, notwithstanding the distribution of powers.<br><br>The <b>fifth<\/b> situation, not listed here, is <b>Article 356<\/b> \\u2014 during President's Rule, Parliament may confer on itself the State Legislature's power.<br><br>Hence 2, 3 and 4 \\u2014 option <b>(d)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 101,\r\n    \"year\": \"2015\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Who has power to make law in respect of a residuary matter?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Legislature of a State\",\r\n      \"Parliament\",\r\n      \"Both Parliament as well as Legislature of a State\",\r\n      \"The President of India\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 248<\/b> \\u2014 <b>Parliament<\/b> has <b>exclusive<\/b> power to make any law with respect to any matter <b>not enumerated<\/b> in the Concurrent List or the State List, and that power includes the power of making a law imposing a <b>tax not mentioned<\/b> in either of those Lists. The same idea is reflected in <b>Entry 97 of the Union List<\/b>.<br><br><b>Why this design was adopted:<\/b> the framers followed the <b>Canadian<\/b> model, where residuary power vests in the federal legislature, rather than the <b>American, Australian and Swiss<\/b> model, where it vests in the units. This is one of the strongly unitary features of Indian federalism, alongside a single Constitution, single citizenship, an integrated judiciary, all-India services, emergency provisions and the appointment of Governors by the Centre.<br><br><b>Judicial approach:<\/b> the residuary entry is a <b>last resort<\/b>. Courts will exhaust every other entry \\u2014 applying the doctrine of pith and substance and giving the entries the widest possible construction \\u2014 before resorting to Article 248 (<i>Union of India v. H. S. Dhillon, 1971<\/i>, on the Wealth Tax Act as applied to agricultural land). Wealth tax on non-agricultural assets, gift tax and service tax (before the 88th Amendment and later GST) were classic instances of residuary taxation.<br><br>Hence option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 102,\r\n    \"year\": \"2016-17\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. The Constitution of India empowers the Union to entrust its executive function to a State, by its consent\\n2. A State cannot entrust its executive function to the Union\\nWhich of the above statements is\/are not correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"Both 1 and 2\",\r\n      \"Neither 1 nor 2\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Note the framing: the question asks which statement is <b>not correct<\/b>.<br><br><b>Statement 1 \\u2014 correct (so not the answer).<\/b> <b>Article 258(1)<\/b> \\u2014 the President may, <b>with the consent of the Government of a State<\/b>, entrust either conditionally or unconditionally to that Government or its officers <b>functions in relation to any matter to which the executive power of the Union extends<\/b>. Article 258(2) allows a law made by Parliament on a Union subject to confer powers and impose duties on a State or its officers <b>even without the State's consent<\/b>, and Article 258(3) requires the Union to pay the extra administrative costs incurred by the State.<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 incorrect (hence the answer).<\/b> <b>Article 258A<\/b>, inserted by the <b>7th Amendment Act, 1956<\/b>, expressly provides that the <b>Governor<\/b> of a State may, <b>with the consent of the Government of India<\/b>, entrust either conditionally or unconditionally to that Government or its officers functions in relation to any matter to which the <b>executive power of the State<\/b> extends. It is the exact mirror image of Article 258(1). A State therefore <b>can<\/b> entrust its executive functions to the Union.<br><br>Hence the statement that is not correct is 2 only \\u2014 option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 103,\r\n    \"year\": \"2018\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India provides that the Governor of a State may, with the consent of the Government of India, entrust any State functions to that Government or its officers?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 172A\",\r\n      \"Article 184A\",\r\n      \"Article 258A\",\r\n      \"Article 281A\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 258A<\/b> \\u2014 <i>notwithstanding anything in this Constitution, the Governor of a State may, with the consent of the Government of India, entrust either conditionally or unconditionally to that Government or to its officers functions in relation to any matter to which the executive power of the State extends<\/i>.<br><br><b>Insertion and purpose:<\/b> it was added by the <b>Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956<\/b>, to complete the scheme of mutual delegation of executive functions between the Union and the States. Without it, delegation could travel only from the Centre to the States under Article 258(1) and not in the reverse direction. It is particularly used where a project or scheme is executed by a central agency on behalf of a State.<br><br><b>The distractors do not exist in the Constitution:<\/b> there is no Article 172A, 184A or 281A. (Article 172 relates to the duration of State Legislatures; Article 281 to the laying of Finance Commission recommendations before Parliament.)<br><br>Remember the pair: <b>Article 258<\/b> \\u2014 Union to State; <b>Article 258A<\/b> \\u2014 State to Union.<br><br>Hence option <b>(c)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 104,\r\n    \"year\": \"2019-20\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The provisions for setting up Inter-State Councils are mentioned in Article 263 of the Constitution of India. Which among the following is not the correct composition of member States in case of Eastern Zonal Council?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Bihar\",\r\n      \"Jharkhand\",\r\n      \"West Bengal\",\r\n      \"Chhattisgarh\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The <b>Eastern Zonal Council<\/b> comprises <b>Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha and West Bengal<\/b>. <b>Chhattisgarh<\/b> is not a member \\u2014 it belongs to the <b>Central Zonal Council<\/b>.<br><br><b>The five Zonal Councils, created by the States Reorganisation Act, 1956:<\/b><br><b>Northern<\/b> \\u2014 Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Rajasthan, Delhi, Chandigarh, Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh.<br><b>Central<\/b> \\u2014 Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand.<br><b>Eastern<\/b> \\u2014 Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal.<br><b>Western<\/b> \\u2014 Goa, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.<br><b>Southern<\/b> \\u2014 Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Puducherry.<br><br>The <b>North-Eastern Council<\/b> is separate, created by the <b>North-Eastern Council Act, 1971<\/b>, and comprises the eight north-eastern States including Sikkim (added in 2002).<br><br><b>Structure:<\/b> the <b>Union Home Minister<\/b> is the common Chairman of all five Zonal Councils; the Chief Ministers of the member States act as Vice-Chairman by rotation, each for a year.<br><br><b>An important distinction:<\/b> the Zonal Councils are <b>statutory<\/b> bodies, whereas the <b>Inter-State Council<\/b> under <b>Article 263<\/b> is a <b>constitutional<\/b> body established by Presidential Order in 1990 on the Sarkaria Commission's recommendation.<br><br>Hence option <b>(d)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 105,\r\n    \"year\": \"2019-20\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following statements is not correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The Union Executive can exercise power on any subject included in the Union List of the Seventh Schedule\",\r\n      \"The Union Executive can exercise jurisdiction conferred on the Government of India by any international treaty\",\r\n      \"The Union Executive can exercise power for any State on any subject included in the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule\",\r\n      \"The Union Executive can issue directions to the States for ensuring compliance with any law passed by the Parliament\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The incorrect statement is option (c).<br><br><b>Why (c) is wrong:<\/b> <b>Article 73(1)<\/b> extends the executive power of the Union to the matters with respect to which Parliament has power to make laws, and to the exercise of rights, authority and jurisdiction exercisable by the Government of India by virtue of any treaty or agreement. But the <b>proviso to Article 73(1)<\/b> states that the executive power of the Union shall <b>not, save as expressly provided in this Constitution or in any law made by Parliament, extend in any State to matters with respect to which the Legislature of the State also has power to make laws<\/b> \\u2014 that is, to <b>Concurrent List<\/b> subjects. Executive power over Concurrent subjects ordinarily remains with the <b>States<\/b> under Article 162, even where Parliament has legislated, unless the Constitution or a parliamentary law expressly provides otherwise.<br><br><b>Why the others are correct:<\/b><br>(a) Article 73(1)(a) \\u2014 the Union executive power is co-extensive with Parliament's legislative power over <b>Union List<\/b> subjects.<br>(b) Article 73(1)(b) \\u2014 it extends to rights, authority and jurisdiction exercisable under any <b>treaty or agreement<\/b>.<br>(d) <b>Article 256<\/b> \\u2014 the executive power of every State shall be so exercised as to ensure compliance with the laws made by Parliament, and the executive power of the Union extends to the giving of <b>such directions to a State<\/b> as may appear to the Government of India to be necessary for that purpose. See also <b>Article 257<\/b> (control of the Union over States in certain cases) and <b>Article 365<\/b> (failure to comply with directions may attract Article 356).<br><br>Hence option <b>(c)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 106,\r\n    \"year\": \"2021-22\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Parliament is competent to make laws on matters enumerated in the Union List, and State Legislatures on matters enumerated in the State List. Parliament alone has the power to make laws on matters not included in the State List or Concurrent List. Which of the above statements are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"Both 1 and 2\",\r\n      \"Neither 1 nor 2\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement 1 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 246<\/b> effects the distribution of legislative subjects through the <b>Seventh Schedule<\/b>:<br>(i) <b>Article 246(1)<\/b> \\u2014 Parliament has <b>exclusive<\/b> power over matters in <b>List I (Union List)<\/b>, currently 97 entries;<br>(ii) <b>Article 246(2)<\/b> \\u2014 Parliament and State Legislatures have <b>concurrent<\/b> power over <b>List III (Concurrent List)<\/b>, 52 entries, with parliamentary law prevailing under Article 254 in case of repugnancy;<br>(iii) <b>Article 246(3)<\/b> \\u2014 State Legislatures have <b>exclusive<\/b> power over matters in <b>List II (State List)<\/b>, 61 entries;<br>(iv) <b>Article 246(4)<\/b> \\u2014 Parliament may legislate on <b>any<\/b> matter, including State List subjects, for any part of the territory of India <b>not included in a State<\/b>.<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 248<\/b> vests the <b>residuary power<\/b> exclusively in Parliament, including the power to impose a tax not mentioned in the State or Concurrent List; the same is reflected in Entry 97 of the Union List. The Canadian model was followed here.<br><br>Note the special position of <b>GST<\/b>: <b>Article 246A<\/b>, inserted by the 101st Amendment Act, 2016, is a <i>non obstante<\/i> provision that gives both Parliament and State Legislatures concurrent power over GST, outside the ordinary Article 246 scheme.<br><br>Hence both \\u2014 option <b>(c)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 107,\r\n    \"year\": \"2021-22\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Parliament cannot make law on which one of the following subjects, except for a Union Territory?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Insurance\",\r\n      \"Railways\",\r\n      \"Banking\",\r\n      \"Fisheries\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Fisheries<\/b> is <b>Entry 21 of the State List<\/b>, and Parliament therefore cannot legislate on it in relation to a State \\u2014 except in the special situations of Articles 249, 250, 252, 253 and 356.<br><br><b>The exception in the question<\/b> is <b>Article 246(4)<\/b>: Parliament has power to make laws with respect to <b>any matter for any part of the territory of India not included in a State<\/b>, that is, for a <b>Union territory<\/b>, notwithstanding that the matter is enumerated in the State List. This is reinforced by <b>Article 239A<\/b> and, for Union territories generally, by <b>Article 240<\/b> (regulations by the President) and <b>Article 246(4)<\/b>.<br><br><b>The other three options are Union List entries:<\/b><br>(a) <b>Insurance<\/b> \\u2014 Entry 47.<br>(b) <b>Railways<\/b> \\u2014 Entry 22.<br>(c) <b>Banking<\/b> \\u2014 Entry 45.<br><br>A useful contrast for fisheries: while <b>fisheries<\/b> within State territorial limits is a State subject, <b>fishing and fisheries beyond territorial waters<\/b> is <b>Entry 57 of the Union List<\/b>.<br><br>Hence option <b>(d)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 108,\r\n    \"year\": \"2023\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Allocation of seats in the Council of States\",\r\n      \"Distribution of power between the Union and the States\",\r\n      \"Power and authority of the Municipalities\",\r\n      \"Powers of the Governor of the State\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The <b>Seventh Schedule<\/b>, read with <b>Article 246<\/b>, contains the three legislative Lists that effect the <b>distribution of legislative powers<\/b> between the Union and the States:<br><b>List I \\u2014 Union List<\/b> (originally 97 entries): defence, foreign affairs, railways, banking, insurance, currency, atomic energy, citizenship, inter-State trade and commerce, and so on.<br><b>List II \\u2014 State List<\/b> (originally 66, now 61 entries): public order, police, public health and sanitation, agriculture, land, fisheries, State taxes on land and buildings.<br><b>List III \\u2014 Concurrent List<\/b> (originally 47, now 52 entries): criminal law and procedure, marriage and divorce, contracts, bankruptcy, trusts, education, forests, trade unions, economic and social planning.<br><br>Entries have shifted over time \\u2014 most notably five subjects transferred from List II to List III by the <b>42nd Amendment Act, 1976<\/b>, and the omission of Entry 92 (newspapers) and Entry 92C (service tax) on the introduction of GST by the <b>101st Amendment Act, 2016<\/b>.<br><br><b>The distractors:<\/b><br>(a) Allocation of Council of States seats \\u2014 <b>Fourth Schedule<\/b> (Article 80(2)).<br>(c) Powers and authority of Municipalities \\u2014 <b>Twelfth Schedule<\/b> (Article 243W), 18 subjects, added by the 74th Amendment.<br>(d) The Governor's powers are in <b>Part VI, Articles 153 to 167<\/b>, not in any Schedule.<br><br>Hence option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 109,\r\n    \"year\": \"2023\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"A resolution passed under Clause (1) of Article 249 of the Constitution of India shall remain in force for such period not exceeding:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Three months\",\r\n      \"Six months\",\r\n      \"Nine months\",\r\n      \"Twelve months\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 249(1)<\/b> \\u2014 if the <b>Council of States<\/b> has declared by resolution supported by <b>not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting<\/b> that it is <b>necessary or expedient in the national interest<\/b> that Parliament should make laws with respect to a specified matter in the State List, it shall be lawful for Parliament to make such laws for the whole or any part of India while the resolution remains in force.<br><br><b>Article 249(2)<\/b> \\u2014 the resolution shall remain in force for such period <b>not exceeding one year<\/b> as may be specified therein; and it may be <b>renewed<\/b> by a further resolution, each renewal again not exceeding one year at a time. There is no limit on the number of renewals.<br><br><b>Article 249(3)<\/b> \\u2014 a law made under this Article <b>ceases to have effect on the expiration of six months<\/b> after the resolution has ceased to be in force, except as respects things done or omitted to be done before the expiry.<br><br><b>Points of significance:<\/b> the power vests only in the <b>Rajya Sabha<\/b>, the House that represents the States \\u2014 a recognition of the federal principle; the State Legislature's own power over the matter is <b>not extinguished<\/b>, but parliamentary law prevails in case of inconsistency.<br><br>Hence option <b>(d)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 110,\r\n    \"year\": \"2009-11\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements about the Finance Commission:\\n1. The Finance Commission is appointed at the expiration of every five years\\n2. The main responsibility of the Commission is to lay down the principles governing the distribution of taxes between the Centre and the States\\n3. It is not mandatory for the government to place the recommendations of the commission on the Table of Parliament\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement 1 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 280(1)<\/b> \\u2014 the President shall, within two years from the commencement of the Constitution and thereafter at the expiration of <b>every fifth year<\/b> or at such earlier time as he considers necessary, by order constitute a Finance Commission consisting of a <b>Chairman and four other members<\/b>.<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 280(3)<\/b> sets out the duties:<br>(a) the <b>distribution<\/b> between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be, or may be, divided between them, and the <b>allocation<\/b> between the States of the respective shares of such proceeds;<br>(b) the principles governing the <b>grants-in-aid<\/b> of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India (Article 275);<br>(bb) and (c), inserted by the 73rd and 74th Amendments, measures to <b>augment the Consolidated Fund of a State<\/b> to supplement the resources of Panchayats and Municipalities;<br>(d) any other matter referred by the President in the interests of sound finance.<br><br><b>Statement 3 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> <b>Article 281<\/b> makes it <b>mandatory<\/b>: the President shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance Commission, <b>together with an explanatory memorandum as to the action taken thereon<\/b>, to be laid before <b>each House of Parliament<\/b>. This is the principal accountability mechanism, given that the recommendations themselves are <b>advisory and not binding<\/b> on the Government.<br><br>Hence 1 and 2 only \\u2014 option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 111,\r\n    \"year\": \"2014\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which of the following statements is not correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The Legislature of a State may, by law, establish a Contingency Fund in the nature of imprest\",\r\n      \"The Contingency Fund of the State shall be placed at the disposal of the Chief Minister of the State\",\r\n      \"The fund shall be paid from time to time such sums as may be determined by such law\",\r\n      \"The Contingency Fund is meant to enable advances to be made for the purpose of meeting unforeseen expenditure pending authorization of such expenditure by the Legislature\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The incorrect statement is option (b).<br><br><b>Article 267(2)<\/b> \\u2014 the Legislature of a State may by law establish a <b>Contingency Fund of the State<\/b> in the nature of an <b>imprest<\/b>, to be entitled \\\"the Contingency Fund of the State\\\", into which shall be paid from time to time such sums as may be determined by such law; and the said Fund shall be placed <b>at the disposal of the Governor<\/b> of the State to enable advances to be made by him out of it for the purposes of meeting <b>unforeseen expenditure<\/b> pending authorisation of such expenditure by the State Legislature under Article 205 or Article 206.<br><br>The <b>Chief Minister<\/b> therefore has no custody of the Fund; option (b) substitutes him for the Governor and is wrong. Options (a), (c) and (d) reproduce the language and purpose of the Article accurately.<br><br><b>The parallel provision<\/b> is <b>Article 267(1)<\/b>: Parliament may by law establish a <b>Contingency Fund of India<\/b>, placed at the disposal of the <b>President<\/b>, to meet unforeseen expenditure pending authorisation by Parliament under Article 115 or Article 116. It was established by the Contingency Fund of India Act, 1950, its corpus now standing at Rs 30,000 crore; it is operated on behalf of the President by the Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs, and is <b>recouped<\/b> once Parliament authorises the expenditure by a supplementary or excess grant.<br><br>Hence option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 112,\r\n    \"year\": \"2018\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The Constitution (Twenty-sixth Amendment) Act, 1971:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"omitted Articles 291 and 362\",\r\n      \"substituted Article 365\",\r\n      \"amended Article 367\",\r\n      \"substituted Article 373\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The <b>26th Amendment Act, 1971<\/b> abolished the <b>privy purses and privileges of the former Rulers<\/b> of Indian States. It:<br>(i) <b>omitted Article 291<\/b>, which had guaranteed the payment of privy purse sums to the Rulers, free of tax and charged on the Consolidated Fund of India;<br>(ii) <b>omitted Article 362<\/b>, which had required Parliament and State Legislatures, in making any law, to have <b>due regard<\/b> to the guarantee or assurance given as to the personal rights, privileges and dignities of the Rulers;<br>(iii) <b>inserted Article 363A<\/b>, declaring that Rulers cease to be recognised and that privy purses are abolished, and barring any court from entertaining any suit or proceeding in respect of them.<br><br><b>Background:<\/b> the Government first attempted abolition by an executive order de-recognising the Rulers, which the Supreme Court struck down in <i>Madhav Rao Jivaji Rao Scindia v. Union of India (1970)<\/i> as being beyond the President's power under Article 366(22). The 26th Amendment achieved the same object by constitutional amendment.<br><br><b>The distractors:<\/b> Article 365 \\u2014 effect of failure to comply with directions given by the Union; Article 367 \\u2014 interpretation; Article 373 \\u2014 power of the President to make an order in respect of preventive detention in certain cases. None was touched by the 26th Amendment.<br><br>Hence option <b>(a)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 113,\r\n    \"year\": \"2019-20\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"With regard to Goods and Services Tax in the course of inter-State trade or commerce, which one of the following statements is not correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"It is levied by the Union\",\r\n      \"It is levied and collected by the Union\",\r\n      \"It is not apportioned between the Union and States\",\r\n      \"Goods imported are treated to be supply of goods in the course of inter-State trade\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The incorrect statement is option (c).<br><br><b>Article 269A(1)<\/b>, inserted by the <b>101st Amendment Act, 2016<\/b> \\u2014 goods and services tax on supplies <b>in the course of inter-State trade or commerce<\/b> shall be <b>levied and collected by the Government of India<\/b> and such tax shall be <b>apportioned between the Union and the States<\/b> in the manner as may be provided by Parliament by law <b>on the recommendations of the Goods and Services Tax Council<\/b>. Option (c) therefore contradicts the express text.<br><br><b>The Explanation to Article 269A(1)<\/b> deems supply of goods or services or both <b>in the course of import into the territory of India<\/b> to be supply in the course of inter-State trade or commerce \\u2014 which makes option (d) correct.<br><br><b>Article 269A(2)<\/b> \\u2014 the amount apportioned to a State does not form part of the Consolidated Fund of India. <b>Article 269A(3) and (4)<\/b> empower Parliament to formulate principles for determining the place of supply and when a supply takes place in the course of inter-State trade.<br><br><b>The wider GST scheme:<\/b> <b>Article 246A<\/b> \\u2014 concurrent power of the Union and the States to make laws on GST, with the Union alone competent for inter-State supplies; <b>Article 279A<\/b> \\u2014 the GST Council, chaired by the Union Finance Minister, with decisions taken by a three-fourths majority of weighted votes (Centre one-third, States two-thirds); <b>Article 366(12A)<\/b> \\u2014 definition of GST.<br><br>Hence option <b>(c)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 114,\r\n    \"year\": \"2019-20\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following constitutional amendments introduced the Goods and Services Tax in India?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"100th Amendment\",\r\n      \"101st Amendment\",\r\n      \"122nd Amendment\",\r\n      \"125th Amendment\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The Constitution (<b>122nd Amendment<\/b>) <b>Bill<\/b>, 2014 was enacted as the Constitution (<b>101st Amendment<\/b>) <b>Act, 2016<\/b> \\u2014 the distinction between the Bill number and the Act number being the point the question tests. GST came into force on <b>1 July 2017<\/b>.<br><br><b>What the Amendment did:<\/b><br>(i) <b>inserted Article 246A<\/b> \\u2014 concurrent power of Parliament and State Legislatures to make laws on GST, with Parliament alone competent in respect of inter-State supplies;<br>(ii) <b>inserted Article 269A<\/b> \\u2014 levy and collection of GST on inter-State supplies by the Union and its apportionment between the Union and the States;<br>(iii) <b>inserted Article 279A<\/b> \\u2014 constitution of the <b>GST Council<\/b> by the President within sixty days;<br>(iv) <b>inserted Article 366(12A)<\/b> defining GST and 366(26A) defining \\\"services\\\";<br>(v) <b>omitted Article 268A<\/b> (service tax levied by the Union) and Entry 92C of the Union List, and amended Articles 248, 249, 250, 268, 269, 270, 271, 286, 366 and the Seventh Schedule;<br>(vi) provided for <b>compensation to States<\/b> for loss of revenue for five years.<br><br><b>The distractors:<\/b> the <b>100th Amendment Act, 2015<\/b> gave effect to the <b>India-Bangladesh Land Boundary Agreement<\/b>; the <b>125th Amendment Bill<\/b> relates to the Sixth Schedule autonomous councils and is still pending.<br><br>Hence option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 115,\r\n    \"year\": \"2019-20\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which of the following States are involved in paying\/receiving a fixed amount of money to\/from the Travancore Devaswom Fund under the Constitution of India?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Tamil Nadu and Kerala\",\r\n      \"Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka\",\r\n      \"Kerala and Andhra Pradesh\",\r\n      \"Tamil Nadu and Karnataka\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 290A<\/b>, inserted by the <b>Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956<\/b>, provides for <b>annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds<\/b>:<br><br>(i) A sum of <b>Rs 46,50,000<\/b> shall be charged on, and paid out of, the <b>Consolidated Fund of the State of Kerala<\/b> every year to the <b>Travancore Devaswom Fund<\/b>; and<br>(ii) A sum of <b>Rs 13,50,000<\/b> shall be charged on, and paid out of, the <b>Consolidated Fund of the State of Tamil Nadu<\/b> every year to the Devaswom Fund established in that State for the maintenance of Hindu temples and shrines in the territories <b>transferred to that State on 1 November 1956<\/b> from the State of Travancore-Cochin.<br><br><b>Why the provision exists:<\/b> on the reorganisation of States, the covenant obligations of the erstwhile Travancore and Cochin princely States towards the maintenance of temples had to be honoured by the successor States. The payment being <b>charged<\/b> on the Consolidated Fund, it is not subject to the vote of the State Legislature.<br><br>Hence the two States concerned are <b>Kerala and Tamil Nadu<\/b> \\u2014 option <b>(a)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 116,\r\n    \"year\": \"2019-20\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. The Constitution of India prescribes limits of territorial waters and maritime zones of India\\n2. The resources of the exclusive economic zone of India vest in the Union of India\\n3. The Constitution of India prescribes the limits of the exclusive economic zone of India\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3\",\r\n      \"1 and 3\",\r\n      \"2 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement 1 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> The Constitution nowhere <b>prescribes the limits<\/b> of the territorial waters or of any maritime zone. Those limits are fixed by ordinary legislation.<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 297<\/b>, as substituted by the <b>40th Amendment Act, 1976<\/b>, provides that all lands, minerals and other things of value underlying the <b>ocean within the territorial waters, or the continental shelf, or the exclusive economic zone<\/b> of India, and <b>all other resources of the exclusive economic zone<\/b>, shall <b>vest in the Union<\/b> and be held for the purposes of the Union.<br><br><b>Statement 3 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> <b>Article 297(3)<\/b> expressly leaves the limits of the territorial waters, the continental shelf, the exclusive economic zone and other maritime zones of India to be <b>specified from time to time by or under any law made by Parliament<\/b>. The governing statute is the <b>Territorial Waters, Continental Shelf, Exclusive Economic Zone and Other Maritime Zones Act, 1976<\/b>, under which the territorial waters extend to <b>12 nautical miles<\/b>, the contiguous zone to 24, and the <b>exclusive economic zone to 200 nautical miles<\/b> from the baseline \\u2014 consistent with the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea.<br><br>Hence 2 only \\u2014 option <b>(d)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 117,\r\n    \"year\": \"2021-22\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"In India, the power to levy and collect taxes is divided between the Central and State Governments. This division is provided under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 246\",\r\n      \"Article 268\",\r\n      \"Article 270\",\r\n      \"Article 275\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 270<\/b>, as recast by the <b>80th Amendment Act, 2000<\/b> and further amended by the <b>101st Amendment Act, 2016<\/b>, provides that <b>all taxes and duties referred to in the Union List<\/b> \\u2014 other than the duties and taxes referred to in <b>Articles 268 and 269<\/b>, the GST under Article 269A, any <b>surcharge<\/b> under Article 271 and any <b>cess<\/b> levied for a specific purpose \\u2014 shall be <b>levied and collected by the Government of India<\/b> and <b>distributed between the Union and the States<\/b> in the manner provided in clause (2).<br><br>The distributable share is what is known as the <b>divisible pool<\/b>, and it is on this pool that the <b>Finance Commission<\/b> under <b>Article 280(3)(a)<\/b> recommends the percentage of vertical devolution to the States and the inter-se horizontal allocation among them. The 15th Finance Commission recommended 41 per cent devolution.<br><br><b>The distractors:<\/b><br>(a) <b>Article 246<\/b> divides <b>legislative<\/b> powers, not the levy and distribution of taxes as such.<br>(b) <b>Article 268<\/b> \\u2014 duties levied by the Union but <b>collected and appropriated by the States<\/b> (stamp duties).<br>(d) <b>Article 275<\/b> \\u2014 <b>grants-in-aid<\/b> from the Union to such States as Parliament may determine to be in need of assistance, charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.<br><br>Note the criticism that <b>cesses and surcharges<\/b>, being outside the divisible pool, reduce the States' share \\u2014 a recurring theme in fiscal federalism debates.<br><br>Hence option <b>(c)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 118,\r\n    \"year\": \"2023\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Approval of which among the following is needed to draw funds from the Consolidated Fund of India?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"President of India\",\r\n      \"Parliament\",\r\n      \"Council of Ministers\",\r\n      \"Vice-President of India\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 266(3)<\/b> \\u2014 no moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Consolidated Fund of a State shall be appropriated <b>except in accordance with law<\/b> and for the purposes and in the manner provided in the Constitution. <b>Article 114(3)<\/b> reinforces this: no money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under <b>appropriation made by law<\/b> passed in accordance with Article 114.<br><br>Since only <b>Parliament<\/b> can pass such a law \\u2014 the <b>Appropriation Act<\/b> \\u2014 the approval required is that of Parliament. This is the constitutional embodiment of the principle that the legislature holds the <b>power of the purse<\/b>.<br><br><b>Two refinements:<\/b><br>(i) <b>Charged expenditure<\/b> under <b>Article 112(3)<\/b> is <b>non-votable<\/b> \\u2014 it is not submitted to the vote of Parliament \\u2014 but it still forms part of the annual financial statement, may be <b>discussed<\/b> in either House under Article 113(1), and is included in the Appropriation Bill under Article 114(1)(b). So even charged expenditure is withdrawn only under an appropriation made by law.<br>(ii) <b>Article 267<\/b> provides the only bridging mechanism: advances from the <b>Contingency Fund<\/b> at the disposal of the President for unforeseen expenditure <b>pending authorisation<\/b> by Parliament, which must be recouped thereafter.<br><br>Note the three funds: <b>Consolidated Fund<\/b> (Article 266(1)), <b>Public Account<\/b> (Article 266(2)) and <b>Contingency Fund<\/b> (Article 267).<br><br>Hence option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 119,\r\n    \"year\": \"2023\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The concept of privy purses and privileges of the Rulers of former Indian States was terminated through:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"the Constitution (First Amendment) Act\",\r\n      \"the Constitution (Twenty-sixth Amendment) Act\",\r\n      \"the Constitution (Fifty-second Amendment) Act\",\r\n      \"the Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The <b>Constitution (Twenty-sixth Amendment) Act, 1971<\/b> terminated privy purses and privileges. It:<br>(i) <b>omitted Article 291<\/b> \\u2014 privy purse sums payable to the Rulers, which were charged on the Consolidated Fund of India and exempt from tax;<br>(ii) <b>omitted Article 362<\/b> \\u2014 the obligation to have due regard to the guarantees given as to the personal rights, privileges and dignities of the Rulers;<br>(iii) <b>inserted Article 363A<\/b> \\u2014 recognition granted to Rulers to cease and privy purses to be abolished, with a bar on any court entertaining any suit or proceeding relating to them.<br><br><b>Context:<\/b> the privy purses originated in the covenants of accession by which the princely States were integrated in 1947\\u201349. An earlier executive attempt to de-recognise the Rulers was struck down in <i>Madhav Rao Jivaji Rao Scindia v. Union of India (1970)<\/i>, and the Amendment was the constitutional response.<br><br><b>The distractors:<\/b> the <b>1st Amendment Act, 1951<\/b> added the Ninth Schedule and clauses (4) and (5) to Article 19; the <b>52nd Amendment Act, 1985<\/b> introduced the anti-defection law through the Tenth Schedule; the <b>91st Amendment Act, 2003<\/b> capped the size of Councils of Ministers at 15 per cent and deleted the split exception under the Tenth Schedule.<br><br>Hence option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 120,\r\n    \"year\": \"2024\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements regarding various funds in India:\\n1. Article 266 deals with the Contingency Fund of India\\n2. For operating the Public Account of India and the Contingency Fund of India, parliamentary approval is not needed\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"Both 1 and 2\",\r\n      \"Neither 1 nor 2\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement 1 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> <b>Article 266<\/b> deals with two funds only:<br>(i) <b>Article 266(1)<\/b> \\u2014 the <b>Consolidated Fund of India<\/b> and of the States: all revenues received, all loans raised by the issue of treasury bills, loans or ways and means advances, and all moneys received in repayment of loans.<br>(ii) <b>Article 266(2)<\/b> \\u2014 the <b>Public Account<\/b> of India and of the States: all other public moneys received by or on behalf of the Government.<br>The <b>Contingency Fund<\/b> is provided for separately by <b>Article 267<\/b>.<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 correct.<\/b><br>(i) The <b>Public Account<\/b> holds moneys in which the Government acts as a <b>banker or trustee<\/b> \\u2014 provident funds, small savings, deposits and remittances. Since the money does not belong to the Government, disbursements require <b>no appropriation by Parliament<\/b>; the account is operated by executive action.<br>(ii) The <b>Contingency Fund<\/b> is placed <b>at the disposal of the President<\/b> to make advances for <b>unforeseen expenditure pending authorisation<\/b> by Parliament under Article 115 or 116. The advance itself needs no prior parliamentary approval \\u2014 that is the whole point of the imprest \\u2014 though the expenditure must subsequently be regularised by a supplementary or excess grant, whereupon the Fund is <b>recouped<\/b>.<br><br>By contrast, the <b>Consolidated Fund<\/b> can be drawn upon only under an appropriation made by law (Articles 266(3) and 114(3)).<br><br>Hence 2 only \\u2014 option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 121,\r\n    \"year\": \"2016-17\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Right to Property (Article 300A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The citizens of India do not have which one of the following fundamental rights?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Right to reside and settle in any part of India\",\r\n      \"Right to acquire, hold and dispose of property\",\r\n      \"Right to practice any profession\",\r\n      \"Right to form an association\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Why (b) is the answer:<\/b> The right to <b>acquire, hold and dispose of property<\/b> was originally <b>Article 19(1)(f)<\/b>, and <b>Article 31<\/b> guaranteed against compulsory acquisition of property. Both were <b>repealed by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978<\/b>. Property now survives only as a <b>constitutional and legal right<\/b> under <b>Article 300A<\/b> \\u2014 no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law \\u2014 placed in a new Chapter IV of Part XII.<br><br><b>Consequences of the change:<\/b> being no longer a Fundamental Right, a violation cannot found a petition under <b>Article 32<\/b>; the remedy lies under <b>Article 226<\/b> or in an ordinary suit. The reason for the change was to remove the obstacle that Articles 19(1)(f) and 31 had posed to land reform and agrarian legislation \\u2014 the source of the long conflict running through <i>Shankari Prasad (1951)<\/i>, <i>Golaknath (1967)<\/i>, <i>Kesavananda Bharati (1973)<\/i> and the Ninth Schedule.<br><br><b>Why the others remain Fundamental Rights:<\/b><br>(a) <b>Article 19(1)(e)<\/b> \\u2014 right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.<br>(c) <b>Article 19(1)(g)<\/b> \\u2014 right to practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.<br>(d) <b>Article 19(1)(c)<\/b> \\u2014 right to form associations or unions or co-operative societies (the last added by the 97th Amendment Act, 2011).<br><br>Hence option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 122,\r\n    \"year\": \"2021-22\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Right to Property (Article 300A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Right to Property has been provided under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 19(1)(f)\",\r\n      \"Article 31\",\r\n      \"Article 300A\",\r\n      \"Article 301\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 300A<\/b> \\u2014 <i>no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law<\/i>. It was inserted by the <b>44th Amendment Act, 1978<\/b> as a new <b>Chapter IV of Part XII<\/b>, headed <b>\\\"Right to Property\\\"<\/b>.<br><br><b>Key features:<\/b><br>(i) It is available to <b>every person<\/b>, citizen or not, unlike Article 19(1)(f) which was confined to citizens.<br>(ii) Deprivation must be <b>by authority of law<\/b> \\u2014 a valid law made by a competent legislature, not by executive fiat.<br>(iii) It is a <b>constitutional and legal right<\/b>, not a Fundamental Right, so <b>Article 32<\/b> is not available; the remedy is under Article 226 or by suit.<br>(iv) The Supreme Court has nevertheless read into it a requirement of fair procedure and, in cases of compulsory acquisition, of compensation \\u2014 see <i>K. T. Plantation v. State of Karnataka (2011)<\/i> and <i>Vidya Devi v. State of Himachal Pradesh (2020)<\/i>, where it was described as a <b>human right<\/b> in a welfare State.<br><br><b>The distractors:<\/b> <b>Article 19(1)(f)<\/b> (right to acquire, hold and dispose of property) and <b>Article 31<\/b> (compulsory acquisition) were both <b>repealed<\/b> in 1978; <b>Article 301<\/b> guarantees freedom of <b>trade, commerce and intercourse<\/b> throughout the territory of India.<br><br>Hence option <b>(c)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 123,\r\n    \"year\": \"2025\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Right to Property (Article 300A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following Amendment Acts of the Constitution of India omitted the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"44th Amendment Act\",\r\n      \"42nd Amendment Act\",\r\n      \"18th Amendment Act\",\r\n      \"76th Amendment Act\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The <b>44th Amendment Act, 1978<\/b> repealed <b>Article 19(1)(f)<\/b> and <b>Article 31<\/b> and inserted <b>Article 300A<\/b>, converting property from a Fundamental Right into a constitutional and legal right.<br><br><b>Other major changes made by the 44th Amendment<\/b>, enacted by the Janata Government to undo the excesses of the Emergency:<br>(i) substituted <b>\\\"armed rebellion\\\"<\/b> for \\\"internal disturbance\\\" as a ground of National Emergency in <b>Article 352<\/b>;<br>(ii) required the <b>written recommendation of the Union Cabinet<\/b> before a Proclamation of Emergency, and approval by each House by a <b>special majority<\/b> within one month;<br>(iii) provided that <b>Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended<\/b> during an Emergency (Article 359);<br>(iv) restored the <b>original term<\/b> of the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies to five years;<br>(v) restored the power of <b>judicial review<\/b> over election disputes and removed the immunity conferred by the 39th Amendment;<br>(vi) provided for the President to return ministerial advice for <b>reconsideration<\/b> once (Article 74(1) proviso);<br>(vii) omitted the reference to the House of Commons in <b>Article 105(3)<\/b>.<br><br><b>The distractors:<\/b> the <b>42nd Amendment Act, 1976<\/b> was the \\\"mini-Constitution\\\"; the <b>18th Amendment Act, 1966<\/b> clarified the power of Parliament to form new States; the <b>76th Amendment Act, 1994<\/b> placed the Tamil Nadu reservation law in the Ninth Schedule.<br><br>Hence option <b>(a)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 124,\r\n    \"year\": \"2014\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\\u2013312A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which of the following is not an All India Service in terms of Article 312 of the Constitution?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Indian Forest Service\",\r\n      \"Indian Revenue Service\",\r\n      \"Indian Police Service\",\r\n      \"Indian Administrative Service\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The <b>Indian Revenue Service<\/b> is a <b>Central Civil Service (Group A)<\/b> serving the Union alone; it is not an all-India service.<br><br><b>Article 312(1)<\/b> \\u2014 notwithstanding anything in Chapter VI of Part VI or Part XI, if the <b>Council of States<\/b> has declared by resolution supported by <b>not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting<\/b> that it is necessary or expedient in the <b>national interest<\/b> to do so, Parliament may by law provide for the creation of one or more <b>all-India services common to the Union and the States<\/b>.<br><br><b>Article 312(2)<\/b> deems the <b>Indian Administrative Service<\/b> and the <b>Indian Police Service<\/b> to have been created by Parliament under this Article, since they already existed at the commencement of the Constitution as successors to the ICS and the Indian Police.<br><br>The <b>Indian Forest Service<\/b> was created in <b>1966<\/b> under the <b>All India Services Act, 1951<\/b>, following a Rajya Sabha resolution under Article 312(1) \\u2014 making it the third and, so far, the last all-India service.<br><br><b>Distinctive features of all-India services:<\/b> recruitment and conditions of service regulated by Parliament; officers are allotted to State cadres but serve both the Union and the States; disciplinary control is shared; and Article 312(3) provides that the <b>all-India judicial service<\/b> may similarly be created but shall not include any post inferior to that of a district judge.<br><br>Hence option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 125,\r\n    \"year\": \"2015\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\\u2013312A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Who among the following does not hold office at the pleasure of the President of India?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"A Civil Servant\",\r\n      \"A Union Minister\",\r\n      \"A Judge of the High Court\",\r\n      \"The Attorney General of India\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Why (c) is the answer:<\/b> A <b>Judge of a High Court<\/b> does <b>not<\/b> hold office during the pleasure of the President. Under <b>Article 217(1)<\/b> he holds office until he attains the age of <b>62 years<\/b>, and he may be removed only by an <b>order of the President passed after an address by each House<\/b> supported by the special majority prescribed in <b>Article 124(4)<\/b>, applied to High Court Judges by <b>Article 218<\/b>, on the ground of <b>proved misbehaviour or incapacity<\/b>. He may resign to the President or be transferred or elevated. This security of tenure is a guarantee of judicial independence.<br><br><b>Why the others do hold office at pleasure:<\/b><br>(a) <b>Civil servants<\/b> \\u2014 <b>Article 310(1)<\/b>: every person serving the Union holds office during the <b>pleasure of the President<\/b>, and every person serving a State during the pleasure of the Governor \\u2014 subject to the procedural safeguards in <b>Article 311<\/b> (no dismissal by an authority subordinate to the appointing authority; no dismissal, removal or reduction in rank without an inquiry giving a reasonable opportunity of being heard).<br>(b) <b>Union Ministers<\/b> \\u2014 <b>Article 75(2)<\/b>: the Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President, though in practice that pleasure is exercised on the Prime Minister's advice, and the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the House of the People under Article 75(3).<br>(d) <b>Attorney-General<\/b> \\u2014 <b>Article 76(4)<\/b>: he holds office during the pleasure of the President.<br><br>Hence option <b>(c)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 126,\r\n    \"year\": \"2015\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\\u2013312A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"A civil servant can be dismissed, removed or reduced in rank without any inquiry and hearing, where:\\n1. such action is taken on the ground of conduct which had led to his conviction on a criminal charge\\n2. the competent authority is satisfied that for some reasons, to be recorded by that authority in writing, it is not reasonably practicable to hold such inquiry\\n3. the competent authority finds it expedient to do so\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 311(2)<\/b> \\u2014 no person who is a member of a civil service of the Union or a State, or holds a civil post, shall be dismissed, removed or reduced in rank <b>except after an inquiry<\/b> in which he has been informed of the charges and given a <b>reasonable opportunity of being heard<\/b> in respect of them.<br><br>The <b>second proviso<\/b> creates <b>three exceptions<\/b>, in which the inquiry may be dispensed with:<br><br><b>Clause (a) \\u2014 Statement 1, correct.<\/b> Where the person is dismissed, removed or reduced in rank on the ground of <b>conduct which has led to his conviction on a criminal charge<\/b>.<br><br><b>Clause (b) \\u2014 Statement 2, correct.<\/b> Where the authority empowered to dismiss, remove or reduce in rank is satisfied that for some reason, <b>to be recorded by that authority in writing<\/b>, it is <b>not reasonably practicable<\/b> to hold such inquiry.<br><br><b>Clause (c) \\u2014 Statement 3, incorrect as framed.<\/b> The third exception is not mere \\\"expediency\\\" of the competent authority. It applies where the <b>President or the Governor<\/b>, as the case may be, is satisfied that <b>in the interest of the security of the State<\/b> it is not expedient to hold such inquiry. Both the authority (President\/Governor, not any competent authority) and the ground (security of the State) are different.<br><br><b>Article 311(3)<\/b> makes the decision of the authority on the question whether it is reasonably practicable to hold an inquiry <b>final<\/b>, though the Supreme Court has held that the satisfaction is subject to judicial review on grounds of mala fides or absence of material (<i>Union of India v. Tulsiram Patel, 1985<\/i>).<br><br>Hence 1 and 2 only \\u2014 option <b>(d)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 127,\r\n    \"year\": \"2019-20\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\\u2013312A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements:\\nThe 'pleasure' doctrine with regard to service of civil servants under the Constitution of India is:\\n1. absolute\\n2. subject to Article 309\\n3. subject to Article 311\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 2\",\r\n      \"3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement 1 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> The doctrine of pleasure in India is <b>not absolute<\/b>. <b>Article 310(1)<\/b> itself opens with the words <b>\\\"except as expressly provided by this Constitution\\\"<\/b>, and those words let in the safeguards of Article 311. This distinguishes the Indian position from the English rule, where the Crown's pleasure was historically unqualified.<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> <b>Article 309<\/b> empowers the appropriate Legislature to regulate the <b>recruitment and conditions of service<\/b> of persons appointed to public services and posts, and permits the President or the Governor to make rules until such a law is made. But Article 309 is expressly made <b>\\\"subject to the provisions of this Constitution\\\"<\/b>, and it is settled that a law or rule made under Article 309 <b>cannot override<\/b> the pleasure doctrine in Article 310; it is therefore not a limitation on that doctrine.<br><br><b>Statement 3 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 311<\/b> is the true constitutional restraint. Clause (1) provides that no civil servant shall be dismissed or removed by an <b>authority subordinate to that by which he was appointed<\/b>; clause (2) requires an <b>inquiry with a reasonable opportunity of being heard<\/b>, subject to the three exceptions in the second proviso.<br><br><b>Persons outside the protection of Article 311<\/b> include members of the defence services, and holders of certain constitutional offices such as the Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts, the CAG and the Election Commissioners, whose tenure is separately protected.<br><br>Hence 3 only \\u2014 option <b>(d)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 128,\r\n    \"year\": \"2009-11\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"During the proclamation of financial emergency under Article 360, which one among the following directives cannot be issued by the President of India?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving the affairs of the Union or the States\",\r\n      \"Reservation of Money Bills or other bills to which the provisions of Article 207 apply for the consideration of the President after they are passed by the Legislatures\",\r\n      \"Reduction of salaries and allowances of judges of the Supreme Court of India and the High Courts\",\r\n      \"Change in the pattern of distribution of taxes between the Union and the States\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The directive that <b>cannot<\/b> be issued is option (d).<br><br><b>What Article 360 permits.<\/b> During the operation of a Proclamation of Financial Emergency:<br>(i) <b>Article 360(3)<\/b> \\u2014 the executive authority of the Union extends to the giving of <b>directions to any State<\/b> to observe such canons of financial propriety as may be specified, and to such other directions as the President may deem necessary and adequate.<br>(ii) <b>Article 360(4)(a)(i)<\/b> \\u2014 directions for the <b>reduction of salaries and allowances<\/b> of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of a State (option a).<br>(iii) <b>Article 360(4)(a)(ii)<\/b> \\u2014 <b>reservation for the consideration of the President<\/b> of all Money Bills or other Bills to which <b>Article 207<\/b> applies, after they are passed by the State Legislature (option b).<br>(iv) <b>Article 360(4)(b)<\/b> \\u2014 directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union, <b>including the Judges of the Supreme Court and of the High Courts<\/b> (option c). This is the only situation in which judicial salaries may be reduced, notwithstanding the protection in Articles 125 and 221.<br><br><b>Why (d) is outside Article 360:<\/b> altering the <b>distribution of taxes<\/b> between the Union and the States is not among the powers conferred. Modification of the financial provisions in <b>Articles 268 to 279<\/b> is possible only by a Presidential order under <b>Article 354<\/b>, and then only while a Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 is in operation; any permanent change requires a constitutional amendment.<br><br>Hence option <b>(d)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 129,\r\n    \"year\": \"2012-13\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Emergency proclaimed under Article 356 of the Constitution, duly approved by the Parliament, lasts at a stretch for the duration of:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"two months\",\r\n      \"six months\",\r\n      \"one year\",\r\n      \"three years\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 356(3)<\/b> \\u2014 every Proclamation issued under Article 356 shall be <b>laid before each House of Parliament<\/b> and shall <b>cease to operate at the expiration of two months<\/b> unless before that period it has been <b>approved by resolutions of both Houses<\/b>.<br><br>Once approved, the Proclamation continues in force for a period of <b>six months from the date of the resolution<\/b> approving it, and may be <b>extended by six months at a time<\/b> by fresh resolutions of both Houses.<br><br><b>The outer limits:<\/b><br>(i) The Proclamation cannot in any case remain in force for more than <b>three years<\/b> in the aggregate.<br>(ii) <b>Article 356(5)<\/b>, as substituted by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978, provides that continuance beyond <b>one year<\/b> requires the satisfaction of two conditions: a <b>Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352<\/b> must be in operation in the whole of India or in the whole or part of the State; and the <b>Election Commission<\/b> must certify that the continuance is necessary on account of difficulties in holding general elections to the State Legislative Assembly.<br><br><b>Judicial review:<\/b> in <i>S. R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994)<\/i> the Supreme Court held the Proclamation to be <b>justiciable<\/b> on the ground of mala fides or wholly irrelevant material, that the Assembly may be dissolved only <b>after<\/b> parliamentary approval, and that the floor of the House is the proper test of majority.<br><br>Hence option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 130,\r\n    \"year\": \"2016-17\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which of the following statements is\/are correct?\\nThe President of India can proclaim emergency:\\n1. on the ground of war, aggression or armed rebellion\\n2. only if the decision of the Union Council of Ministers is communicated to him in writing\\n3. only if both houses of Parliament approve the proclamation after its promulgation\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\",\r\n      \"3 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement 1 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 352(1)<\/b> \\u2014 the President may proclaim an Emergency if satisfied that a grave emergency exists whereby the security of India or any part of its territory is threatened, whether by <b>war, external aggression or armed rebellion<\/b>. The words <b>\\\"armed rebellion\\\"<\/b> were substituted for <b>\\\"internal disturbance\\\"<\/b> by the <b>44th Amendment Act, 1978<\/b>, precisely to prevent a repetition of the 1975 Proclamation.<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> <b>Article 352(3)<\/b>, inserted by the 44th Amendment, requires that the President shall not issue a Proclamation unless the decision of the <b>Union Cabinet<\/b> \\u2014 that is, the Council consisting of the Prime Minister and other Ministers of Cabinet rank \\u2014 that such a Proclamation may be issued has been <b>communicated to him in writing<\/b>. This ensures collective, recorded responsibility rather than the advice of the Prime Minister alone.<br><br><b>Statement 3 \\u2014 incorrect as framed.<\/b> Parliamentary approval is not a <b>precondition<\/b> of proclamation; the Proclamation is issued first and must then be approved. Under <b>Article 352(4)<\/b> it must be laid before each House and <b>ceases to operate at the expiration of one month<\/b> unless approved by resolutions of both Houses <b>by a special majority<\/b> \\u2014 a majority of the total membership and not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. Once approved it continues for <b>six months<\/b> and may be extended six months at a time. Under <b>Article 352(8)<\/b>, if not less than one-tenth of the members of the House of the People give notice, a special sitting must be held to consider a <b>disapproval resolution<\/b>, which needs only a simple majority.<br><br>Hence 1 and 2 only \\u2014 option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 131,\r\n    \"year\": \"2019-20\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India deals with the President's rule in a State?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 352\",\r\n      \"Article 356\",\r\n      \"Article 360\",\r\n      \"Article 370\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 356<\/b> \\u2014 <i>Provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinery in States<\/i>, popularly called <b>President's Rule<\/b> or State Emergency.<br><br><b>Trigger:<\/b> if the President, <b>on receipt of a report from the Governor of a State or otherwise<\/b>, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution, he may by Proclamation:<br>(a) <b>assume to himself<\/b> all or any of the functions of the Government of the State and the powers vested in the Governor or any authority other than the State Legislature;<br>(b) declare that the powers of the <b>State Legislature<\/b> shall be exercisable by or under the authority of <b>Parliament<\/b>;<br>(c) make such incidental and consequential provisions as appear necessary.<br>The proviso bars the President from assuming any power vested in a <b>High Court<\/b> or suspending any provision relating to High Courts.<br><br><b>Related provision:<\/b> <b>Article 365<\/b> \\u2014 where a State fails to comply with any direction given by the Union, it shall be lawful for the President to hold that a situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution.<br><br><b>The distractors:<\/b> Article 352 \\u2014 National Emergency; Article 360 \\u2014 Financial Emergency; <b>Article 370<\/b> \\u2014 the former temporary provisions with respect to Jammu and Kashmir, rendered inoperative by the Presidential Orders of August 2019, upheld in <i>In Re: Article 370 (2023)<\/i>.<br><br>Hence option <b>(b)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 132,\r\n    \"year\": \"2023\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 360 of the Constitution of India has been invoked:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"only one time\",\r\n      \"two times\",\r\n      \"three times\",\r\n      \"never\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"A <b>Financial Emergency<\/b> under <b>Article 360<\/b> has <b>never been proclaimed<\/b> in India \\u2014 not even during the severe <b>balance of payments crisis of 1991<\/b>, which was met through IMF assistance, devaluation of the rupee and structural economic reform rather than by constitutional emergency powers.<br><br><b>The provision itself:<\/b> <b>Article 360(1)<\/b> \\u2014 if the President is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the <b>financial stability or credit of India or of any part of its territory is threatened<\/b>, he may declare a Financial Emergency by Proclamation. It must be approved by <b>both Houses within two months<\/b> by a simple majority, and once approved it continues <b>indefinitely until revoked<\/b> \\u2014 no periodic renewal is required, unlike Articles 352 and 356.<br><br><b>Comparative record of the three emergencies:<\/b><br>(i) <b>Article 352 \\u2014 National Emergency: three times<\/b> \\u2014 1962 (Chinese aggression), 1971 (war with Pakistan) and 1975 (internal disturbance).<br>(ii) <b>Article 356 \\u2014 President's Rule: well over a hundred times<\/b> across the States and Union territories.<br>(iii) <b>Article 360 \\u2014 Financial Emergency: never<\/b>.<br><br>Hence option <b>(d)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 133,\r\n    \"year\": \"2024\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The National Emergency proclaimed under Article 352 of the Constitution of India affects which of the following?\\n1. Fundamental Rights\\n2. Directive Principles of State Policy\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"Both 1 and 2\",\r\n      \"Neither 1 nor 2\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Statement 1 \\u2014 correct.<\/b> A National Emergency affects Fundamental Rights in two distinct ways:<br>(i) <b>Article 358<\/b> \\u2014 while a Proclamation of Emergency declared on the ground of <b>war or external aggression<\/b> is in operation, the <b>six freedoms in Article 19<\/b> stand <b>automatically suspended<\/b>, and the State may make any law or take any executive action inconsistent with Article 19. Since the 44th Amendment Act, 1978, Article 358 does <b>not<\/b> apply to an Emergency declared on the ground of <b>armed rebellion<\/b>, and it protects only laws containing a recital that they relate to the Emergency.<br>(ii) <b>Article 359<\/b> \\u2014 the President may by order declare that the <b>right to move any court<\/b> for the enforcement of such of the rights conferred by Part III as may be mentioned in the order shall remain suspended. After the 44th Amendment, <b>Articles 20 and 21 can never be suspended<\/b> \\u2014 a direct response to <i>ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla (1976)<\/i>, since overruled in <i>K. S. Puttaswamy (2017)<\/i>.<br><br><b>Statement 2 \\u2014 incorrect.<\/b> The <b>Directive Principles<\/b> in Part IV are <b>unaffected<\/b> by an Emergency. They are already <b>non-justiciable<\/b> under <b>Article 37<\/b> \\u2014 not enforceable by any court, though fundamental in the governance of the country \\u2014 so there is nothing for an Emergency to suspend.<br><br><b>Other effects of Article 352:<\/b> the federal structure turns unitary (Articles 250, 353, 354), Parliament may extend the term of the Lok Sabha by one year at a time (proviso to Article 83(2)), and the Union may give executive directions to States on any matter.<br><br>Hence 1 only \\u2014 option <b>(a)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 134,\r\n    \"year\": \"2024\",\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India can be used by the President to declare a financial emergency?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 32\",\r\n      \"Article 349\",\r\n      \"Article 360\",\r\n      \"Article 365\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 360(1)<\/b> \\u2014 if the President is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the <b>financial stability or credit of India or of any part of the territory thereof is threatened<\/b>, he may by a Proclamation make a declaration to that effect.<br><br><b>Procedure and duration:<\/b><br>(i) The Proclamation must be laid before each House and <b>ceases to operate at the expiration of two months<\/b> unless approved by resolutions of both Houses \\u2014 by a <b>simple majority<\/b>, unlike the special majority required under Article 352.<br>(ii) Once approved, it continues <b>indefinitely until revoked<\/b> by a subsequent Proclamation; there is no requirement of periodic renewal.<br>(iii) The 38th Amendment had made the President's satisfaction final and conclusive, but the <b>44th Amendment Act, 1978<\/b> removed that immunity, so the Proclamation is <b>justiciable<\/b>.<br><br><b>Consequences \\u2014 Article 360(3) and (4):<\/b> directions to States to observe canons of financial propriety; reduction of salaries and allowances of State and Union employees; reduction of the salaries of <b>Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts<\/b>; and reservation of all Money Bills and other Bills under Article 207 passed by State Legislatures for the President's consideration.<br><br><b>The distractors:<\/b> <b>Article 32<\/b> \\u2014 right to constitutional remedies; <b>Article 349<\/b> \\u2014 special procedure for the enactment of certain laws relating to language; <b>Article 365<\/b> \\u2014 effect of failure of a State to comply with directions of the Union.<br><br>Hence option <b>(c)<\/b>.\"\r\n  }\r\n];\r\n\r\nconst conceptQuestions = [\r\n   \/\/ Conduct of Government Business (Article 77)\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 1,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Conduct of Government Business (Article 77)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"All executive action of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The Prime Minister\",\r\n      \"The President\",\r\n      \"The Union Cabinet\",\r\n      \"The Cabinet Secretary\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 77(1)<\/b> provides that all executive action of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President. This is a formal requirement only; the actual decision is taken by the Council of Ministers, since under <b>Article 74(1)<\/b> the President acts on their aid and advice.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 2,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Conduct of Government Business (Article 77)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Under Article 77(2), orders and other instruments made and executed in the name of the President are to be authenticated in such manner as may be specified in rules made by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Parliament by law\",\r\n      \"The President\",\r\n      \"The Cabinet Secretariat\",\r\n      \"The Prime Minister\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 77(2)<\/b> states that orders and other instruments made and executed in the name of the President shall be authenticated in such manner as may be specified in rules <i>made by the President<\/i>. The validity of an order or instrument so authenticated shall not be called in question on the ground that it is not an order or instrument made or executed by the President.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 3,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Conduct of Government Business (Article 77)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules and the Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules derive their authority from:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 53(1)\",\r\n      \"Article 74(1)\",\r\n      \"Article 77(3)\",\r\n      \"Article 78\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 77(3)<\/b> requires the President to make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business. Both the Allocation of Business Rules, 1961 and the Transaction of Business Rules, 1961 are framed under this clause.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 4,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Conduct of Government Business (Article 77)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements regarding Article 77: I. All executive action of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President. II. The validity of an order authenticated in accordance with the rules cannot be questioned on the ground that it is not an order made or executed by the President. III. The President shall make rules for the allocation of business among Ministers. How many of the above statements are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"All three\",\r\n      \"None\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"All three are correct. Statement I is <b>Article 77(1)<\/b>; Statement II is the protective clause in <b>Article 77(2)<\/b>; Statement III is <b>Article 77(3)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 5,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Conduct of Government Business (Article 77)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following is NOT dealt with by Article 77?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Expression of executive action in the name of the President\",\r\n      \"Authentication of orders and instruments\",\r\n      \"Rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India\",\r\n      \"Duty of the Prime Minister to furnish information to the President relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The duty of the Prime Minister to communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation is contained in <b>Article 78<\/b>, not Article 77. Options (a), (b) and (c) correspond to Articles 77(1), 77(2) and 77(3) respectively.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 6,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Conduct of Government Business (Article 77)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The protection available under Article 77(2) is that the validity of a duly authenticated order cannot be called in question on the ground that:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"It was not made with the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers\",\r\n      \"It is not an order or instrument made or executed by the President\",\r\n      \"It violates a fundamental right guaranteed by Part III\",\r\n      \"It was not laid before both Houses of Parliament\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 77(2)<\/b> gives a narrow, purely formal immunity: an order authenticated as per the President's rules cannot be challenged merely on the ground that it is not an order made or executed by the President. The order remains fully open to challenge on substantive grounds, including violation of fundamental rights.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 7,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Conduct of Government Business (Article 77)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Conduct of business of the Government of India?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 74\",\r\n      \"Article 75\",\r\n      \"Article 77\",\r\n      \"Article 78\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 77<\/b> \u2014 Conduct of business of the Government of India. Article 74 deals with the Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President, Article 75 with the appointment of Ministers, and Article 78 with the duties of the Prime Minister.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 8,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Conduct of Government Business (Article 77)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India requires the President to make rules for the allocation of business among Ministers?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 74(1)\",\r\n      \"Article 75(3)\",\r\n      \"Article 77(3)\",\r\n      \"Article 78(a)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 77(3)<\/b> \u2014 the President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.\"\r\n  } ,\r\n   \/\/ Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\r\n   {\r\n    \"id\": 9,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following correctly distinguishes adjournment sine die from prorogation?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Adjournment sine die terminates a sitting for an indefinite period and is ordered by the presiding officer, while prorogation terminates a session and is ordered by the President\",\r\n      \"Both are ordered by the President\",\r\n      \"Adjournment sine die terminates the session, while prorogation terminates a sitting\",\r\n      \"Both terminate the life of the House\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Adjournment and adjournment <i>sine die<\/i> are the presiding officer's powers and terminate a <b>sitting<\/b>. Prorogation under <b>Article 85(2)(a)<\/b> is the President's power and terminates a <b>session<\/b>. Neither affects pending Bills, which survive under Article 107(3); only dissolution of the House of the People causes Bills to lapse.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 10,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"A motion of no-confidence in the Council of Ministers:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Is expressly provided for in Article 75 of the Constitution\",\r\n      \"Is not mentioned in the Constitution and is moved under the Rules of Procedure of the House of the People, deriving its force from the collective responsibility clause in Article 75(3)\",\r\n      \"May be moved in either House of Parliament\",\r\n      \"Requires a special majority to be carried\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The Constitution does not use the expression no-confidence motion. It is a device under Rule 198 of the Rules of Procedure of the House of the People, resting on <b>Article 75(3)<\/b>, which makes the Council of Ministers collectively responsible to the House of the People. It can be moved only in that House, needs the support of 50 members for admission, and is carried by a simple majority.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 11,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The Zero Hour in Indian parliamentary practice:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Is provided for in Article 118 of the Constitution\",\r\n      \"Is mentioned in the Rules of Procedure but not in the Constitution\",\r\n      \"Is an Indian innovation mentioned neither in the Constitution nor in the Rules of Procedure\",\r\n      \"Is the period reserved for the Question Hour\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The <b>Zero Hour<\/b> \u2014 the period immediately following the Question Hour, in which members raise matters without prior notice \u2014 is an Indian innovation dating from 1962 and finds no mention in the Constitution or in the Rules of Procedure. The Question Hour, by contrast, is regulated by the Rules.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 12,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following statements about an Adjournment Motion is correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"It can be moved in both Houses of Parliament\",\r\n      \"It can be moved only in the House of the People, and involves an element of censure against the Government\",\r\n      \"It is used to seek information from a Minister\",\r\n      \"It is admitted only with the prior consent of the President\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"An <b>Adjournment Motion<\/b> is introduced to draw attention to a definite matter of urgent public importance and carries an element of censure, which is why it is available only in the <b>House of the People<\/b> and not in the Council of States. It needs the support of 50 members and the discussion must last not less than two and a half hours.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 13,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements regarding the Motion of Thanks: I. It is moved in response to the President's address under Article 87. II. It must be passed in the House, failing which it amounts to a defeat of the Government. III. Amendments may be moved to it. Which of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I and II only\",\r\n      \"II and III only\",\r\n      \"I and III only\",\r\n      \"I, II and III\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"All three are correct. The <b>Motion of Thanks<\/b> on the President's address under <b>Article 87<\/b> must be passed; failure to pass it is treated as a defeat of the Government. Members may move amendments, and amendments have on occasion been carried, as in 1980 and 1989.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 14,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The device of the Question Hour includes a Starred Question, which:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Requires a written answer and permits supplementary questions\",\r\n      \"Requires an oral answer and permits supplementary questions\",\r\n      \"Requires a written answer and permits no supplementary questions\",\r\n      \"Is asked with a notice period of ten days\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"A <b>Starred Question<\/b> is distinguished by an asterisk, requires an <i>oral<\/i> answer, and permits supplementary questions. An <b>Unstarred Question<\/b> requires a written answer and permits no supplementaries. A <b>Short Notice Question<\/b> is asked at less than ten days' notice and is answered orally.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 15,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"In relation to the Speaker of the House of the People, which one of the following is correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The Speaker votes in the first instance on every question and again in the case of a tie\",\r\n      \"The Speaker does not vote in the first instance but exercises a casting vote in the case of an equality of votes\",\r\n      \"The Speaker never votes\",\r\n      \"The Speaker votes only on Money Bills\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The proviso to <b>Article 100(1)<\/b> gives the presiding officer a <b>casting vote<\/b> only. The single exception arises under Article 96(2), where a resolution for the Speaker's own removal is under consideration: there he may vote in the first instance but has no casting vote.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 16,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which of the following are among the special powers of the Council of States not shared with the House of the People? I. To declare by resolution that Parliament may legislate on a State List matter in the national interest. II. To declare by resolution that Parliament may create one or more all-India services. III. To initiate the removal of the Vice-President. Select the correct answer:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I and II only\",\r\n      \"II and III only\",\r\n      \"I and III only\",\r\n      \"I, II and III\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"All three are exclusive to the Council of States. Statement I is <b>Article 249<\/b>, statement II is <b>Article 312<\/b>, and statement III arises under <b>Article 67(b)<\/b>, under which a resolution for the removal of the Vice-President must be initiated in the Council of States and then agreed to by the House of the People.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 17,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following statements about the Council of States and Money Bills is correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"It may amend a Money Bill but not reject it\",\r\n      \"It may neither amend nor reject a Money Bill, and may only make recommendations within fourteen days\",\r\n      \"It may reject a Money Bill but not amend it\",\r\n      \"It has the same powers as the House of the People\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Under <b>Article 109<\/b> the Council of States has only recommendatory power over a Money Bill and must return it within fourteen days. The House of the People may accept or reject those recommendations; if the Bill is not returned in time it is deemed passed by both Houses.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 18,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"A Bill that has been passed by both Houses and returned by the President under Article 111 for reconsideration:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Lapses if not reconsidered within six weeks\",\r\n      \"Must be reconsidered by the Houses, and if passed again with or without amendment, the President is bound to give assent\",\r\n      \"May be returned by the President a second time\",\r\n      \"Requires a special majority on reconsideration\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The proviso to <b>Article 111<\/b> permits a single return, and on second presentation assent is obligatory. There is no prescribed time limit within which the President must act on a Bill presented to him \u2014 the gap that gives rise to the so-called <b>pocket veto<\/b>, famously exercised in respect of the Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill, 1986.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 19,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The quorum for a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament is:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"One-tenth of the total number of members of the House of the People\",\r\n      \"One-tenth of the total number of members of both Houses\",\r\n      \"One-fifth of the total number of members of both Houses\",\r\n      \"One-half of the total number of members of both Houses\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The Rules of Procedure with respect to joint sittings, made by the President under <b>Article 118(3)<\/b>, fix the quorum at one-tenth of the total number of members of the two Houses. The Speaker of the House of the People presides under Article 118(4).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 20,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The three kinds of Cut Motions moved against a demand for grant are:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Policy Cut, Economy Cut and Token Cut\",\r\n      \"Policy Cut, Budget Cut and Token Cut\",\r\n      \"Economy Cut, Revenue Cut and Token Cut\",\r\n      \"Policy Cut, Economy Cut and Guillotine\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"A <b>Policy Cut<\/b> reduces the demand to Re 1 and expresses disapproval of the underlying policy; an <b>Economy Cut<\/b> reduces the demand by a specified amount to effect economy; a <b>Token Cut<\/b> reduces the demand by Rs 100 to ventilate a specific grievance. All are moved in the House of the People.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 21,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The device known as the Guillotine in budgetary procedure refers to:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The rejection of the entire budget by the House\",\r\n      \"The putting to vote of all outstanding demands for grants on the last allotted day, whether or not they have been discussed\",\r\n      \"The reduction of a demand to Re 1\",\r\n      \"The President's refusal of assent to an Appropriation Bill\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"On the last of the days allotted for the discussion of demands, the Speaker applies the <b>Guillotine<\/b> and puts all outstanding demands to vote, discussed or not. Since the days allotted are limited, most demands are in practice passed without discussion.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 22,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following correctly states the position regarding a Vote on Account?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"It is a vote on both expenditure and taxation and is normally granted for six months\",\r\n      \"It is a vote on expenditure alone and is normally granted for two months\",\r\n      \"It is a vote on taxation alone and is normally granted for two months\",\r\n      \"It requires the prior approval of the Finance Commission\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"A <b>Vote on Account<\/b> under <b>Article 116(1)(a)<\/b> is a grant in advance in respect of the <i>estimated expenditure<\/i> for a part of the financial year, pending completion of the procedure in Article 113. It is normally granted for two months, for one-sixth of the total estimate, and is passed after the general discussion on the budget is over.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 23,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements: I. An Appropriation Bill authorises withdrawal of money from the Consolidated Fund of India. II. A Finance Bill gives effect to the financial proposals of the Government for the following financial year. III. No amendment may be moved to an Appropriation Bill that varies the amount or alters the destination of any grant. Which of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I and II only\",\r\n      \"II and III only\",\r\n      \"I and III only\",\r\n      \"I, II and III\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"All three are correct. Statements I and III correspond to <b>Article 114(1) and (2)<\/b>. The Finance Bill giving effect to taxation proposals is a Financial Bill of the first category under Article 117(1), and must be passed within seventy-five days of its introduction under the Provisional Collection of Taxes Act.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 24,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The Railway Budget was merged with the General Budget with effect from:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"2015-16\",\r\n      \"2016-17\",\r\n      \"2017-18\",\r\n      \"2018-19\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The separate Railway Budget, a practice originating in the recommendations of the <b>Acworth Committee<\/b> and given effect from 1924-25, was merged with the General Budget from the financial year <b>2017-18<\/b>, on the recommendation of the Bibek Debroy Committee. The same year saw the advancement of the budget presentation date to 1 February.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 25,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Money withdrawn from the Contingency Fund of India to meet unforeseen expenditure is:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Never recouped\",\r\n      \"Recouped from the Consolidated Fund of India after Parliament authorises the expenditure through a supplementary or additional grant\",\r\n      \"Recouped from the Public Account of India\",\r\n      \"Treated as a permanent charge on the Fund\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The Contingency Fund under <b>Article 267<\/b> is in the nature of an <i>imprest<\/i>. An advance is made pending authorisation by Parliament, and once the supplementary or additional grant under Article 115 is voted and the Appropriation Act passed, an equivalent amount is transferred from the Consolidated Fund to restore the corpus.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 26,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following distinguishes the Public Account of India from the Consolidated Fund of India?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Expenditure from the Public Account does not require parliamentary appropriation, since the Government acts as a banker in respect of those moneys\",\r\n      \"The Public Account is operated by the Comptroller and Auditor General\",\r\n      \"The Public Account is not subject to audit\",\r\n      \"The Public Account is established by executive order and not by the Constitution\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Both funds are established by <b>Article 266<\/b>. The Consolidated Fund can be drawn upon only under an appropriation made by law under Article 114(3), whereas the Public Account holds moneys such as provident fund deposits, small savings and judicial deposits in respect of which the Government is a trustee or banker, and disbursements from it do not require an appropriation.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 27,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"An excess grant under Article 115:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Is voted before the expenditure is incurred\",\r\n      \"Regularises expenditure already incurred in excess of the amount granted, and is first examined by the Public Accounts Committee\",\r\n      \"Is granted to meet an unexpected demand upon the resources of India\",\r\n      \"Is a grant in advance for a part of the financial year\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"An <b>excess grant<\/b> is a post-facto regularisation of expenditure incurred beyond the sanctioned amount. Article 115(1)(b) requires the demand to be presented to the House of the People, and by convention it is first scrutinised by the <b>Public Accounts Committee<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 28,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The freedom of speech guaranteed to a member of Parliament by Article 105(1) is:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Identical to the freedom of speech under Article 19(1)(a)\",\r\n      \"Subject to the provisions of the Constitution and to the rules and standing orders regulating the procedure of Parliament, and is available only within the House\",\r\n      \"Absolute and unqualified\",\r\n      \"Available also in respect of statements made outside the House\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 105(1)<\/b> makes the freedom subject to the Constitution and to the rules and standing orders. It is available only in respect of anything said <i>in Parliament<\/i> or in a committee thereof; a member repeating the same statement outside the House enjoys no immunity and may be sued or prosecuted.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 29,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The 44th Amendment Act, 1978 amended Article 105(3) so as to:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Abolish all parliamentary privileges\",\r\n      \"Remove the express reference to the privileges of the House of Commons of the United Kingdom, while preserving the same privileges by reference to the position obtaining immediately before that amendment\",\r\n      \"Codify all privileges in a schedule to the Constitution\",\r\n      \"Transfer the power to define privileges to the President\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Article 105(3) originally defined the residual privileges by reference to those of the <b>House of Commons<\/b>. The 44th Amendment replaced this with a reference to the privileges obtaining immediately before the coming into force of Section 15 of that Act \u2014 a change of form rather than of substance, since the content of the privileges was preserved. Parliament has never enacted a law codifying them.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 30,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Disqualification on the ground of defection under Article 102(2) read with the Tenth Schedule is decided by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The President, on the opinion of the Election Commission\",\r\n      \"The Chairman or the Speaker of the House concerned\",\r\n      \"The Supreme Court\",\r\n      \"A committee of the House\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Paragraph 6 of the <b>Tenth Schedule<\/b> vests the decision in the Chairman or Speaker, and declares it final. In <b>Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1992)<\/b> the Supreme Court struck down paragraph 7, which had ousted judicial review, holding that the presiding officer acts as a tribunal and his decision is subject to review on grounds of mala fides, perversity or violation of natural justice.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 31,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following exemptions from disqualification survives under the Tenth Schedule today?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Split of a legislature party by one-third of its members\",\r\n      \"Merger of the original political party with another, where not less than two-thirds of the members of the legislature party agree to the merger\",\r\n      \"Voluntary resignation from the party\",\r\n      \"Abstention from voting on a whip\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The exemption for a <b>split<\/b> by one-third of the members, contained in paragraph 3, was <b>deleted by the 91st Amendment Act, 2003<\/b>. The only surviving exemption of this kind is <b>merger<\/b> under paragraph 4, requiring the agreement of not less than two-thirds of the members of the legislature party.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 32,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The 91st Amendment Act, 2003 provided that a member disqualified on the ground of defection:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"May continue as a Minister until the next general election\",\r\n      \"Shall be disqualified from being appointed as a Minister and from holding any remunerative political post until he is again elected or his term expires\",\r\n      \"Shall be barred from contesting elections for six years\",\r\n      \"Shall forfeit his pension\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The 91st Amendment inserted <b>Article 75(1B)<\/b> and <b>Article 164(1B)<\/b> to this effect, and also inserted <b>Article 75(1A)<\/b> capping the Council of Ministers at fifteen per cent of the total strength of the House of the People. The corresponding cap for States under Article 164(1A) carries a minimum of twelve Ministers.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 33,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following is NOT a privilege enjoyed by members of Parliament?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Freedom from arrest in civil cases during the continuance of the session and forty days before and after it\",\r\n      \"Freedom from liability in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given in Parliament\",\r\n      \"Freedom from arrest in criminal cases and in cases of preventive detention\",\r\n      \"Exemption from jury service\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The privilege of freedom from arrest, derived from Section 135 of the Code of Civil Procedure, extends only to <b>civil<\/b> cases. Members enjoy no immunity from arrest in criminal matters or under preventive detention laws \u2014 a point frequently tested.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 34,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 was enacted under the authority of:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 102(1)(a), which permits Parliament to declare by law that a particular office shall not disqualify its holder\",\r\n      \"Article 103\",\r\n      \"Article 105(3)\",\r\n      \"Article 106\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 102(1)(a)<\/b> disqualifies a person holding an office of profit under the Government of India or of any State <i>other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder<\/i>. The 1959 Act, amended in 2006 with retrospective effect, lists such exempted offices.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 35,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Under Article 79, the Parliament for the Union consists of:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The two Houses only\",\r\n      \"The President and the two Houses\",\r\n      \"The President, the two Houses and the Council of Ministers\",\r\n      \"The President and the House of the People\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 79<\/b> provides that there shall be a Parliament for the Union which shall consist of <i>the President and two Houses<\/i> to be known respectively as the Council of States and the House of the People. The President is an integral part of Parliament though he does not sit in either House \u2014 a frequently tested point.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 36,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The maximum strength of the Council of States as laid down in Article 80 is:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"238\",\r\n      \"245\",\r\n      \"250\",\r\n      \"252\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 80(1)<\/b> fixes the maximum strength at <b>250<\/b> \u2014 not more than 238 representatives of the States and of the Union territories, plus 12 members nominated by the President. The <i>present actual<\/i> strength is 245 (233 elected + 12 nominated), which is a separate fact from the constitutional ceiling.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 37,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The members nominated by the President to the Council of States must have special knowledge or practical experience in respect of:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Literature, science, art and social service\",\r\n      \"Law, education, medicine and engineering\",\r\n      \"Defence, foreign affairs, finance and administration\",\r\n      \"Agriculture, industry, trade and commerce\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 80(3)<\/b> specifies that the twelve nominated members shall consist of persons having special knowledge or practical experience in respect of such matters as <i>literature, science, art and social service<\/i>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 38,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Representatives of each State in the Council of States are elected by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The people of the State directly\",\r\n      \"The elected members of the Legislative Assembly of the State in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote\",\r\n      \"All members, elected and nominated, of the Legislative Assembly of the State\",\r\n      \"The members of both Houses of the State Legislature\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 80(4)<\/b> provides that representatives of each State in the Council of States shall be elected by the <i>elected<\/i> members of the Legislative Assembly of the State in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. Nominated MLAs do not participate.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 39,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The allocation of seats in the Council of States to the States and Union territories is specified in:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The Second Schedule\",\r\n      \"The Third Schedule\",\r\n      \"The Fourth Schedule\",\r\n      \"The Seventh Schedule\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 80(2)<\/b> read with the <b>Fourth Schedule<\/b> governs the allocation of seats in the Council of States. The Second Schedule deals with emoluments of certain office-holders, the Third with forms of oaths, and the Seventh with the three legislative Lists.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 40,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Representatives of the Union territories in the Council of States are chosen in such manner as:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The President may by order direct\",\r\n      \"Parliament may by law prescribe\",\r\n      \"The Election Commission may determine\",\r\n      \"The Administrator of the Union territory may decide\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 80(5)<\/b> provides that the representatives of the Union territories in the Council of States shall be chosen in such manner as <i>Parliament may by law prescribe<\/i>. This is in contrast with State representatives, whose mode of election is fixed by Article 80(4) itself.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 41,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"As the Constitution stands today, the maximum strength of the House of the People under Article 81 is:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"543\",\r\n      \"545\",\r\n      \"550\",\r\n      \"552\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 81(1)<\/b> permits not more than 530 members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the States and not more than 20 representatives of the Union territories \u2014 a ceiling of <b>550<\/b>. The figure of 552 is now outdated: the two Anglo-Indian nominated seats stood removed when the <b>Constitution (One Hundred and Fourth Amendment) Act, 2019<\/b> omitted Article 331 with effect from 25 January 2020.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 42,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements regarding Article 81: I. The ratio between the number of seats allotted to each State and the population of that State shall, so far as practicable, be the same for all States. II. Each State shall be divided into territorial constituencies in such manner that the ratio between the population of each constituency and the number of seats allotted to it shall, so far as practicable, be the same throughout the State. III. The requirement in statement I applies to every State irrespective of its population. Which of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I and II only\",\r\n      \"II and III only\",\r\n      \"I and III only\",\r\n      \"I, II and III\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Statements I and II reproduce <b>Article 81(2)(a)<\/b> and <b>81(2)(b)<\/b>. Statement III is incorrect: the <i>proviso to Article 81(2)<\/i> expressly exempts a State whose population does not exceed sixty lakhs from the requirement in clause (2)(a), which is why smaller States are not disadvantaged in seat allocation.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 43,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Readjustment of the allocation of seats in the House of the People and the division of States into territorial constituencies upon completion of each census is provided for under:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 80\",\r\n      \"Article 81\",\r\n      \"Article 82\",\r\n      \"Article 83\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 82<\/b> provides for readjustment after each census by such authority and in such manner as Parliament may by law determine. The <b>84th Amendment Act, 2001<\/b> froze the allocation of seats among States on the basis of the 1971 census until the first census taken after 2026; the <b>87th Amendment Act, 2003<\/b> permitted redrawing of territorial constituencies on the basis of the 2001 census figures.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 44,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following statements about the Council of States is correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"It is subject to dissolution in the same manner as the House of the People\",\r\n      \"It is not subject to dissolution, but as nearly as possible one-third of its members retire on the expiration of every second year\",\r\n      \"Half of its members retire on the expiration of every third year\",\r\n      \"It stands automatically dissolved on completion of six years\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 83(1)<\/b> makes the Council of States a permanent House not subject to dissolution; as nearly as possible one-third of its members retire on the expiration of every second year, in accordance with provisions made by Parliament by law. Each member thus effectively serves a six-year term.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 45,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The normal term of five years of the House of the People under Article 83(2) is reckoned from:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The date of notification of the general election results\",\r\n      \"The date appointed for its first meeting\",\r\n      \"The date on which the Speaker takes oath\",\r\n      \"The 1st of April following the general election\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 83(2)<\/b> provides that the House of the People, unless sooner dissolved, shall continue for five years <i>from the date appointed for its first meeting<\/i> and no longer; the expiration of that period operates as a dissolution of the House.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 46,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements regarding extension of the term of the House of the People: I. While a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, Parliament may by law extend the term for a period not exceeding one year at a time. II. Such extension cannot in any case continue beyond a period of six months after the Proclamation has ceased to operate. III. The term of the Council of States may be extended in the same manner. Which of the statements given above is\/are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I only\",\r\n      \"I and II only\",\r\n      \"II and III only\",\r\n      \"I, II and III\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The proviso to <b>Article 83(2)<\/b> permits extension by not more than one year at a time while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, and in no case beyond six months after the Proclamation ceases to operate. Statement III is wrong \u2014 the Council of States is a permanent body not subject to dissolution under Article 83(1), so no question of extending its term arises.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 47,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The minimum age for membership of the Council of States and of the House of the People is respectively:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"25 years and 30 years\",\r\n      \"30 years and 25 years\",\r\n      \"35 years and 30 years\",\r\n      \"30 years and 21 years\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 84(b)<\/b> requires a person to be not less than <b>30 years<\/b> of age for a seat in the Council of States and not less than <b>25 years<\/b> for a seat in the House of the People.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 48,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following is NOT a qualification for membership of Parliament laid down in Article 84?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Being a citizen of India\",\r\n      \"Making and subscribing an oath or affirmation before a person authorised in that behalf by the Election Commission\",\r\n      \"Being of the prescribed minimum age\",\r\n      \"Being registered as an elector in the constituency from which the person seeks election\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 84<\/b> lays down only three qualifications: citizenship of India, the making and subscribing of the oath in the form set out in the Third Schedule, and the prescribed minimum age. The requirement of being a registered elector flows from the <i>Representation of the People Act, 1951<\/i>, a statutory and not a constitutional qualification. Article 84(c) also permits Parliament to prescribe further qualifications by law.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 49,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Under Article 85(1), the maximum permissible gap between the last sitting of one session and the date appointed for the first sitting of the next session is:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Three months\",\r\n      \"Four months\",\r\n      \"Six months\",\r\n      \"One year\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 85(1)<\/b> requires the President to summon each House at such time and place as he thinks fit, but <i>six months shall not intervene<\/i> between the last sitting in one session and the date appointed for the first sitting in the next session. The Constitution does not prescribe a minimum number of sessions per year; the six-month rule in practice compels at least two.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 50,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The power to summon and prorogue the Houses of Parliament and to dissolve the House of the People vests in:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The Speaker of the House of the People\",\r\n      \"The President\",\r\n      \"The Prime Minister\",\r\n      \"The Union Cabinet\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 85(2)<\/b> empowers the President from time to time to prorogue the Houses or either House and to dissolve the House of the People. Summoning is under Article 85(1). The President exercises these powers on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers under Article 74(1).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 51,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following in relation to Article 86: I. The President may address either House of Parliament or both Houses assembled together. II. The President may send messages to either House with respect to a Bill then pending in Parliament or otherwise. III. For the purpose of such an address the President may require the attendance of members. Which of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I only\",\r\n      \"I and II only\",\r\n      \"II and III only\",\r\n      \"I, II and III\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"All three are correct. <b>Article 86(1)<\/b> confers the right to address either House or both Houses assembled together and to require the attendance of members for that purpose; <b>Article 86(2)<\/b> confers the right to send messages, whether with respect to a Bill pending in Parliament or otherwise, and the House must consider the matter with all convenient despatch.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 52,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The 'special address' by the President to both Houses assembled together is provided for under:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 85\",\r\n      \"Article 86\",\r\n      \"Article 87\",\r\n      \"Article 88\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 87(1)<\/b> requires the President to address both Houses assembled together at the commencement of the first session after each general election to the House of the People and at the commencement of the first session of each year, informing Parliament of the causes of its summons.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 53,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following statements regarding the President's special address under Article 87 is correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The President addresses both Houses assembled together at the commencement of every session\",\r\n      \"The President addresses both Houses assembled together at the commencement of the first session after each general election and at the commencement of the first session of each year\",\r\n      \"The President addresses only the House of the People\",\r\n      \"The address is delivered by the Prime Minister on behalf of the President\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Option (b) reflects <b>Article 87(1)<\/b> as it stands today. As originally enacted, the address was required at the commencement of <i>every<\/i> session; this was altered by the <b>Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 54,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Under Article 88, the Attorney-General of India has the right to:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Speak in and take part in the proceedings of either House and to vote therein\",\r\n      \"Speak in and take part in the proceedings of either House, any joint sitting, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member, but not to vote\",\r\n      \"Attend the proceedings of either House only as an observer\",\r\n      \"Speak only in the House of the People\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 88<\/b> gives every Minister and the Attorney-General of India the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member \u2014 but expressly <i>no right to vote<\/i>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 55,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements: 1. Both the Attorney-General of India and the Solicitor General of India are entitled to participate in the proceedings of Parliament. 2. Under Article 88 a Minister has the right to speak in a House of which he is not a member, but cannot vote in that House. Which of the statements given above is\/are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1 only\",\r\n      \"2 only\",\r\n      \"Both 1 and 2\",\r\n      \"Neither 1 nor 2\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Statement 1 is incorrect: <b>Article 88<\/b> names only Ministers and the <i>Attorney-General of India<\/i>. The Solicitor General is a statutory law officer with no such constitutional right. Statement 2 is correct \u2014 the right to speak extends to either House, but the right to vote exists only in the House of which the Minister is a member. (Modelled on UPSC CSE 2022.)\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 56,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"With reference to the nominated members of the two Houses of Parliament, which one of the following is correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"They may vote in both the Presidential and the Vice-Presidential elections\",\r\n      \"They may vote in neither election\",\r\n      \"They may not vote in the election of the President, but may vote in the election of the Vice-President\",\r\n      \"They may vote in the election of the President, but not in the election of the Vice-President\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The electoral college for the President under <b>Article 54<\/b> consists only of the <i>elected<\/i> members of both Houses and of the State Legislative Assemblies, so nominated members are excluded. The electoral college for the Vice-President under <b>Article 66(1)<\/b> consists of the members of both Houses of Parliament, which includes nominated members. (Tested in UPSC CSE 2013.)\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 57,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The nomination of members of the Anglo-Indian community to the House of the People was discontinued by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The 91st Amendment Act\",\r\n      \"The 101st Amendment Act\",\r\n      \"The 104th Amendment Act\",\r\n      \"The 106th Amendment Act\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The <b>Constitution (One Hundred and Fourth Amendment) Act, 2019<\/b>, in force from 25 January 2020, omitted <b>Article 331<\/b> (and correspondingly Article 333 for State Assemblies), ending Anglo-Indian nomination, while extending reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes for a further ten years.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 58,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The Chairman of the Council of States is:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Elected by the members of the Council from amongst themselves\",\r\n      \"The Vice-President of India, who is ex officio Chairman of the Council\",\r\n      \"Nominated by the President\",\r\n      \"The senior-most member of the Council\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 89(1)<\/b> provides that the Vice-President of India shall be <i>ex officio<\/i> Chairman of the Council of States. He is therefore not a member of the House he presides over \u2014 a standing point of distinction from the Speaker of the House of the People.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 59,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The Deputy Chairman of the Council of States is chosen by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The President\",\r\n      \"The Chairman of the Council of States\",\r\n      \"The Council of States from amongst its members\",\r\n      \"The members of both Houses of Parliament\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 89(2)<\/b> requires the Council of States to choose a member of the Council to be Deputy Chairman as soon as may be, and, whenever the office becomes vacant, to choose another member.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 60,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements: I. The Chairman of the Council of States is not a member of that House. II. The Deputy Chairman of the Council of States is not a member of that House. Which of the statements given above is\/are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I only\",\r\n      \"II only\",\r\n      \"Both I and II\",\r\n      \"Neither I nor II\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Only statement I is correct. The Chairman is the Vice-President of India under <b>Article 89(1)<\/b> and is not a member of the Council. The Deputy Chairman, however, must be chosen by the Council <i>from amongst its own members<\/i> under <b>Article 89(2)<\/b>, and vacates the office on ceasing to be a member under Article 90(a). (Directly tested in UPSC CSE 2013.)\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 61,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The Deputy Chairman of the Council of States addresses his resignation to:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The President\",\r\n      \"The Chairman of the Council of States\",\r\n      \"The Prime Minister\",\r\n      \"The Speaker of the House of the People\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 90(b)<\/b> provides that the Deputy Chairman may resign his office by writing under his hand addressed to the <i>Chairman<\/i>. Compare Article 94(b), under which the Speaker resigns to the Deputy Speaker and the Deputy Speaker to the Speaker.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 62,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Under Article 90, the Deputy Chairman of the Council of States may be removed from office by a resolution of the Council passed by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"A simple majority of the members present and voting\",\r\n      \"A majority of all the then members of the Council\",\r\n      \"Two-thirds of the members present and voting\",\r\n      \"Two-thirds of the total membership of the Council\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 90(c)<\/b> requires a resolution passed by a <i>majority of all the then members<\/i> of the Council \u2014 an effective majority. The proviso requires at least <b>fourteen days'<\/b> notice of the intention to move the resolution.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 63,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The minimum notice required before a resolution for the removal of the Deputy Chairman, the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker may be moved is:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"7 days\",\r\n      \"14 days\",\r\n      \"21 days\",\r\n      \"30 days\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"A uniform notice period of <b>fourteen days<\/b> is prescribed by the provisos to <b>Article 90(c)<\/b> (Deputy Chairman) and <b>Article 94(c)<\/b> (Speaker and Deputy Speaker). The same fourteen-day requirement applies to the removal of the Vice-President under Article 67(b).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 64,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"While the office of Chairman of the Council of States is vacant, or during any period when the Vice-President is acting as President, the duties of the office of Chairman are performed by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The Deputy Chairman, or if that office is also vacant, such member of the Council as the President may appoint for the purpose\",\r\n      \"The Leader of the House in the Council of States\",\r\n      \"A member nominated by the Prime Minister\",\r\n      \"The Speaker of the House of the People\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 91(1)<\/b> provides exactly this arrangement. Article 91(2) further provides that during the absence of the Chairman from any sitting, the Deputy Chairman, or if he is also absent such person as may be determined by the rules of procedure, shall act as Chairman.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 65,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements regarding Article 92: I. The Chairman shall not preside at any sitting while a resolution for his removal from office is under consideration. II. He has the right to speak in and otherwise take part in the proceedings of the Council during such consideration. III. He is entitled to vote only in the case of an equality of votes on such a resolution. Which of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I only\",\r\n      \"I and II only\",\r\n      \"I and III only\",\r\n      \"I, II and III\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Statements I and II reflect <b>Article 92(1) and 92(2)<\/b>. Statement III inverts the rule: Article 92(2) entitles him to vote <i>only in the first instance<\/i> on such a resolution or on any other matter during such proceedings, but <b>not<\/b> in the case of an equality of votes. The parallel provision for the Speaker is Article 96(2).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 66,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the House of the People are:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Appointed by the President from amongst the members of the House\",\r\n      \"Chosen by the House of the People from amongst its members\",\r\n      \"Nominated by the leader of the largest party in the House\",\r\n      \"Elected by the members of both Houses of Parliament\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 93<\/b> requires the House of the People, as soon as may be, to choose two members of the House to be respectively Speaker and Deputy Speaker, and to choose another member whenever either office becomes vacant.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 67,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The Speaker of the House of the People addresses his resignation to:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The President\",\r\n      \"The Deputy Speaker\",\r\n      \"The Prime Minister\",\r\n      \"The Leader of the House\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 94(b)<\/b> provides that the Speaker resigns by writing under his hand addressed to the <i>Deputy Speaker<\/i>, and the Deputy Speaker resigns by writing addressed to the <i>Speaker<\/i>. This mutual arrangement ensures that neither office falls vacant without the other officer being informed.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 68,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements: I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the House after the dissolution. II. A member of the House of the People, on being elected Speaker, is required by the Constitution to resign from his political party immediately. III. The Speaker may be removed from office by a resolution of the House passed by a majority of all the then members, provided that at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution. Which of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I and II only\",\r\n      \"II and III only\",\r\n      \"I and III only\",\r\n      \"I, II and III\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Statement I is the proviso to <b>Article 94(a)<\/b> and statement III is <b>Article 94(c)<\/b> with its proviso. Statement II is incorrect \u2014 the Constitution contains no such requirement; resignation from the party is a British convention that has not been adopted in India, and the Tenth Schedule merely protects a Speaker who voluntarily gives up party membership. (UPSC CSE 2025.)\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 69,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"While the office of Speaker is vacant, the duties of that office shall be performed by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The Deputy Speaker, or if that office is also vacant, such member of the House as the President may appoint for the purpose\",\r\n      \"The Prime Minister\",\r\n      \"The Secretary-General of the House of the People\",\r\n      \"The senior-most member of the House\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 95(1)<\/b> provides for this succession. Article 95(2) adds that during the absence of the Speaker from any sitting, the Deputy Speaker, or if he is also absent such person as may be determined by the rules of procedure of the House, shall act as Speaker.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 70,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The provision that the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker shall not preside while a resolution for his removal from office is under consideration is contained in:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 93\",\r\n      \"Article 94\",\r\n      \"Article 95\",\r\n      \"Article 96\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 96(1)<\/b> contains this rule for the Speaker and Deputy Speaker; the corresponding provision for the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Council of States is <b>Article 92(1)<\/b>. Article 93 deals with the choice of the officers, Article 94 with vacation, resignation and removal, and Article 95 with performance of duties in a vacancy.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 71,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The Deputy Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from office by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"An order of the President on the advice of the Speaker\",\r\n      \"A resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members, after fourteen days' notice\",\r\n      \"A resolution of the House of the People passed by two-thirds of the members present and voting\",\r\n      \"A resolution of the Council of States concurred in by the House of the People\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 94(c)<\/b> applies identically to the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker: removal is by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a <i>majority of all the then members<\/i>, with at least fourteen days' notice of the intention to move the resolution.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 72,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following statements about Article 97 is correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"It fixes the salaries and allowances of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker only\",\r\n      \"It fixes the salaries and allowances of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Council of States and of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of the People\",\r\n      \"It fixes the salaries and allowances of all Members of Parliament\",\r\n      \"It fixes the salaries and allowances of Ministers of the Union\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 97<\/b> covers all four presiding officers \u2014 the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Council of States and the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of the People \u2014 whose salaries are fixed by Parliament by law and, until so fixed, as specified in the Second Schedule. Under <b>Article 112(3)(b)<\/b> these salaries are <i>charged<\/i> on the Consolidated Fund of India and are therefore non-votable. Salaries of ordinary MPs fall under Article 106 and are voted.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 73,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 98 of the Constitution provides for:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"A single common secretariat for both Houses of Parliament\",\r\n      \"A separate secretarial staff for each House of Parliament, without preventing the creation of posts common to both Houses\",\r\n      \"A parliamentary secretariat under the control of the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs\",\r\n      \"A secretariat headed by the Cabinet Secretary\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 98(1)<\/b> provides that each House of Parliament shall have a separate secretarial staff, with a proviso saving the creation of posts common to both Houses. Article 98(2) empowers Parliament to regulate by law the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to the secretarial staff, and Article 98(3) permits the President, after consulting the Speaker or the Chairman, to make rules until such law is made.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 74,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Under Article 99, a member of either House of Parliament shall, before taking his seat, make and subscribe an oath or affirmation before:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The Speaker or the Chairman, as the case may be\",\r\n      \"The President, or some person appointed in that behalf by him\",\r\n      \"The Chief Justice of India\",\r\n      \"A person authorised by the Election Commission\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 99<\/b> requires the oath to be made before the President or some person appointed in that behalf by him, according to the form set out in the <b>Third Schedule<\/b>. Note the distinction from <b>Article 84(a)<\/b>, where the oath required as a <i>qualification for candidature<\/i> is taken before a person authorised by the Election Commission.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 75,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament is:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"One-tenth of the total number of members of the House\",\r\n      \"One-fifth of the total number of members of the House\",\r\n      \"One-fourth of the total number of members of the House\",\r\n      \"One-third of the total number of members of the House\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 100(3)<\/b> fixes the quorum at <i>one-tenth of the total number of members of the House<\/i>, unless Parliament by law otherwise provides. Under Article 100(4), if there is no quorum, it is the duty of the presiding officer to adjourn the House or suspend the meeting until there is a quorum.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 76,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements regarding voting in the Houses of Parliament under Article 100: I. All questions at any sitting are determined by a majority of votes of the members present and voting, other than the Speaker or person acting as Chairman or Speaker. II. The Speaker or Chairman shall not vote in the first instance, but shall have and exercise a casting vote in the case of an equality of votes. III. Either House has power to act notwithstanding any vacancy in its membership. Which of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I and II only\",\r\n      \"II and III only\",\r\n      \"I and III only\",\r\n      \"I, II and III\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"All three are correct. Statements I and II are <b>Article 100(1)<\/b> and its proviso; statement III is <b>Article 100(2)<\/b>, which further provides that proceedings are valid even if it is subsequently discovered that a person not entitled to do so sat, voted or otherwise took part.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 77,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"If a sitting member of Parliament is also chosen a member of a State Legislature, his seat in Parliament becomes vacant on the expiry of the prescribed period unless he has previously resigned his seat in the State Legislature. That period is:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"7 days\",\r\n      \"14 days\",\r\n      \"30 days\",\r\n      \"60 days\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 101(2)<\/b> leaves the period to rules made by the President; the Prohibition of Simultaneous Membership Rules, 1950 fix it at <b>fourteen days<\/b>. Under Article 101(1), a person cannot be a member of both Houses of Parliament, and Parliament by law provides for the vacation of one of the seats.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 78,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The House may declare a member's seat vacant if he is absent from all meetings of the House, without permission of the House, for a period of:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"30 days\",\r\n      \"45 days\",\r\n      \"60 days\",\r\n      \"90 days\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 101(4)<\/b> permits the House to declare the seat vacant after absence of <b>sixty days<\/b> without permission. In computing the sixty days, no account is taken of any period during which the House is prorogued or is adjourned for more than four consecutive days.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 79,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The resignation of a member of the House of the People is addressed to the Speaker, who:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Is bound to accept it as soon as it is received\",\r\n      \"May refuse to accept it if, from information received or otherwise and after such inquiry as he thinks fit, he is satisfied that it is not voluntary or genuine\",\r\n      \"Must forward it to the President for acceptance\",\r\n      \"Must place it before the House for its approval\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The proviso to <b>Article 101(3)(b)<\/b>, inserted by the <b>Constitution (Thirty-third Amendment) Act, 1974<\/b>, permits the Speaker or Chairman to decline acceptance where he is not satisfied that the resignation is voluntary or genuine. The amendment was a response to mass resignations obtained under duress.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 80,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following is NOT a ground of disqualification for membership of Parliament under Article 102(1)?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Holding an office of profit under the Government of India or of any State, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify\",\r\n      \"Being of unsound mind and so declared by a competent court\",\r\n      \"Being an undischarged insolvent\",\r\n      \"Having been convicted of an offence punishable with imprisonment for two years or more\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 102(1)<\/b> lists four specific grounds \u2014 office of profit, unsoundness of mind so declared by a competent court, undischarged insolvency, and not being a citizen or having voluntarily acquired foreign citizenship \u2014 plus clause (e), disqualification under any law made by Parliament. Conviction-based disqualification arises under <b>Section 8 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951<\/b>, which operates through clause (e), not directly under Article 102.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 81,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"A question as to whether a member of Parliament has become subject to any disqualification under Article 102(1) shall be decided by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The Speaker or the Chairman, as the case may be, whose decision is final\",\r\n      \"The President, who shall obtain the opinion of the Election Commission and shall act according to such opinion\",\r\n      \"The Supreme Court in the exercise of its original jurisdiction\",\r\n      \"The High Court of the State concerned\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 103<\/b> refers the question to the President, and clause (2) makes it obligatory for him to obtain the opinion of the Election Commission and to <i>act according to<\/i> that opinion. Disqualification on the ground of defection under Article 102(2) is decided by the Chairman or Speaker under Paragraph 6 of the <b>Tenth Schedule<\/b> \u2014 a distinct route.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 82,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Under Article 104, a person who sits or votes in either House before taking the oath, or when he knows he is disqualified, is liable to a penalty of:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Rs 100 for each day\",\r\n      \"Rs 500 for each day\",\r\n      \"Rs 1,000 for each day\",\r\n      \"Rs 2,500 for each day\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 104<\/b> prescribes a penalty of <b>five hundred rupees<\/b> for each day on which the person so sits or votes, recoverable as a debt due to the Union. The provision also covers a person sitting or voting when he is prohibited from doing so by any law made by Parliament.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 83,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements regarding Article 105: I. There shall be freedom of speech in Parliament, subject to the provisions of the Constitution and the rules and standing orders regulating its procedure. II. No member of Parliament shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in Parliament or any committee thereof. III. No person shall be liable in respect of the publication by or under the authority of either House of any report, paper, votes or proceedings. Which of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I and II only\",\r\n      \"II and III only\",\r\n      \"I and III only\",\r\n      \"I, II and III\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"All three are correct, corresponding to <b>Article 105(1), (2)<\/b> and the second limb of <b>105(2)<\/b>. Article 105(3) leaves other privileges to be defined by Parliament by law and, until so defined, to be those obtaining immediately before the coming into force of Section 15 of the <b>44th Amendment Act, 1978<\/b> \u2014 the amendment that removed the express reference to the House of Commons.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 84,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 106 provides that the salaries and allowances of members of Parliament shall be:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Determined by Parliament by law from time to time\",\r\n      \"Fixed by the President by order\",\r\n      \"Specified in the Second Schedule and unalterable\",\r\n      \"Determined by the Speaker and the Chairman jointly\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 106<\/b> leaves salaries and allowances of members to be determined by Parliament by law from time to time. Unlike the salaries of the presiding officers, which are <i>charged<\/i> on the Consolidated Fund of India under Article 112(3)(b), the salaries of ordinary members are <b>voted<\/b> expenditure.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 85,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The office-of-profit disqualification under Article 102(1)(a) does not apply to a Minister of the Union or of a State because:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Ministers are expressly exempted by Article 102 itself\",\r\n      \"The office of Minister is not an office of profit under the Government within the meaning of Article 102(1)(a)\",\r\n      \"The Speaker has ruled that Ministers are exempt\",\r\n      \"The Tenth Schedule exempts Ministers\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The Explanation to <b>Article 102<\/b> states that a person shall not be deemed to hold an office of profit merely because he is a Minister either for the Union or for a State. Other exemptions are granted by the <b>Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959<\/b>, enacted under the power reserved by Article 102(1)(a).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 86,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements regarding the lapsing of Bills under Article 107: I. A Bill pending in Parliament does not lapse by reason of the prorogation of the Houses. II. A Bill pending in the Council of States, which has not been passed by the House of the People, does not lapse on the dissolution of the House of the People. III. A Bill which has been passed by the House of the People and is pending in the Council of States lapses on the dissolution of the House of the People. Which of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I and II only\",\r\n      \"II and III only\",\r\n      \"I and III only\",\r\n      \"I, II and III\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"All three are correct. Statement I is <b>Article 107(3)<\/b>; statement II is the proviso to <b>Article 107(4)<\/b>; statement III follows from the main part of <b>Article 107(5)<\/b>. The practical rule: a Bill survives dissolution only if it originated in, and is still pending only in, the Council of States.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 87,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Under Article 108, the President may summon a joint sitting of both Houses in which of the following situations? I. The Bill has been rejected by the other House. II. The Houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments to be made in the Bill. III. More than six months have elapsed from the date of the reception of the Bill by the other House without the Bill being passed by it. Select the correct answer:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I only\",\r\n      \"I and II only\",\r\n      \"I, II and III\",\r\n      \"II and III only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"All three are the grounds set out in <b>Article 108(1)(a), (b) and (c)<\/b>. In computing the six-month period, no account is taken of any period during which the other House is prorogued or adjourned for more than four consecutive days.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 88,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"A joint sitting of the two Houses under Article 108 CANNOT be summoned in respect of:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"An ordinary Bill rejected by the Council of States\",\r\n      \"A Money Bill\",\r\n      \"A Financial Bill of the second category\",\r\n      \"A Bill returned by the President for reconsideration\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 108(1)<\/b> expressly excludes Money Bills, since Article 109 already gives the House of the People the final say. A joint sitting is also unavailable for a Constitutional Amendment Bill, because <b>Article 368<\/b> requires passage by each House separately with the prescribed majority.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 89,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"At a joint sitting of the two Houses, the Bill is deemed to be passed if it is agreed to by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"A majority of the total membership of both Houses\",\r\n      \"A majority of the total number of members of both Houses present and voting\",\r\n      \"Two-thirds of the members present and voting\",\r\n      \"A simple majority in each House counted separately\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 108(4)<\/b> requires agreement by a majority of the total number of members of both Houses present and voting. The joint sitting is presided over by the <b>Speaker<\/b> of the House of the People under <b>Article 118(4)<\/b>, and the quorum is one-tenth of the total number of members of both Houses.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 90,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"A joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament has been convened on how many occasions since the commencement of the Constitution?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Once\",\r\n      \"Twice\",\r\n      \"Thrice\",\r\n      \"Four times\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Three joint sittings have been held: for the <b>Dowry Prohibition Bill (1961)<\/b>, the <b>Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill (1978)<\/b>, and the <b>Prevention of Terrorism Bill (2002)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 91,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"When a Money Bill passed by the House of the People is transmitted to the Council of States, the Council must return it with its recommendations within:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"7 days\",\r\n      \"14 days\",\r\n      \"21 days\",\r\n      \"30 days\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 109(2)<\/b> gives the Council of States <b>fourteen days<\/b> from the date of receipt. Under Article 109(5), if the Bill is not returned within that period, it is deemed to have been passed by both Houses at the expiration of the said period in the form in which it was passed by the House of the People.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 92,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"If the House of the People rejects all the recommendations made by the Council of States on a Money Bill, the Bill:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Lapses and must be reintroduced\",\r\n      \"Is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form in which it was passed by the House of the People without any of the recommended amendments\",\r\n      \"Must be referred to a joint sitting\",\r\n      \"Must be referred back to the Council of States a second time\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 109(4)<\/b> provides that if the House of the People does not accept any of the recommendations, the Money Bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form in which it was originally passed by the House of the People. The Council of States therefore has recommendatory powers only.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 93,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following would NOT by itself make a Bill a Money Bill?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax\",\r\n      \"The regulation of the borrowing of money by the Government of India\",\r\n      \"The imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties\",\r\n      \"The appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 110(2)<\/b> expressly provides that a Bill is not a Money Bill by reason only that it provides for the imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties, or for the demand or payment of fees for licences or for services rendered, or for the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax by a local authority for local purposes. Options (a), (b) and (d) fall within Article 110(1).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 94,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The question whether a Bill is a Money Bill is decided by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The President\",\r\n      \"The Speaker of the House of the People, whose decision is declared final\",\r\n      \"The Chairman of the Council of States\",\r\n      \"The Finance Minister in consultation with the Speaker\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 110(3)<\/b> makes the decision of the Speaker of the House of the People final if any question arises. Under Article 110(4) the Speaker endorses his certificate on every Money Bill when it is transmitted to the Council of States and when it is presented to the President for assent.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 95,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"A Money Bill can be introduced:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"In either House of Parliament, on the recommendation of the President\",\r\n      \"Only in the House of the People, and only on the recommendation of the President\",\r\n      \"Only in the House of the People, and no recommendation of the President is required\",\r\n      \"Only in the Council of States\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 109(1)<\/b> bars introduction of a Money Bill in the Council of States, and <b>Article 117(1)<\/b> requires that a Bill making provision for any of the matters in Article 110(1)(a) to (f) shall not be introduced except on the recommendation of the President.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 96,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"With reference to the President's power under Article 111, consider the following statements: I. The President may assent to a Bill, withhold assent, or return the Bill for reconsideration. II. The power to return a Bill for reconsideration is not available in the case of a Money Bill. III. If the Bill is passed again by both Houses with or without amendment and presented to the President, he shall not withhold assent therefrom. Which of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I and II only\",\r\n      \"II and III only\",\r\n      \"I and III only\",\r\n      \"I, II and III\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"All three are correct. The main part of <b>Article 111<\/b> gives the three options; the first proviso excludes Money Bills from the power of return and requires the President to state the points for reconsideration; the second limb of the proviso makes assent obligatory on second presentation. There is no time limit prescribed for the President's decision \u2014 the basis of the so-called pocket veto.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 97,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements: I. A Bill other than a Money Bill or a Financial Bill may originate in either House of Parliament. II. A Bill is not deemed to have been passed by the Houses of Parliament unless it has been agreed to by both Houses, either without amendment or with such amendments only as are agreed to by both Houses. Which of the statements given above is\/are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I only\",\r\n      \"II only\",\r\n      \"Both I and II\",\r\n      \"Neither I nor II\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Both are correct. Statement I is <b>Article 107(1)<\/b> and statement II is <b>Article 107(2)<\/b>. Together they establish the co-equal status of the two Houses in ordinary legislation, subject to the deadlock-breaking mechanism of Article 108.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 98,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The Annual Financial Statement is required to be laid before both Houses of Parliament by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The Finance Minister in his own right\",\r\n      \"The President, who shall cause it to be laid\",\r\n      \"The Speaker of the House of the People\",\r\n      \"The Comptroller and Auditor General\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 112(1)<\/b> provides that the <i>President<\/i> shall in respect of every financial year cause to be laid before both Houses a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India \u2014 the Annual Financial Statement. The Finance Minister presents it on the President's behalf; the term Budget does not appear in the Constitution.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 99,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following is NOT charged on the Consolidated Fund of India under Article 112(3)?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The salaries and allowances of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the House of the People\",\r\n      \"The salaries and allowances of Members of Parliament\",\r\n      \"The salary, allowances and pension of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India\",\r\n      \"Sums required to satisfy any judgment, decree or award of any court or arbitral tribunal\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Salaries and allowances of ordinary Members of Parliament are determined under Article 106 and are <b>voted<\/b> expenditure. <b>Article 112(3)<\/b> charges the emoluments of the President, the salaries of the presiding officers of both Houses, debt charges, salaries and pensions of Supreme Court Judges, pensions of High Court Judges, the CAG's salary and pension, and sums to satisfy judgments, decrees or awards. This is a frequently mis-stated point.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 100,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements regarding charged expenditure: I. Charged expenditure is not submitted to the vote of Parliament. II. Charged expenditure cannot be discussed in either House. III. The salaries and allowances of Judges of a High Court are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. Which of the statements given above is\/are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I only\",\r\n      \"I and II only\",\r\n      \"I and III only\",\r\n      \"I, II and III\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Only statement I is correct. <b>Article 113(1)<\/b> makes charged expenditure non-votable but expressly preserves the right of either House to <i>discuss<\/i> it, so statement II is wrong. Statement III is also wrong: under <b>Article 202<\/b> the salaries of High Court Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of the <i>State<\/i>; only their <b>pensions<\/b> are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India under Article 112(3)(d)(iii).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 101,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Under Article 113, demands for grants are submitted to:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Both Houses of Parliament simultaneously\",\r\n      \"The House of the People only\",\r\n      \"The Council of States only\",\r\n      \"A joint sitting of both Houses\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 113(2)<\/b> provides that estimates of expenditure other than charged expenditure shall be submitted in the form of demands for grants to the <i>House of the People<\/i>, which has power to assent, to refuse assent, or to assent subject to a reduction. Article 113(3) bars any demand for a grant except on the recommendation of the President.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 102,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"In respect of an Appropriation Bill, Article 114(2) provides that:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"No amendment may be proposed which would vary the amount or alter the destination of any grant, or vary the amount of any charged expenditure\",\r\n      \"Amendments may be freely moved in the House of the People but not in the Council of States\",\r\n      \"Only the Finance Minister may move amendments\",\r\n      \"Amendments require the prior sanction of the Comptroller and Auditor General\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 114(2)<\/b> bars any amendment that would have the effect of varying the amount or altering the destination of any grant so made, or of varying the amount of any expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India; the decision of the presiding officer on admissibility is final. <b>Article 114(3)<\/b> forbids withdrawal of money from the Consolidated Fund except under an appropriation made by law.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 103,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Supplementary, additional or excess grants are provided for under:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 113\",\r\n      \"Article 114\",\r\n      \"Article 115\",\r\n      \"Article 116\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 115<\/b> covers three situations: a supplementary or additional grant where the authorised amount proves insufficient or a new service arises, and an excess grant where money has been spent in excess of the amount granted. Excess grants are first examined by the <b>Public Accounts Committee<\/b> before being voted.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 104,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"A Vote on Account under Article 116 is obtained to:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Meet an unexpected demand upon the resources of India when the demand cannot be stated with the details ordinarily given in an annual financial statement\",\r\n      \"Make a grant in advance for a part of the financial year pending the completion of the procedure prescribed in Article 113 for the voting of the grant\",\r\n      \"Meet expenditure of an exceptional character which forms no part of the current service of any financial year\",\r\n      \"Regularise expenditure already incurred in excess of the grant\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 116(1)(a)<\/b> defines the Vote on Account. Option (a) describes a <b>Vote of Credit<\/b> under Article 116(1)(b) and option (c) an <b>Exceptional Grant<\/b> under Article 116(1)(c); option (d) is an excess grant under Article 115. A Vote on Account is normally taken for two months and is a vote on <i>expenditure<\/i> alone.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 105,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"With reference to Financial Bills, consider the following statements: I. A Financial Bill containing any of the matters specified in Article 110(1)(a) to (f) along with other matters can be introduced only in the House of the People and only on the recommendation of the President. II. A Bill which, if enacted, would involve expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India may be introduced in either House, but cannot be passed by either House unless the President has recommended its consideration. Which of the statements given above is\/are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I only\",\r\n      \"II only\",\r\n      \"Both I and II\",\r\n      \"Neither I nor II\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Both are correct and describe the two categories of Financial Bill. Statement I is <b>Article 117(1)<\/b> \u2014 the Category I Financial Bill, which is treated like a Money Bill at the introduction stage. Statement II is <b>Article 117(3)<\/b> \u2014 the Category II Financial Bill, for which the President's recommendation is needed for <i>consideration<\/i>, not introduction.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 106,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following distinguishes a Money Bill from a Financial Bill of the first category under Article 117(1)?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"A Money Bill requires the President's recommendation while a Financial Bill does not\",\r\n      \"A Money Bill contains only the matters listed in Article 110(1), whereas a Financial Bill of the first category contains those matters along with other matters of general legislation\",\r\n      \"A Financial Bill cannot be introduced in the House of the People\",\r\n      \"A Money Bill can be amended by the Council of States\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Both require the President's recommendation and both may be introduced only in the House of the People. The distinguishing feature is content: a Money Bill deals <i>exclusively<\/i> with the matters in Article 110(1), whereas a Category I Financial Bill combines them with other matters. Consequently a Financial Bill is governed by the ordinary procedure thereafter \u2014 the Council of States may amend or reject it, and a joint sitting is available.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 107,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Rules of procedure with respect to a joint sitting of the two Houses are made by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Each House separately\",\r\n      \"The President, after consultation with the Chairman of the Council of States and the Speaker of the House of the People\",\r\n      \"The Speaker alone\",\r\n      \"Parliament by law\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 118(3)<\/b> empowers the President, after consultation with the Chairman and the Speaker, to make rules as to the procedure with respect to joint sittings and communications between the Houses. <b>Article 118(4)<\/b> provides that the Speaker, or in his absence such person as may be determined by rules, shall preside at a joint sitting.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 108,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 119 empowers Parliament to regulate by law the procedure of, and the conduct of business in, each House in relation to:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Financial business\",\r\n      \"Privilege motions\",\r\n      \"The election of presiding officers\",\r\n      \"Disqualification of members\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 119<\/b> permits Parliament by law to regulate the procedure and conduct of business in relation to <i>financial business<\/i> for the timely completion of that business, and expressly provides that any such law shall prevail over rules made under Article 118 in case of inconsistency.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 109,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Under Article 120, business in Parliament is to be transacted in:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Hindi only\",\r\n      \"English only\",\r\n      \"Hindi or in English\",\r\n      \"Any language specified in the Eighth Schedule\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 120(1)<\/b> provides that business shall be transacted in Hindi or in English, with a proviso permitting the presiding officer to allow a member who cannot adequately express himself in either language to address the House in his mother tongue. Article 120(2) would have dropped English after fifteen years, but Parliament provided otherwise through the <b>Official Languages Act, 1963<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 110,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Under Article 121, no discussion shall take place in Parliament with respect to the conduct of any Judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court in the discharge of his duties, except:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"With the prior permission of the President\",\r\n      \"Upon a motion for presenting an address to the President praying for the removal of the Judge\",\r\n      \"With the consent of the Chief Justice of India\",\r\n      \"During the discussion on the demand for grants of the Ministry of Law and Justice\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 121<\/b> permits such a discussion only upon a motion for presenting an address to the President praying for the removal of the Judge, as provided in <b>Article 124(4)<\/b>. The corresponding bar on State Legislatures is contained in Article 211.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 111,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements regarding Article 122: I. The validity of any proceedings in Parliament shall not be called in question on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure. II. No officer or member of Parliament in whom powers are vested for regulating procedure or the conduct of business shall be subject to the jurisdiction of any court in respect of the exercise of those powers. Which of the statements given above is\/are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I only\",\r\n      \"II only\",\r\n      \"Both I and II\",\r\n      \"Neither I nor II\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Both are correct, being <b>Article 122(1)<\/b> and <b>122(2)<\/b>. Note the careful wording of clause (1): the immunity extends to <i>irregularity<\/i> of procedure only. The Supreme Court has held that proceedings vitiated by substantive illegality or unconstitutionality remain open to judicial review.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 112,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Constitution of Parliament?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 77\",\r\n      \"Article 78\",\r\n      \"Article 79\",\r\n      \"Article 80\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 79<\/b> \u2014 Constitution of Parliament. Article 77 deals with conduct of business of the Government of India and Article 78 with the duties of the Prime Minister.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 113,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Composition of the Council of States?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 79\",\r\n      \"Article 80\",\r\n      \"Article 81\",\r\n      \"Article 82\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 80<\/b> \u2014 Composition of the Council of States. Article 81 is the corresponding provision for the House of the People.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 114,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for Readjustment after each census?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 81\",\r\n      \"Article 82\",\r\n      \"Article 83\",\r\n      \"Article 84\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 82<\/b> \u2014 Readjustment after each census, by such authority and in such manner as Parliament may by law determine.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 115,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Duration of Houses of Parliament?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 82\",\r\n      \"Article 83\",\r\n      \"Article 84\",\r\n      \"Article 85\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 83<\/b> \u2014 Duration of Houses of Parliament. Its proviso permits extension of the term of the House of the People during a Proclamation of Emergency.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 116,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Qualification for membership of Parliament?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 83\",\r\n      \"Article 84\",\r\n      \"Article 85\",\r\n      \"Article 86\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 84<\/b> \u2014 Qualification for membership of Parliament: citizenship, oath before a person authorised by the Election Commission, and the prescribed age.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 117,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for Sessions of Parliament, prorogation and dissolution?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 84\",\r\n      \"Article 85\",\r\n      \"Article 86\",\r\n      \"Article 87\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 85<\/b> \u2014 Sessions of Parliament, prorogation and dissolution, including the rule that six months shall not intervene between two sessions.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 118,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Right of the President to address and send messages to Houses?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 85\",\r\n      \"Article 86\",\r\n      \"Article 87\",\r\n      \"Article 88\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 86<\/b> \u2014 Right of President to address and send messages to Houses. Article 87 is the separate provision for the special address.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 119,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Rights of Ministers and the Attorney-General as respects the Houses?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 86\",\r\n      \"Article 87\",\r\n      \"Article 88\",\r\n      \"Article 89\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 88<\/b> \u2014 Rights of Ministers and Attorney-General as respects Houses: the right to speak and take part, but not to vote.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 120,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Council of States?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 88\",\r\n      \"Article 89\",\r\n      \"Article 90\",\r\n      \"Article 91\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 89<\/b> \u2014 The Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Council of States. Clause (1) makes the Vice-President ex officio Chairman.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 121,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for Vacation and resignation of, and removal from, the office of Deputy Chairman?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 89\",\r\n      \"Article 90\",\r\n      \"Article 91\",\r\n      \"Article 92\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 90<\/b> \u2014 Vacation and resignation of, and removal from, the office of Deputy Chairman of the Council of States, requiring a majority of all the then members and fourteen days' notice.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 122,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India empowers the Deputy Chairman or other person to perform the duties of, or to act as, Chairman of the Council of States?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 90\",\r\n      \"Article 91\",\r\n      \"Article 92\",\r\n      \"Article 93\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 91<\/b> \u2014 Power of the Deputy Chairman or other person to perform the duties of the office of, or to act as, Chairman. Article 95 is the parallel provision for the Speaker.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 123,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides that the Chairman or Deputy Chairman shall not preside while a resolution for his removal is under consideration?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 91\",\r\n      \"Article 92\",\r\n      \"Article 93\",\r\n      \"Article 96\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 92<\/b> for the Council of States; <b>Article 96<\/b> is the corresponding provision for the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of the People.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 124,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of the People?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 92\",\r\n      \"Article 93\",\r\n      \"Article 94\",\r\n      \"Article 95\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 93<\/b> \u2014 The Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of the People, both chosen by the House from amongst its members.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 125,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for Vacation and resignation of, and removal from, the offices of Speaker and Deputy Speaker?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 93\",\r\n      \"Article 94\",\r\n      \"Article 95\",\r\n      \"Article 96\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 94<\/b>, whose proviso also provides that the Speaker does not vacate office on dissolution until immediately before the first meeting of the new House.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 126,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Salaries and allowances of the Chairman, Deputy Chairman, Speaker and Deputy Speaker?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 96\",\r\n      \"Article 97\",\r\n      \"Article 98\",\r\n      \"Article 106\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 97<\/b> covers all four presiding officers. Article 106 deals with the salaries and allowances of ordinary members of Parliament.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 127,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Secretariat of Parliament?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 97\",\r\n      \"Article 98\",\r\n      \"Article 99\",\r\n      \"Article 100\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 98<\/b> \u2014 Secretariat of Parliament, providing that each House shall have a separate secretarial staff.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 128,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for Oath or affirmation by members of Parliament?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 98\",\r\n      \"Article 99\",\r\n      \"Article 100\",\r\n      \"Article 104\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 99<\/b> \u2014 Oath or affirmation by members, taken before the President or a person appointed by him, in the form set out in the Third Schedule.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 129,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India deals with Voting in Houses, power of Houses to act notwithstanding vacancies, and quorum?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 99\",\r\n      \"Article 100\",\r\n      \"Article 101\",\r\n      \"Article 102\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 100<\/b> \u2014 it contains the casting-vote rule for the presiding officer and fixes the quorum at one-tenth of the total number of members.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 130,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for Vacation of seats?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 100\",\r\n      \"Article 101\",\r\n      \"Article 102\",\r\n      \"Article 103\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 101<\/b> \u2014 Vacation of seats, covering dual membership, resignation and absence for sixty days.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 131,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for Disqualifications for membership of Parliament?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 101\",\r\n      \"Article 102\",\r\n      \"Article 103\",\r\n      \"Article 104\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 102<\/b> \u2014 Disqualifications for membership, including office of profit; clause (2) attracts the Tenth Schedule for defection.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 132,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Decision on questions as to disqualifications of members?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 102\",\r\n      \"Article 103\",\r\n      \"Article 104\",\r\n      \"Article 105\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 103<\/b> \u2014 the question is referred to the President, who acts according to the opinion of the Election Commission.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 133,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Penalty for sitting and voting before making oath, or when not qualified or disqualified?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 103\",\r\n      \"Article 104\",\r\n      \"Article 105\",\r\n      \"Article 106\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 104<\/b> \u2014 a penalty of five hundred rupees for each day, recoverable as a debt due to the Union.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 134,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Powers, privileges and immunities of the Houses of Parliament, their members and committees?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 104\",\r\n      \"Article 105\",\r\n      \"Article 106\",\r\n      \"Article 107\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 105<\/b> \u2014 the corresponding provision for State Legislatures is Article 194.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 135,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the introduction and passing of Bills?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 106\",\r\n      \"Article 107\",\r\n      \"Article 108\",\r\n      \"Article 109\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 107<\/b> \u2014 Provisions as to introduction and passing of Bills, including the rules on lapsing on prorogation and dissolution.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 136,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for a Joint sitting of both Houses in certain cases?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 107\",\r\n      \"Article 108\",\r\n      \"Article 109\",\r\n      \"Article 110\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 108<\/b> \u2014 Joint sitting of both Houses in certain cases, unavailable for Money Bills and Constitutional Amendment Bills.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 137,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India lays down the Special procedure in respect of Money Bills?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 108\",\r\n      \"Article 109\",\r\n      \"Article 110\",\r\n      \"Article 111\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 109<\/b> \u2014 Special procedure in respect of Money Bills. Article 110 is the separate <i>definition<\/i> of a Money Bill.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 138,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India contains the Definition of Money Bills?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 109\",\r\n      \"Article 110\",\r\n      \"Article 111\",\r\n      \"Article 112\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 110<\/b> \u2014 Definition of Money Bills, listing seven matters in clause (1) and the exclusions in clause (2).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 139,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for Assent to Bills by the President?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 110\",\r\n      \"Article 111\",\r\n      \"Article 112\",\r\n      \"Article 113\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 111<\/b> \u2014 Assent to Bills. The corresponding provision for a Governor is Article 200.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 140,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Annual financial statement?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 111\",\r\n      \"Article 112\",\r\n      \"Article 113\",\r\n      \"Article 114\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 112<\/b> \u2014 Annual financial statement, popularly called the Budget, a term not used in the Constitution.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 141,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Procedure in Parliament with respect to estimates?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 112\",\r\n      \"Article 113\",\r\n      \"Article 114\",\r\n      \"Article 115\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 113<\/b> \u2014 Procedure in Parliament with respect to estimates, under which demands for grants go to the House of the People alone.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 142,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for Appropriation Bills?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 113\",\r\n      \"Article 114\",\r\n      \"Article 115\",\r\n      \"Article 116\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 114<\/b> \u2014 Appropriation Bills, and the bar on withdrawal of money from the Consolidated Fund except under an appropriation made by law.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 143,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for Supplementary, additional or excess grants?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 114\",\r\n      \"Article 115\",\r\n      \"Article 116\",\r\n      \"Article 117\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 115<\/b> \u2014 Supplementary, additional or excess grants. Article 116 covers votes on account, votes of credit and exceptional grants.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 144,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for Votes on account, votes of credit and exceptional grants?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 115\",\r\n      \"Article 116\",\r\n      \"Article 117\",\r\n      \"Article 118\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 116<\/b> \u2014 all three extraordinary grants are grouped in this single article.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 145,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India contains Special provisions as to financial Bills?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 116\",\r\n      \"Article 117\",\r\n      \"Article 118\",\r\n      \"Article 119\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 117<\/b> \u2014 Special provisions as to financial Bills, creating the two categories of Financial Bill.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 146,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for Rules of procedure of the Houses?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 117\",\r\n      \"Article 118\",\r\n      \"Article 119\",\r\n      \"Article 120\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 118<\/b> \u2014 Rules of procedure, including the President's power to make rules for joint sittings and the Speaker's role in presiding over them.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 147,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Language to be used in Parliament?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 119\",\r\n      \"Article 120\",\r\n      \"Article 121\",\r\n      \"Article 122\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 120<\/b> \u2014 Language to be used in Parliament: Hindi or English, with a discretion in the presiding officer to permit the mother tongue.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 148,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India contains the Restriction on discussion in Parliament regarding the conduct of Judges?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 120\",\r\n      \"Article 121\",\r\n      \"Article 122\",\r\n      \"Article 123\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 121<\/b> \u2014 Restriction on discussion in Parliament. Article 122 bars courts from inquiring into proceedings of Parliament.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 149,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides that Courts shall not inquire into proceedings of Parliament?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 121\",\r\n      \"Article 122\",\r\n      \"Article 123\",\r\n      \"Article 124\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 122<\/b> \u2014 the immunity extends to alleged <i>irregularity<\/i> of procedure only. The corresponding provision for State Legislatures is Article 212.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 150,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Composition of the House of the People?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 79\",\r\n      \"Article 80\",\r\n      \"Article 81\",\r\n      \"Article 82\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 81<\/b> \u2014 Composition of the House of the People: not more than 530 members from the States and not more than 20 from the Union territories.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 151,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Special address by the President?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 85\",\r\n      \"Article 86\",\r\n      \"Article 87\",\r\n      \"Article 88\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 87<\/b> \u2014 Special address by the President at the commencement of the first session after each general election and at the commencement of the first session of each year.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 152,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India empowers the Deputy Speaker or other person to perform the duties of the office of, or to act as, Speaker?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 93\",\r\n      \"Article 94\",\r\n      \"Article 95\",\r\n      \"Article 96\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 95<\/b>. The corresponding provision for the Council of States is Article 91.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 153,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides that the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker shall not preside while a resolution for his removal from office is under consideration?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 92\",\r\n      \"Article 94\",\r\n      \"Article 95\",\r\n      \"Article 96\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 96<\/b> for the House of the People; <b>Article 92<\/b> is the corresponding provision for the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Council of States.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 154,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Salaries and allowances of members of Parliament?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 97\",\r\n      \"Article 105\",\r\n      \"Article 106\",\r\n      \"Article 112\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 106<\/b> \u2014 as determined by Parliament by law from time to time. Article 97 deals separately with the salaries of the four presiding officers.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 155,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Parliament (Articles 79\u2013122)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for Regulation by law of procedure in Parliament in relation to financial business?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 117\",\r\n      \"Article 118\",\r\n      \"Article 119\",\r\n      \"Article 120\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 119<\/b> \u2014 a law made under it prevails over any rule made under Article 118 in case of inconsistency.\"\r\n  },\r\n   \/\/ Legislative Powers of the President (Article 123)\r\n    {\r\n    \"id\": 156,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Legislative Powers of the President (Article 123)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The President may promulgate an Ordinance under Article 123 only when:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The House of the People alone is not in session\",\r\n      \"The Council of States alone is not in session\",\r\n      \"Both Houses of Parliament are not in session\",\r\n      \"Parliament stands dissolved\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 123(1)<\/b> requires that both Houses be not in session and that the President be satisfied that circumstances exist which render it necessary for him to take immediate action. If even one House is in session, no Ordinance can be promulgated.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 157,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Legislative Powers of the President (Article 123)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"An Ordinance promulgated under Article 123 ceases to operate at the expiration of:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Six weeks from the date of its promulgation\",\r\n      \"Six weeks from the reassembly of Parliament\",\r\n      \"Six months from the date of its promulgation\",\r\n      \"Six months from the reassembly of Parliament\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 123(2)(a)<\/b> requires every Ordinance to be laid before both Houses and provides that it ceases to operate at the expiration of <b>six weeks from the reassembly<\/b> of Parliament. Where the two Houses reassemble on different dates, the six weeks is reckoned from the <i>later<\/i> of those dates. The maximum life of an Ordinance is therefore about six months and six weeks.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 158,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Legislative Powers of the President (Article 123)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"An Ordinance ceases to operate before the expiry of six weeks from reassembly if:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The House of the People alone passes a resolution disapproving it\",\r\n      \"Resolutions disapproving it are passed by both Houses, in which case it ceases upon the passing of the second of those resolutions\",\r\n      \"The Supreme Court declares it invalid\",\r\n      \"The Council of States refuses to take it up\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 123(2)(a)<\/b> provides that where resolutions disapproving the Ordinance are passed by both Houses, it ceases to operate upon the passing of the <i>second<\/i> of those resolutions. Under Article 123(2)(b) the President may also withdraw an Ordinance at any time.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 159,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Legislative Powers of the President (Article 123)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements regarding the ordinance-making power: I. An Ordinance has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament. II. An Ordinance may make a provision which Parliament itself would not be competent to enact. III. Clause (4) of Article 123, which made the President's satisfaction final and conclusive, was inserted by the 38th Amendment and subsequently deleted by the 44th Amendment. Which of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I and II only\",\r\n      \"I and III only\",\r\n      \"II and III only\",\r\n      \"I, II and III\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Statements I and III are correct. Statement II is wrong: the proviso to <b>Article 123(1)<\/b> subjects an Ordinance to the same constitutional limitations as an Act of Parliament, so an Ordinance making a provision Parliament could not enact would be void. After the deletion of clause (4) by the <b>44th Amendment<\/b>, the President's satisfaction is open to judicial review.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 160,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Legislative Powers of the President (Article 123)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the repeated re-promulgation of Ordinances without placing them before the legislature amounts to a fraud on the Constitution?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"A. K. Roy v. Union of India (1982)\",\r\n      \"D. C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar (1987)\",\r\n      \"R. C. Cooper v. Union of India (1970)\",\r\n      \"Rameshwar Prasad v. Union of India (2006)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"In <b>D. C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar (1987)<\/b> the Court struck down the Bihar practice of re-promulgating Ordinances for years together as a fraud on the Constitution. This was reinforced in <b>Krishna Kumar Singh v. State of Bihar (2017)<\/b>, where a seven-judge Bench held that laying an Ordinance before the legislature is mandatory and that re-promulgation is unconstitutional.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 161,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Legislative Powers of the President (Article 123)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The ordinance-making power of the President under Article 123 is:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"An executive power exercisable at his personal discretion\",\r\n      \"A legislative power exercisable on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers\",\r\n      \"A judicial power subject to confirmation by the Supreme Court\",\r\n      \"A constituent power equivalent to the amending power under Article 368\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Article 123 appears in Chapter III of Part V, headed <i>Legislative Powers of the President<\/i>. It is a legislative power, but like all other powers it is exercised on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers under <b>Article 74(1)<\/b>. The corresponding power of a Governor is contained in Article 213.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 162,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Legislative Powers of the President (Article 123)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India empowers the President to promulgate Ordinances during recess of Parliament?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 122\",\r\n      \"Article 123\",\r\n      \"Article 213\",\r\n      \"Article 356\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 123<\/b> \u2014 Power of President to promulgate Ordinances during recess of Parliament. Article 213 confers the corresponding power on a Governor.\"\r\n  },\r\n   \/\/ The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\r\n   {\r\n    \"id\": 163,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The collegium system for the appointment of Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts emerged from:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"An express provision in Article 124A\",\r\n      \"The interpretation of the word consultation in Article 124(2) by the Supreme Court in the Second and Third Judges cases\",\r\n      \"A statute enacted by Parliament in 1993\",\r\n      \"A Presidential order under Article 145\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"In the <b>First Judges case (1981)<\/b> the Court held that consultation did not mean concurrence. That was reversed in the <b>Second Judges case (1993)<\/b>, which held that consultation means concurrence and gave primacy to the Chief Justice acting collectively. The <b>Third Judges case (1998)<\/b>, an advisory opinion under Article 143, settled the composition of the collegium at the Chief Justice and four senior-most Judges.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 164,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements regarding the removal of a Judge of the Supreme Court: I. The motion may be introduced in either House of Parliament. II. The only grounds are proved misbehaviour or incapacity. III. No Judge of the Supreme Court has so far been removed under Article 124(4). Which of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I and II only\",\r\n      \"II and III only\",\r\n      \"I and III only\",\r\n      \"I, II and III\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"All three are correct. Under the <b>Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968<\/b> a removal motion requires 100 members in the House of the People or 50 in the Council of States, and may originate in either House. No Judge has been removed; the proceedings against Justice V. Ramaswami in 1993 failed when the motion did not secure the requisite majority.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 165,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following writs is issued to a public official to compel the performance of a public duty?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Habeas corpus\",\r\n      \"Mandamus\",\r\n      \"Certiorari\",\r\n      \"Quo warranto\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Mandamus<\/b> commands the performance of a public duty. Habeas corpus secures the production of a detained person; certiorari quashes an order of a subordinate court or tribunal; quo warranto questions the legality of a person's claim to a public office. All five writs, including prohibition, are issuable by the Supreme Court under Article 32 and by High Courts under Article 226.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 166,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"A curative petition, as a remedy beyond a review petition, was evolved by the Supreme Court in:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)\",\r\n      \"Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra (2002)\",\r\n      \"S. P. Gupta v. Union of India (1981)\",\r\n      \"Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The curative petition was devised in <b>Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra (2002)<\/b>, invoking the Court's inherent power under <b>Article 142<\/b> to prevent abuse of process and cure gross miscarriage of justice, after the dismissal of a review petition under Article 137.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 167,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Judicial review of legislation in India derives from:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"A single express article conferring the power\",\r\n      \"Several provisions, principally Articles 13, 32, 131 to 136, 143, 226 and 246, and is part of the basic structure\",\r\n      \"The Government of India Act, 1935 alone\",\r\n      \"An implied power with no textual basis\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The Constitution nowhere uses the expression judicial review, but the power flows from a cluster of provisions, above all <b>Article 13<\/b>, which declares laws inconsistent with fundamental rights void. In <b>Kesavananda Bharati (1973)<\/b> and later in <b>Minerva Mills (1980)<\/b> and <b>L. Chandra Kumar (1997)<\/b>, judicial review was held to form part of the basic structure.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 168,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 124(1) originally provided that the Supreme Court shall consist of a Chief Justice of India and, until Parliament by law prescribes a larger number, not more than:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Five other Judges\",\r\n      \"Seven other Judges\",\r\n      \"Ten other Judges\",\r\n      \"Thirteen other Judges\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 124(1)<\/b> fixed the original strength at the Chief Justice and not more than seven other Judges, leaving it to Parliament to prescribe a larger number. The sanctioned strength today is <b>34<\/b> (the Chief Justice and 33 other Judges), fixed by the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Act, 2019.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 169,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following is NOT a qualification for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court under Article 124(3)?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Having been for at least five years a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession\",\r\n      \"Having been for at least ten years an advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession\",\r\n      \"Being, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist\",\r\n      \"Having held for at least ten years a judicial office in the territory of India\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 124(3)<\/b> prescribes exactly three alternative qualifications, in addition to citizenship of India: five years as a High Court Judge, ten years as an advocate of a High Court, or being a distinguished jurist in the President's opinion. The ten-year judicial-office qualification in option (d) belongs to <b>Article 217(2)(a)<\/b> for High Court Judges.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 170,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"A Judge of the Supreme Court holds office until he attains the age of:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"62 years\",\r\n      \"65 years\",\r\n      \"68 years\",\r\n      \"70 years\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The proviso to <b>Article 124(2)<\/b> fixes the retirement age of a Supreme Court Judge at <b>65 years<\/b>. A High Court Judge retires at 62 under Article 217(1). A Judge may resign by writing addressed to the President.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 171,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"A Judge of the Supreme Court may be removed from office by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament supported by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"A simple majority of the members present and voting\",\r\n      \"A majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting\",\r\n      \"Two-thirds of the total membership of that House\",\r\n      \"Three-fourths of the members present and voting\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 124(4)<\/b> requires this special majority in <i>each<\/i> House, in the <b>same session<\/b>, and only on the ground of <b>proved misbehaviour or incapacity<\/b>. The investigation and proof of misbehaviour or incapacity are regulated by the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, enacted under Article 124(5).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 172,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Under Article 124(7), a person who has held office as a Judge of the Supreme Court:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"May practise only in the Supreme Court\",\r\n      \"Shall not plead or act in any court or before any authority within the territory of India\",\r\n      \"May practise in any High Court but not in the Supreme Court\",\r\n      \"May practise freely after a cooling-off period of two years\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 124(7)<\/b> imposes a complete bar on a retired Supreme Court Judge pleading or acting in any court or before any authority within the territory of India. A retired High Court Judge, by contrast, is barred under Article 220 only from practising in any court subordinate to, or in the High Court in which, he held office.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 173,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 124A, which provided for the National Judicial Appointments Commission, was:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Inserted by the 99th Amendment Act, 2014 and struck down by the Supreme Court in 2015\",\r\n      \"Inserted by the 99th Amendment Act, 2014 and remains in force\",\r\n      \"Inserted by the 97th Amendment Act and later repealed by Parliament\",\r\n      \"Never brought into force\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The <b>Constitution (Ninety-ninth Amendment) Act, 2014<\/b> inserted Articles 124A, 124B and 124C to create the NJAC. In <b>Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India (2015)<\/b> a Constitution Bench struck down the amendment and the NJAC Act as violating judicial independence, part of the basic structure, thereby restoring the collegium system.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 174,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Match the following and select the correct answer: I. Appointment of acting Chief Justice II. Appointment of ad hoc Judges III. Attendance of retired Judges at sittings of the Supreme Court\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I-126, II-127, III-128\",\r\n      \"I-125, II-126, III-127\",\r\n      \"I-127, II-128, III-129\",\r\n      \"I-128, II-127, III-126\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 126<\/b> provides for the appointment of an acting Chief Justice; <b>Article 127<\/b> allows the Chief Justice, with the previous consent of the President, to request a qualified High Court Judge to sit as an <i>ad hoc<\/i> Judge when there is a lack of quorum; <b>Article 128<\/b> permits the Chief Justice, with the previous consent of the President and the consent of the person concerned, to request a retired Judge to sit and act as a Judge. Article 125 deals with salaries.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 175,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 129 declares the Supreme Court to be a court of record, which includes:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The power to review its own judgments\",\r\n      \"The power to punish for contempt of itself\",\r\n      \"The power to transfer cases from one High Court to another\",\r\n      \"The power to issue writs\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 129<\/b> makes the Supreme Court a court of record with all the powers of such a court <i>including the power to punish for contempt of itself<\/i>. The corresponding provision for High Courts is Article 215. Review is under Article 137, transfer under Article 139A and writs under Article 32.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 176,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Under Article 130, the Supreme Court shall sit in Delhi or in such other place or places as:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Parliament may by law determine\",\r\n      \"The President may, with the approval of the Chief Justice of India, appoint\",\r\n      \"The Chief Justice of India may, with the approval of the President, from time to time appoint\",\r\n      \"The Union Cabinet may decide\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 130<\/b> vests the initiative in the <b>Chief Justice of India<\/b>, who may appoint other places with the approval of the President. The frequent error is to reverse the roles of the two functionaries.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 177,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 131 extends to a dispute:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Between the Government of India and one or more States\",\r\n      \"Between two or more States\",\r\n      \"Between the Government of India and any State on one side and one or more other States on the other\",\r\n      \"All of the above\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 131<\/b> covers all three federal configurations, but only if and in so far as the dispute involves a question, whether of law or fact, on which the existence or extent of a <i>legal right<\/i> depends. It excludes disputes between private citizens, and between a citizen and a State, in this jurisdiction.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 178,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The original jurisdiction under Article 131 does NOT extend to:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"A dispute arising out of a treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad or other similar instrument entered into before the commencement of the Constitution and which continues in operation\",\r\n      \"A dispute regarding the boundaries between two States\",\r\n      \"A dispute over the sharing of tax revenues between the Union and a State\",\r\n      \"A dispute regarding the constitutional validity of a State law\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The proviso to <b>Article 131<\/b> expressly excludes disputes arising out of specified pre-Constitution instruments that continue in operation; such matters may instead be referred to the Court for its opinion under <b>Article 143(2)<\/b>. Separately, <b>Article 262(2)<\/b> allows Parliament to bar the Supreme Court from inter-State water disputes, and the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956 has done so.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 179,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"An appeal lies to the Supreme Court under Article 132 from any judgment of a High Court if the High Court certifies under Article 134A that the case involves:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"A substantial question of law of general importance\",\r\n      \"A substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution\",\r\n      \"A question of fact of public importance\",\r\n      \"A sentence of imprisonment exceeding ten years\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 132<\/b> is the constitutional appeal and requires a certificate that the case involves a <i>substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution<\/i>. Option (a) belongs to the civil appeal under Article 133(1), which additionally requires the High Court's opinion that the question needs to be decided by the Supreme Court.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 180,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Under Article 134, an appeal lies to the Supreme Court in a criminal proceeding from a High Court in which of the following cases? I. The High Court has on appeal reversed an order of acquittal and sentenced the accused to death. II. The High Court has withdrawn a case from a subordinate court, convicted the accused and sentenced him to death. III. The High Court certifies under Article 134A that the case is a fit one for appeal to the Supreme Court. Select the correct answer:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I and II only\",\r\n      \"I and III only\",\r\n      \"II and III only\",\r\n      \"I, II and III\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"All three grounds are set out in <b>Article 134(1)(a), (b) and (c)<\/b>. Article 134(2) further empowers Parliament to enlarge this jurisdiction, which it did through the Supreme Court (Enlargement of Criminal Appellate Jurisdiction) Act, 1970.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 181,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 134A, which provides for the certificate for appeal to the Supreme Court, was inserted by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976\",\r\n      \"The 43rd Amendment Act, 1977\",\r\n      \"The 44th Amendment Act, 1978\",\r\n      \"The 30th Amendment Act, 1972\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 134A<\/b> was inserted by the <b>44th Amendment Act, 1978<\/b>. It requires the High Court to consider the question of granting a certificate under Article 132, 133 or 134(1)(c) either on its own motion or on an oral application made immediately after the judgment is delivered.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 182,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The Supreme Court's power to grant special leave to appeal under Article 136 does NOT extend to:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Any judgment or order passed by a High Court in a civil matter\",\r\n      \"Any determination or sentence passed by any court or tribunal constituted by or under any law relating to the Armed Forces\",\r\n      \"Any award passed by a tribunal in a service matter\",\r\n      \"Any order of a subordinate criminal court\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 136(2)<\/b> expressly excludes judgments, determinations, sentences and orders passed by any court or tribunal constituted by or under any law relating to the <b>Armed Forces<\/b>. Otherwise Article 136 confers an extraordinary discretionary power extending to any cause or matter and any court or tribunal in India.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 183,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The power of the Supreme Court to review any judgment pronounced or order made by it is conferred by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 136\",\r\n      \"Article 137\",\r\n      \"Article 138\",\r\n      \"Article 139\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 137<\/b> confers the power of review, subject to the provisions of any law made by Parliament and to rules made under Article 145. <b>Article 138<\/b> deals with enlargement of jurisdiction by Parliament and <b>Article 139<\/b> with conferment of power to issue writs for purposes other than those mentioned in Article 32(2).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 184,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 139A, which empowers the Supreme Court to withdraw cases pending before High Courts involving the same or substantially the same questions of law and to transfer cases from one High Court to another, was inserted by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976\",\r\n      \"The 44th Amendment Act, 1978\",\r\n      \"The 43rd Amendment Act, 1977\",\r\n      \"The 24th Amendment Act, 1971\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 139A<\/b> was inserted by the <b>42nd Amendment Act, 1976<\/b> and later modified by the 44th Amendment. Clause (1) permits withdrawal and transfer of cases involving substantially the same questions of law; clause (2) permits transfer of any case, appeal or other proceedings from one High Court to another in the interests of justice.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 185,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 140 empowers Parliament to confer on the Supreme Court:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Advisory jurisdiction\",\r\n      \"Such supplemental powers as appear to be necessary or desirable for the more effective exercise of its existing jurisdiction\",\r\n      \"The power to punish for contempt of subordinate courts\",\r\n      \"Original jurisdiction in tax matters\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 140<\/b> deals with ancillary powers \u2014 Parliament may by law provide for conferring such supplemental powers as are necessary or desirable for the more effective exercise of the jurisdiction already conferred, provided they are not inconsistent with any provision of the Constitution.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 186,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 141 provides that the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"All courts within the territory of India\",\r\n      \"All courts and tribunals except the Supreme Court itself\",\r\n      \"All High Courts only\",\r\n      \"All courts and all legislatures within the territory of India\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 141<\/b> binds <i>all courts within the territory of India<\/i>. The Supreme Court itself is not bound by its own earlier decisions and may depart from them, ordinarily through a larger Bench. Article 141 does not bind legislatures, which may by valid law alter the basis of a judgment.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 187,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The power of the Supreme Court to pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it is conferred by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 140\",\r\n      \"Article 141\",\r\n      \"Article 142\",\r\n      \"Article 144\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 142(1)<\/b> confers this power, and such a decree or order is enforceable throughout the territory of India in the manner prescribed by law made by Parliament. <b>Article 142(2)<\/b> deals with securing the attendance of persons, discovery of documents and the investigation or punishment of any contempt of the Court.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 188,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements regarding the advisory jurisdiction under Article 143: I. The President may refer to the Supreme Court a question of law or fact of public importance which has arisen or is likely to arise. II. The Supreme Court is bound to give its opinion on every reference made under Article 143(1). III. The opinion given by the Supreme Court is not binding on the President. Which of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I and II only\",\r\n      \"I and III only\",\r\n      \"II and III only\",\r\n      \"I, II and III\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Statements I and III are correct. Statement II is wrong: under <b>Article 143(1)<\/b> the Court <i>may<\/i> report its opinion and has on occasion declined to answer, as in the Ayodhya reference of 1993. However, in a reference under <b>Article 143(2)<\/b> relating to pre-Constitution treaties and agreements excluded from Article 131, the Court <i>shall<\/i> report its opinion.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 189,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 144 provides that:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"All authorities, civil and judicial, in the territory of India shall act in aid of the Supreme Court\",\r\n      \"The Supreme Court shall act in aid of the High Courts\",\r\n      \"The Supreme Court may transfer cases in the interests of justice\",\r\n      \"The law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 144<\/b> obliges all authorities, civil and judicial, in the territory of India to act in aid of the Supreme Court. Article 144A, inserted by the 42nd Amendment to prescribe a minimum Bench of seven and a two-thirds majority for invalidating laws, was <b>repealed by the 43rd Amendment Act, 1977<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 190,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Under Article 145(3), the minimum number of Judges who shall sit for the purpose of deciding a case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution is:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Three\",\r\n      \"Five\",\r\n      \"Seven\",\r\n      \"Nine\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 145(3)<\/b> prescribes a minimum of <b>five<\/b> Judges for deciding a case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution, or for hearing any reference under Article 143. Rules of Court under Article 145 require the approval of the President.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 191,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements regarding Article 146: I. Appointments of officers and servants of the Supreme Court are made by the Chief Justice of India or such other Judge or officer as he may direct. II. The administrative expenses of the Supreme Court, including all salaries, allowances and pensions payable to or in respect of its officers and servants, are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India. Which of the statements given above is\/are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I only\",\r\n      \"II only\",\r\n      \"Both I and II\",\r\n      \"Neither I nor II\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Both are correct. <b>Article 146(1)<\/b> vests appointments in the Chief Justice of India, subject to any law made by Parliament and to any rule requiring consultation with the Union Public Service Commission. <b>Article 146(3)<\/b> charges the administrative expenses on the Consolidated Fund of India, insulating the Court from an annual vote.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 192,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 147 of the Constitution deals with:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Officers and servants of the Supreme Court\",\r\n      \"Interpretation of references to certain constitutional provisions and to the Government of India Act, 1935\",\r\n      \"Rules of Court\",\r\n      \"Expenses of the Supreme Court\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 147<\/b> is the interpretation clause of Chapter IV of Part V. It provides that references in that Chapter and in Chapter V of Part VI to any substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution shall be construed as including references to the interpretation of the <b>Government of India Act, 1935<\/b> and certain related instruments.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 193,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Establishment and constitution of the Supreme Court?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 123\",\r\n      \"Article 124\",\r\n      \"Article 125\",\r\n      \"Article 129\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 124<\/b> \u2014 Establishment and constitution of Supreme Court, including appointment, qualifications and removal of Judges.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 194,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Appointment of an acting Chief Justice of India?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 125\",\r\n      \"Article 126\",\r\n      \"Article 127\",\r\n      \"Article 128\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 126<\/b> \u2014 Appointment of acting Chief Justice, when the office is vacant or the Chief Justice is unable to perform his duties.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 195,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Appointment of ad hoc Judges of the Supreme Court?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 126\",\r\n      \"Article 127\",\r\n      \"Article 128\",\r\n      \"Article 129\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 127<\/b> \u2014 Appointment of ad hoc Judges from among qualified High Court Judges, where there is a lack of quorum.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 196,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Attendance of retired Judges at sittings of the Supreme Court?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 127\",\r\n      \"Article 128\",\r\n      \"Article 129\",\r\n      \"Article 130\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 128<\/b> \u2014 the Chief Justice may, with the previous consent of the President and the consent of the person concerned, request a retired Judge to sit and act.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 197,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India declares the Supreme Court to be a court of record?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 128\",\r\n      \"Article 129\",\r\n      \"Article 130\",\r\n      \"Article 131\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 129<\/b> \u2014 Supreme Court to be a court of record, with power to punish for contempt of itself. Article 215 is the corresponding provision for High Courts.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 198,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India deals with the Seat of the Supreme Court?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 129\",\r\n      \"Article 130\",\r\n      \"Article 131\",\r\n      \"Article 132\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 130<\/b> \u2014 Seat of Supreme Court: Delhi or such other place as the Chief Justice of India may, with the approval of the President, appoint.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 199,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 130\",\r\n      \"Article 131\",\r\n      \"Article 132\",\r\n      \"Article 133\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 131<\/b> \u2014 Original jurisdiction in federal disputes. Article 32 confers a separate original jurisdiction for the enforcement of fundamental rights.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 200,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in appeals from High Courts in constitutional matters?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 131\",\r\n      \"Article 132\",\r\n      \"Article 133\",\r\n      \"Article 134\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 132<\/b> \u2014 constitutional appeals; <b>Article 133<\/b> \u2014 civil appeals; <b>Article 134<\/b> \u2014 criminal appeals.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 201,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Certificate for appeal to the Supreme Court?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 133\",\r\n      \"Article 134\",\r\n      \"Article 134A\",\r\n      \"Article 135\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 134A<\/b>, inserted by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978, governs the grant of a certificate under Articles 132, 133 or 134(1)(c).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 202,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for Special leave to appeal by the Supreme Court?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 135\",\r\n      \"Article 136\",\r\n      \"Article 137\",\r\n      \"Article 138\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 136<\/b> \u2014 Special leave to appeal, a discretionary power excluding matters under laws relating to the Armed Forces.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 203,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for Review of judgments or orders by the Supreme Court?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 136\",\r\n      \"Article 137\",\r\n      \"Article 138\",\r\n      \"Article 139\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 137<\/b> \u2014 Review of judgments or orders by the Supreme Court, subject to laws made by Parliament and rules under Article 145.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 204,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court by Parliament?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 137\",\r\n      \"Article 138\",\r\n      \"Article 139\",\r\n      \"Article 140\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 138<\/b> \u2014 Enlargement of jurisdiction. Article 139 permits Parliament to confer on the Supreme Court the power to issue writs for purposes other than those in Article 32(2).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 205,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Transfer of certain cases to and between courts?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 138\",\r\n      \"Article 139\",\r\n      \"Article 139A\",\r\n      \"Article 140\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 139A<\/b> \u2014 Transfer of certain cases, inserted by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 206,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India deals with the Ancillary powers of the Supreme Court?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 139A\",\r\n      \"Article 140\",\r\n      \"Article 141\",\r\n      \"Article 142\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 140<\/b> \u2014 Ancillary powers of Supreme Court, which Parliament may confer for the more effective exercise of its existing jurisdiction.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 207,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides that the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 140\",\r\n      \"Article 141\",\r\n      \"Article 142\",\r\n      \"Article 143\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 141<\/b> \u2014 Law declared by Supreme Court to be binding on all courts within the territory of India.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 208,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Enforcement of decrees and orders of the Supreme Court and orders as to discovery?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 141\",\r\n      \"Article 142\",\r\n      \"Article 143\",\r\n      \"Article 144\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 142<\/b> \u2014 including the power to pass any order necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before the Court.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 209,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India confers on the President the Power to consult the Supreme Court?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 142\",\r\n      \"Article 143\",\r\n      \"Article 144\",\r\n      \"Article 145\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 143<\/b> \u2014 Power of President to consult Supreme Court, the source of the Court's advisory jurisdiction.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 210,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India requires civil and judicial authorities to act in aid of the Supreme Court?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 143\",\r\n      \"Article 144\",\r\n      \"Article 145\",\r\n      \"Article 146\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 144<\/b> \u2014 Civil and judicial authorities to act in aid of the Supreme Court. Article 144A was repealed by the 43rd Amendment Act, 1977.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 211,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India deals with Rules of Court of the Supreme Court?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 144\",\r\n      \"Article 145\",\r\n      \"Article 146\",\r\n      \"Article 147\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 145<\/b> \u2014 Rules of Court, made with the approval of the President; clause (3) prescribes a minimum Bench of five Judges for substantial constitutional questions.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 212,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India deals with Officers and servants and the expenses of the Supreme Court?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 145\",\r\n      \"Article 146\",\r\n      \"Article 147\",\r\n      \"Article 148\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 146<\/b> \u2014 appointments are made by the Chief Justice of India, and the administrative expenses are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 213,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Salaries, etc., of Judges of the Supreme Court?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 124\",\r\n      \"Article 125\",\r\n      \"Article 126\",\r\n      \"Article 127\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 125<\/b> \u2014 salaries as determined by Parliament by law, and until so determined as specified in the Second Schedule; they may not be varied to a Judge's disadvantage after appointment, save during a Financial Emergency.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 214,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in appeals from High Courts in regard to civil matters?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 132\",\r\n      \"Article 133\",\r\n      \"Article 134\",\r\n      \"Article 136\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 133<\/b> \u2014 civil appeals, on a certificate that the case involves a substantial question of law of general importance which in the High Court's opinion needs to be decided by the Supreme Court.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 215,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in regard to criminal matters?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 132\",\r\n      \"Article 133\",\r\n      \"Article 134\",\r\n      \"Article 135\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 134<\/b> \u2014 criminal appeals, including cases where the High Court has reversed an acquittal and sentenced the accused to death.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 216,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides that the jurisdiction and powers of the Federal Court under existing law shall be exercisable by the Supreme Court?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 134A\",\r\n      \"Article 135\",\r\n      \"Article 136\",\r\n      \"Article 137\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 135<\/b> \u2014 a transitional provision carrying forward the jurisdiction of the Federal Court constituted under the Government of India Act, 1935.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 217,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India empowers Parliament to confer on the Supreme Court powers to issue certain writs?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 138\",\r\n      \"Article 139\",\r\n      \"Article 139A\",\r\n      \"Article 140\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 139<\/b> \u2014 Parliament may confer power to issue directions, orders or writs for any purposes other than those mentioned in Article 32(2).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 218,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"The Union Judiciary (Articles 124\u2013147)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India is the Interpretation clause of the Chapter on the Union Judiciary?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 145\",\r\n      \"Article 146\",\r\n      \"Article 147\",\r\n      \"Article 148\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 147<\/b> \u2014 it provides that references to a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution include references to the interpretation of the Government of India Act, 1935 and related instruments.\"\r\n  },\r\n   \/\/ Comptroller and Auditor General of India (Articles 148\u2013151)\r\n   \r\n   {\r\n    \"id\": 219,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Comptroller and Auditor General of India (Articles 148\u2013151)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The three financial committees of Parliament are the Public Accounts Committee, the Estimates Committee and the Committee on Public Undertakings. Their memberships are respectively:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"22, 30 and 22\",\r\n      \"22, 22 and 30\",\r\n      \"30, 22 and 22\",\r\n      \"15, 30 and 15\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The <b>Public Accounts Committee<\/b> has 22 members (15 from the House of the People and 7 from the Council of States); the <b>Estimates Committee<\/b> has 30 members, all drawn from the House of the People; the <b>Committee on Public Undertakings<\/b> has 22 members (15 and 7). None is a constitutional body; all are constituted under the Rules of Procedure.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 220,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Comptroller and Auditor General of India (Articles 148\u2013151)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following statements about the Estimates Committee is correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"It includes members of the Council of States\",\r\n      \"It consists exclusively of members of the House of the People and a Minister cannot be elected to it\",\r\n      \"It examines the audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General\",\r\n      \"Its Chairman is by convention from the Opposition\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The <b>Estimates Committee<\/b> is composed entirely of members of the House of the People, and no Minister may be elected to it \u2014 a rule common to all three financial committees. It suggests economies in expenditure and is sometimes called a continuous economy committee; it does <i>not<\/i> examine CAG reports, which is the function of the PAC.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 221,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Comptroller and Auditor General of India (Articles 148\u2013151)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The Prime Minister\",\r\n      \"The President by warrant under his hand and seal\",\r\n      \"Parliament by resolution\",\r\n      \"The Chief Justice of India\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 148(1)<\/b> provides that there shall be a Comptroller and Auditor General of India who shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. The same clause provides that he shall be removed from office only in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 222,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Comptroller and Auditor General of India (Articles 148\u2013151)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The Comptroller and Auditor General may be removed from office:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"By the President at his pleasure\",\r\n      \"By the President on the advice of the Prime Minister\",\r\n      \"In like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court\",\r\n      \"By a resolution of the House of the People passed by a simple majority\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 148(1)<\/b> makes the CAG removable only in the manner and on the grounds applicable to a Supreme Court Judge under Article 124(4) \u2014 that is, on an address by both Houses supported by the special majority, on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. This is the principal guarantee of his independence.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 223,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Comptroller and Auditor General of India (Articles 148\u2013151)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The term of office of the Comptroller and Auditor General is six years or until he attains the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier. This term is prescribed by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 148 of the Constitution itself\",\r\n      \"The Comptroller and Auditor General (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971\",\r\n      \"A rule made by the President under Article 148(5)\",\r\n      \"The Second Schedule to the Constitution\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The Constitution does not fix the CAG's tenure. <b>Article 148(3)<\/b> leaves salary and conditions of service to be determined by Parliament by law, and the term of six years or age 65, whichever is earlier, is prescribed by the <b>CAG (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971<\/b>. Article 148(3) also protects the conditions of service from being varied to his disadvantage after appointment.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 224,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Comptroller and Auditor General of India (Articles 148\u2013151)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"After ceasing to hold office, the Comptroller and Auditor General is:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Eligible for appointment as a Governor but not as a Minister\",\r\n      \"Not eligible for further office either under the Government of India or under the Government of any State\",\r\n      \"Eligible for reappointment for a second term\",\r\n      \"Eligible for any office after a cooling-off period of two years\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The proviso to <b>Article 148(4)<\/b> makes the CAG ineligible for further office either under the Government of India or under the Government of any State after he has ceased to hold office. This mirrors the disqualification applying to the Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission under Article 319(a).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 225,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Comptroller and Auditor General of India (Articles 148\u2013151)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The administrative expenses of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General, including salaries, allowances and pensions payable to persons serving in that office, are:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Voted annually by the House of the People\",\r\n      \"Charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India\",\r\n      \"Met from the Contingency Fund of India\",\r\n      \"Borne partly by the Union and partly by the States\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 148(6)<\/b> charges these expenses, including the CAG's own salary, allowances and pension under Article 148(3), upon the Consolidated Fund of India. Being charged, they are not submitted to the vote of Parliament, though they may be discussed.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 226,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Comptroller and Auditor General of India (Articles 148\u2013151)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The duties and powers of the Comptroller and Auditor General in relation to the accounts of the Union and of the States are:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Enumerated exhaustively in Article 149 itself\",\r\n      \"Prescribed by Parliament by law, and until so prescribed, are those conferred on the Auditor General of India immediately before the commencement of the Constitution\",\r\n      \"Determined by the President by rules\",\r\n      \"Determined by the Finance Commission\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 149<\/b> leaves the duties and powers to be prescribed by Parliament by law, with a transitional saving of the powers of the pre-Constitution Auditor General of India. Parliament exercised this power through the <b>CAG (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 227,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Comptroller and Auditor General of India (Articles 148\u2013151)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Under Article 150, the form in which the accounts of the Union and of the States shall be kept is prescribed by the President:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"After consultation with the Comptroller and Auditor General\",\r\n      \"On the advice of the Comptroller and Auditor General\",\r\n      \"On the recommendation of the Finance Commission\",\r\n      \"With the approval of Parliament\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"As originally enacted, Article 150 required the President to act <i>after consultation with<\/i> the CAG. The <b>44th Amendment Act, 1978<\/b> substituted the stronger formulation <b>on the advice of<\/b> the Comptroller and Auditor General, which is the position today.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 228,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Comptroller and Auditor General of India (Articles 148\u2013151)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General relating to the accounts of the Union are submitted to the President, who shall cause them to be laid before:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The House of the People only\",\r\n      \"Each House of Parliament\",\r\n      \"The Public Accounts Committee\",\r\n      \"The Union Cabinet\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 151(1)<\/b> requires the CAG to submit Union reports to the President, who shall cause them to be laid before each House of Parliament. Under <b>Article 151(2)<\/b>, State reports are submitted to the Governor, who causes them to be laid before the Legislature of the State.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 229,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Comptroller and Auditor General of India (Articles 148\u2013151)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements: I. The Comptroller and Auditor General audits all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India and of each State. II. He audits all expenditure from the Contingency Fund and the Public Account of India. III. He audits the receipts and expenditure of bodies and authorities substantially financed from Union or State revenues. Which of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I and II only\",\r\n      \"II and III only\",\r\n      \"I and III only\",\r\n      \"I, II and III\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"All three are correct, and are set out in Sections 13, 14 and 16 of the <b>CAG (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971<\/b>, enacted under Article 149. He also audits government companies and corporations under Sections 19 and 20 of the same Act.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 230,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Comptroller and Auditor General of India (Articles 148\u2013151)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The description of the CAG as merely an Auditor General rather than a Comptroller reflects the fact that:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"He has no power to audit State accounts\",\r\n      \"He has no control over the issue of money from the Consolidated Fund, and audits expenditure only after it has been incurred\",\r\n      \"His reports are advisory and are not laid before Parliament\",\r\n      \"He is appointed by Parliament and not by the President\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Unlike the Comptroller and Auditor General in Britain, the Indian CAG exercises no control at the stage of issue of money from the Consolidated Fund; departments draw money by cheque without his authorisation, and his role is essentially <i>post-facto<\/i> audit. Dr Ambedkar nevertheless described him as the most important officer under the Constitution.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 231,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Comptroller and Auditor General of India (Articles 148\u2013151)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General relating to the Union are examined in the first instance by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The Estimates Committee\",\r\n      \"The Public Accounts Committee\",\r\n      \"The Committee on Public Undertakings\",\r\n      \"The Business Advisory Committee\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The <b>Public Accounts Committee<\/b> examines the CAG's audit reports on appropriation and finance accounts, which is why the CAG is often described as the friend, philosopher and guide of that Committee. The PAC has <b>22 members<\/b> \u2014 15 from the House of the People and 7 from the Council of States \u2014 and since 1967 its Chairman has by convention been drawn from the Opposition. It is a parliamentary, not a constitutional, committee.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 232,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Comptroller and Auditor General of India (Articles 148\u2013151)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Before entering upon office, the Comptroller and Auditor General makes and subscribes an oath or affirmation before:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The Chief Justice of India\",\r\n      \"The President or some person appointed in that behalf by him\",\r\n      \"The Speaker of the House of the People\",\r\n      \"The Prime Minister\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 148(2)<\/b> requires the CAG, before entering upon his office, to make and subscribe before the President, or some person appointed in that behalf by him, an oath or affirmation according to the form set out for the purpose in the <b>Third Schedule<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 233,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Comptroller and Auditor General of India (Articles 148\u2013151)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 147\",\r\n      \"Article 148\",\r\n      \"Article 149\",\r\n      \"Article 150\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 148<\/b> \u2014 Comptroller and Auditor-General of India: appointment, oath, salary, conditions of service and ineligibility for further office.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 234,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Comptroller and Auditor General of India (Articles 148\u2013151)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Duties and powers of the Comptroller and Auditor-General?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 148\",\r\n      \"Article 149\",\r\n      \"Article 150\",\r\n      \"Article 151\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 149<\/b> \u2014 duties and powers as prescribed by Parliament by law, exercised through the CAG (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 235,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Comptroller and Auditor General of India (Articles 148\u2013151)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Form of accounts of the Union and of the States?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 149\",\r\n      \"Article 150\",\r\n      \"Article 151\",\r\n      \"Article 266\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 150<\/b> \u2014 prescribed by the President on the advice of the Comptroller and Auditor-General, the words <i>on the advice of<\/i> having been substituted by the 44th Amendment.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 236,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Comptroller and Auditor General of India (Articles 148\u2013151)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for Audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 149\",\r\n      \"Article 150\",\r\n      \"Article 151\",\r\n      \"Article 152\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 151<\/b> \u2014 Union reports go to the President and are laid before each House of Parliament; State reports go to the Governor and are laid before the State Legislature.\"\r\n  },\r\n   \/\/ Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\r\n   {\r\n    \"id\": 237,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Extent of laws made by Parliament and by the Legislatures of States?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 244\",\r\n      \"Article 245\",\r\n      \"Article 246\",\r\n      \"Article 247\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 245<\/b> \u2014 territorial extent of laws, and the protection of parliamentary legislation from challenge on the ground of extra-territorial operation.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 238,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Subject-matter of laws made by Parliament and by the Legislatures of States?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 245\",\r\n      \"Article 246\",\r\n      \"Article 247\",\r\n      \"Article 248\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 246<\/b> \u2014 read with the Seventh Schedule, it creates the Union, State and Concurrent Lists.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 239,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India makes Special provision with respect to goods and services tax?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 246\",\r\n      \"Article 246A\",\r\n      \"Article 269A\",\r\n      \"Article 279A\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 246A<\/b>, inserted by the 101st Amendment Act, 2016. Article 269A governs inter-State GST and Article 279A the GST Council.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 240,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India empowers Parliament to provide for the establishment of certain additional courts?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 246\",\r\n      \"Article 247\",\r\n      \"Article 248\",\r\n      \"Article 249\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 247<\/b> \u2014 additional courts for the better administration of laws with respect to a matter in the Union List.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 241,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for Residuary powers of legislation?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 247\",\r\n      \"Article 248\",\r\n      \"Article 249\",\r\n      \"Article 250\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 248<\/b> \u2014 residuary powers, including the power to impose a tax not mentioned in the State or Concurrent List, vest in Parliament.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 242,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India empowers Parliament to legislate on a State List matter in the national interest?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 248\",\r\n      \"Article 249\",\r\n      \"Article 250\",\r\n      \"Article 252\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 249<\/b> \u2014 on a resolution of the Council of States supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 243,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India empowers Parliament to legislate on a State List matter while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 249\",\r\n      \"Article 250\",\r\n      \"Article 251\",\r\n      \"Article 253\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 250<\/b> \u2014 such a law ceases to have effect six months after the Proclamation ceases to operate.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 244,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India deals with inconsistency between laws made by Parliament under Articles 249 and 250 and laws made by State Legislatures?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 250\",\r\n      \"Article 251\",\r\n      \"Article 252\",\r\n      \"Article 254\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 251<\/b> \u2014 the State law becomes <i>inoperative<\/i>, not void, and revives when the parliamentary law ceases to have effect.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 245,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India empowers Parliament to legislate for two or more States by consent, with adoption by any other State?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 251\",\r\n      \"Article 252\",\r\n      \"Article 253\",\r\n      \"Article 255\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 252<\/b> \u2014 such a law can be amended or repealed only by an Act of Parliament passed or adopted in like manner.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 246,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for Legislation for giving effect to international agreements?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 252\",\r\n      \"Article 253\",\r\n      \"Article 254\",\r\n      \"Article 255\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 253<\/b> \u2014 Parliament may legislate on any subject, including State List matters, to implement a treaty, agreement or convention or a decision of an international body.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 247,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India deals with Inconsistency between laws made by Parliament and laws made by the Legislatures of States?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 253\",\r\n      \"Article 254\",\r\n      \"Article 255\",\r\n      \"Article 256\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 254<\/b> \u2014 the doctrine of repugnancy on Concurrent List subjects; the State law is void to the extent of the repugnancy unless it has received the President's assent under clause (2).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 248,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides that requirements as to recommendations and previous sanctions are to be regarded as matters of procedure only?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 254\",\r\n      \"Article 255\",\r\n      \"Article 256\",\r\n      \"Article 257\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 255<\/b> \u2014 assent by the Governor or the President cures the absence of a required prior recommendation or sanction.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 249,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Obligation of States and the Union?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 255\",\r\n      \"Article 256\",\r\n      \"Article 257\",\r\n      \"Article 258\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 256<\/b> \u2014 the executive power of every State must be exercised so as to ensure compliance with laws made by Parliament.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 250,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for Control of the Union over States in certain cases?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 256\",\r\n      \"Article 257\",\r\n      \"Article 258\",\r\n      \"Article 258A\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 257<\/b> \u2014 including directions regarding means of communication of national or military importance and the protection of railways.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 251,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Power of the Union to confer powers, etc., on States in certain cases?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 257\",\r\n      \"Article 258\",\r\n      \"Article 258A\",\r\n      \"Article 259\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 258<\/b> \u2014 clause (1) requires the State's consent; clause (2) permits Parliament to confer powers and impose duties without consent.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 252,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Power of the States to entrust functions to the Union?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 258\",\r\n      \"Article 258A\",\r\n      \"Article 259\",\r\n      \"Article 260\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 258A<\/b>, inserted by the 7th Amendment Act, 1956. Article 259 was omitted by the same amendment.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 253,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India deals with the Jurisdiction of the Union in relation to territories outside India?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 259\",\r\n      \"Article 260\",\r\n      \"Article 261\",\r\n      \"Article 262\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 260<\/b> \u2014 the Government of India may, by agreement, undertake executive, legislative or judicial functions of a government outside India.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 254,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for Public acts, records and judicial proceedings?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 260\",\r\n      \"Article 261\",\r\n      \"Article 262\",\r\n      \"Article 263\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 261<\/b> \u2014 the full faith and credit clause, requiring recognition of public acts, records and judicial proceedings throughout India.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 255,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for Adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers or river valleys?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 261\",\r\n      \"Article 262\",\r\n      \"Article 263\",\r\n      \"Article 264\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 262<\/b> \u2014 Parliament may provide for adjudication and may bar the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and all other courts.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 256,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India contains Provisions with respect to an inter-State Council?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 262\",\r\n      \"Article 263\",\r\n      \"Article 264\",\r\n      \"Article 265\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 263<\/b> \u2014 the Council may be established by the President by order; it was actually set up in 1990.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 257,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The doctrine of pith and substance means that:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"A law must be struck down if it incidentally trenches upon a field reserved to the other legislature\",\r\n      \"If the true nature and character of a law falls within the legislature's own competence, it is valid even though it incidentally encroaches upon a field assigned to the other legislature\",\r\n      \"The Union law always prevails over a State law\",\r\n      \"A law is valid only if it deals with a single entry in a single List\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The doctrine of <b>pith and substance<\/b> looks to the true nature and character of the impugned law. If in substance it is within competence, incidental encroachment does not invalidate it. It was applied by the Supreme Court in <i>State of Bombay v. F. N. Balsara<\/i> and is essential to the working of Article 246.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 258,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The doctrine of colourable legislation is expressed in the maxim that:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"What cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly\",\r\n      \"The later law prevails over the earlier\",\r\n      \"A law must be read so as to save it from invalidity\",\r\n      \"Delegated legislation cannot exceed the parent Act\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The doctrine of <b>colourable legislation<\/b> applies where a legislature, lacking competence over a subject, attempts to achieve the same object indirectly under the guise of a law on a subject within its competence. It goes to legislative <i>competence<\/i> only, not to the motive or bona fides of the legislature.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 259,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The doctrine of harmonious construction, as applied to the Seventh Schedule, requires that:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Every entry be given the narrowest possible meaning\",\r\n      \"An apparent conflict between entries in different Lists be reconciled so that effect is given to both, and the wide language of an entry be read down only where reconciliation is impossible\",\r\n      \"The Union List always prevail\",\r\n      \"A conflicting entry be treated as repealed\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Courts presume that the framers did not intend a conflict, and read entries so as to give effect to both. Only where reconciliation is impossible does the non obstante clause of <b>Article 246(1)<\/b> give the Union List predominance, followed by the Concurrent List and last the State List.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 260,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements regarding repugnancy under Article 254: I. Repugnancy arises only in respect of a matter enumerated in the Concurrent List. II. For repugnancy to arise, both laws must be validly enacted and must occupy the same field, and the two must be irreconcilable. III. A State law that has received the President's assent prevails in that State notwithstanding the repugnancy. Which of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I and II only\",\r\n      \"II and III only\",\r\n      \"I and III only\",\r\n      \"I, II and III\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"All three are correct. Statement III reflects <b>Article 254(2)<\/b>, subject always to the proviso preserving Parliament's power to enact a later law on the same matter. The tests in statement II are those laid down in <i>Deep Chand v. State of Uttar Pradesh<\/i> and subsequent decisions.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 261,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The number of entries currently in the Union List, State List and Concurrent List respectively is approximately:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"97, 66 and 47\",\r\n      \"100, 61 and 52\",\r\n      \"98, 59 and 52\",\r\n      \"95, 70 and 40\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"As originally enacted, the Seventh Schedule contained <b>97<\/b> entries in the Union List, <b>66<\/b> in the State List and <b>47<\/b> in the Concurrent List. After successive amendments, principally the 42nd Amendment which moved five subjects to the Concurrent List, the present figures are approximately <b>100, 61 and 52<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 262,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The doctrine of territorial nexus permits a State law to operate on a person or object outside the State provided that:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The Union Government consents\",\r\n      \"There is a sufficient connection between the State and the object of the legislation, and the liability sought to be imposed is pertinent to that connection\",\r\n      \"The other State does not object\",\r\n      \"Parliament has passed an enabling law\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Because <b>Article 245(2)<\/b> protects only parliamentary legislation from challenge on the ground of extra-territorial operation, State laws must satisfy the twin tests of the <b>territorial nexus<\/b> doctrine \u2014 that the connection be real and not illusory, and that the liability be pertinent to it.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 263,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements regarding Article 245: I. Parliament may make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India, and the Legislature of a State for the whole or any part of the State. II. No law made by Parliament shall be deemed to be invalid on the ground that it would have extra-territorial operation. III. A State law having extra-territorial operation is equally protected. Which of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I and II only\",\r\n      \"II and III only\",\r\n      \"I and III only\",\r\n      \"I, II and III\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Statements I and II are <b>Article 245(1)<\/b> and <b>245(2)<\/b>. Statement III is incorrect \u2014 the protection against invalidity on the ground of extra-territorial operation is available only to laws made by <i>Parliament<\/i>. A State law is valid only if there is a sufficient territorial nexus with the State.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 264,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The three-fold distribution of legislative subjects between the Union and the States is contained in:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 245 read with the Fourth Schedule\",\r\n      \"Article 246 read with the Seventh Schedule\",\r\n      \"Article 248 read with the Sixth Schedule\",\r\n      \"Article 254 read with the Seventh Schedule\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 246<\/b> read with the <b>Seventh Schedule<\/b> creates List I (Union List), List II (State List) and List III (Concurrent List). The scheme was borrowed from the <b>Government of India Act, 1935<\/b>, though the residuary power was vested in the Centre rather than in the Provinces.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 265,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 246A, which makes special provision with respect to goods and services tax, was inserted by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The 80th Amendment Act, 2000\",\r\n      \"The 88th Amendment Act, 2003\",\r\n      \"The 101st Amendment Act, 2016\",\r\n      \"The 122nd Amendment Act, 2017\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 246A<\/b> was inserted by the <b>Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016<\/b>. It gives Parliament and every State Legislature concurrent power to make laws with respect to GST, while Parliament has <i>exclusive<\/i> power where the supply takes place in the course of inter-State trade or commerce.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 266,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Residuary powers of legislation, including the power to make any law imposing a tax not mentioned in the Concurrent List or the State List, are vested in:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The States\",\r\n      \"Parliament\",\r\n      \"The President\",\r\n      \"Parliament and the States concurrently\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 248<\/b> vests residuary powers in Parliament. India follows the Canadian model in this respect; in the United States and Australia the residuary power rests with the States. The article now opens with the words <i>Subject to Article 246A<\/i>, inserted by the 101st Amendment.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 267,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Parliament may make a law with respect to a matter enumerated in the State List in the national interest if the Council of States passes a resolution supported by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"A simple majority of the members present and voting\",\r\n      \"Not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting\",\r\n      \"A majority of the total membership and not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting\",\r\n      \"Not less than three-fourths of the members present and voting\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 249(1)<\/b> requires only a resolution supported by <b>not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting<\/b> in the Council of States. It does <i>not<\/i> additionally require a majority of the total membership \u2014 a widely reproduced error. The same two-thirds formula applies under Article 312.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 268,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"A resolution passed under Article 249 remains in force for a period not exceeding one year, and a law made under it ceases to have effect on the expiration of:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Six months after the resolution has ceased to be in force\",\r\n      \"One year after the resolution has ceased to be in force\",\r\n      \"Immediately upon the resolution ceasing to be in force\",\r\n      \"Two years after the resolution has ceased to be in force\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 249(2)<\/b> limits the resolution to one year, extendable by a further year at a time by a fresh resolution. <b>Article 249(3)<\/b> provides that a law made under it ceases to have effect on the expiration of <b>six months<\/b> after the resolution has ceased to be in force, except as respects things done or omitted to be done before that expiry.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 269,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The power of Parliament to legislate with respect to any matter in the State List while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation is contained in:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 249\",\r\n      \"Article 250\",\r\n      \"Article 252\",\r\n      \"Article 253\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 250(1)<\/b> confers this power during a Proclamation of Emergency. Under Article 250(2) such a law ceases to have effect on the expiration of <b>six months<\/b> after the Proclamation has ceased to operate. Note that the State Legislature is not divested of its own power to legislate on the subject.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 270,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Where a law made by Parliament under Article 249 or Article 250 is inconsistent with a law made by a State Legislature, Article 251 provides that the State law:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Becomes void to the extent of the repugnancy\",\r\n      \"Remains on the statute book but becomes inoperative to the extent of the repugnancy so long as the parliamentary law is in force\",\r\n      \"Prevails over the parliamentary law\",\r\n      \"Must be reserved for the consideration of the President\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 251<\/b> makes the parliamentary law prevail, but the State law is only rendered <i>inoperative<\/i> \u2014 not void \u2014 to the extent of the repugnancy. Once the parliamentary law ceases to have effect, the State law revives automatically. This is a key contrast with Article 254(1), where the State law is void.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 271,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"A law made by Parliament under Article 252, at the request of two or more States, may thereafter be amended or repealed:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"By the Legislature of any State to which it applies\",\r\n      \"Only by an Act of Parliament passed or adopted in like manner\",\r\n      \"By the President by order\",\r\n      \"By a resolution of the Council of States\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 252(2)<\/b> provides that any such Act may be amended or repealed only by an Act of Parliament passed or adopted in like manner, and not by the Legislature of any State to which it applies. Under Article 252(1) the Act applies to the requesting States and to any other State that afterwards adopts it by resolution.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 272,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Under Article 253, Parliament has power to make any law for the whole or any part of the territory of India for implementing:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Any treaty, agreement or convention with any other country, or any decision made at any international conference, association or other body\",\r\n      \"Only bilateral treaties ratified by the President\",\r\n      \"Only decisions of the United Nations Security Council\",\r\n      \"Only treaties relating to matters in the Union List\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 253<\/b> is worded very widely and operates <i>notwithstanding anything in the foregoing provisions of this Chapter<\/i>, so Parliament may legislate even on State List subjects to implement an international obligation. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, enacted following the Stockholm Conference, is a standard example.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 273,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements regarding Article 254: I. If a State law on a Concurrent List subject is repugnant to a law made by Parliament, the parliamentary law prevails and the State law is void to the extent of the repugnancy. II. If the State law has been reserved for the consideration of the President and has received his assent, that law prevails in that State. III. Parliament is thereafter barred from enacting any law adding to, amending, varying or repealing that State law. Which of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I and II only\",\r\n      \"II and III only\",\r\n      \"I and III only\",\r\n      \"I, II and III\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Statements I and II are <b>Article 254(1)<\/b> and <b>254(2)<\/b>. Statement III is wrong \u2014 the proviso to Article 254(2) expressly preserves Parliament's power at any time to enact a law with respect to the same matter, including a law adding to, amending, varying or repealing the State law that has received the President's assent.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 274,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 255 provides that a requirement as to a recommendation or previous sanction shall be regarded as a matter of procedure only, and an Act shall not be invalid on that ground if:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"It has been laid before Parliament\",\r\n      \"Assent to that Act was given by the Governor, or by the President, as the case may be\",\r\n      \"The Supreme Court so certifies\",\r\n      \"The State Legislature ratifies it subsequently\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 255<\/b> cures a defect in the absence of a required recommendation or previous sanction where assent has been given by the Governor or the President, as the case may be. It prevents legislation from being struck down on a purely procedural irregularity.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 275,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 247 empowers Parliament to:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Establish additional courts for the better administration of laws made by Parliament or of any existing law with respect to a matter enumerated in the Union List\",\r\n      \"Establish High Courts for Union territories\",\r\n      \"Establish administrative tribunals\",\r\n      \"Establish the Supreme Court\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 247<\/b> permits Parliament, notwithstanding anything in Chapter I of Part XI, to provide for the establishment of additional courts for the better administration of laws made by Parliament or of any existing law with respect to a matter enumerated in the <b>Union List<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 276,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which Amendment transferred Education from the State List to the Concurrent List?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The 24th Amendment Act, 1971\",\r\n      \"The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976\",\r\n      \"The 44th Amendment Act, 1978\",\r\n      \"The 73rd Amendment Act, 1992\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The <b>42nd Amendment Act, 1976<\/b> transferred five subjects from the State List to the Concurrent List: education, forests, weights and measures, protection of wild animals and birds, and administration of justice and constitution and organisation of all courts except the Supreme Court and High Courts.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 277,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 256 provides that the executive power of every State shall be so exercised as to ensure compliance with:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The directions of the Governor\",\r\n      \"The laws made by Parliament and any existing laws which apply in that State\",\r\n      \"The recommendations of the Finance Commission\",\r\n      \"The decisions of the Inter-State Council\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 256<\/b> obliges every State to exercise its executive power so as to ensure compliance with laws made by Parliament and any existing laws applying in that State, and empowers the Union to give such directions to a State as may appear to the Government of India to be necessary for that purpose.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 278,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Under Article 257, the Union may give directions to a State in respect of which of the following? I. The construction and maintenance of means of communication declared to be of national or military importance. II. Measures to be taken for the protection of the railways within the State. III. The manner of exercise of the State's executive power so as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union. Select the correct answer:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I and II only\",\r\n      \"II and III only\",\r\n      \"I and III only\",\r\n      \"I, II and III\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"All three are contained in <b>Article 257(1), (2) and (3)<\/b>. Article 257(4) provides that where costs are incurred by a State in carrying out such directions, the Government of India shall pay the extra costs, the amount being determined by an arbitrator appointed by the Chief Justice of India in default of agreement.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 279,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following: I. Under Article 258(1) the President may, with the consent of the Government of a State, entrust to that Government functions relating to any matter to which the executive power of the Union extends. II. Under Article 258(2) Parliament may by law confer powers and impose duties upon a State or its officers even in respect of a matter to which the executive power of the State does not extend, and the consent of the State is not required. Which of the statements given above is\/are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I only\",\r\n      \"II only\",\r\n      \"Both I and II\",\r\n      \"Neither I nor II\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Both are correct and the contrast between them is the point most often tested: <b>Article 258(1)<\/b> is an executive entrustment requiring the State's <i>consent<\/i>, whereas <b>Article 258(2)<\/b> is a statutory conferment by Parliament that operates <i>without<\/i> the State's consent.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 280,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The power of a State to entrust functions to the Union is contained in Article 258A, which was inserted by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The 7th Amendment Act, 1956\",\r\n      \"The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976\",\r\n      \"The 44th Amendment Act, 1978\",\r\n      \"The Constitution as originally enacted\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 258A<\/b> was inserted by the <b>Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956<\/b>. It permits the Governor, with the consent of the Government of India, to entrust to that Government or its officers functions relating to any matter to which the executive power of the State extends. The original Constitution provided only for entrustment in the reverse direction.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 281,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 257A, which had empowered the Union to deploy armed forces or other forces of the Union in any State in aid of the civil power, was:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Inserted by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 and omitted by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978\",\r\n      \"Inserted by the 44th Amendment and continues in force\",\r\n      \"Part of the original Constitution and later repealed\",\r\n      \"Never enacted\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 257A<\/b> was inserted by the <b>42nd Amendment Act, 1976<\/b> and omitted by the <b>44th Amendment Act, 1978<\/b>, as part of the restoration of the federal balance after the Emergency. The Union nevertheless retains its power under Entry 2A of the Union List, also added by the 42nd Amendment.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 282,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 261, which requires that full faith and credit shall be given throughout the territory of India to public acts, records and judicial proceedings, further provides that:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Final judgments delivered by civil courts in any part of India are capable of execution anywhere within India\",\r\n      \"Criminal judgments are enforceable only in the State where they were pronounced\",\r\n      \"Records of the Union alone are entitled to such credit\",\r\n      \"The manner of proof of such acts and records shall be prescribed by the Supreme Court\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 261(3)<\/b> provides that final judgments or orders delivered or passed by civil courts in any part of the territory of India shall be capable of execution anywhere within that territory according to law. Under Article 261(2), the manner and conditions of proof are determined by law made by Parliament.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 283,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"With reference to Article 262, consider the following statements: I. Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of any inter-State river or river valley. II. Parliament may by law provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute. Which of the statements given above is\/are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I only\",\r\n      \"II only\",\r\n      \"Both I and II\",\r\n      \"Neither I nor II\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Both are correct, being <b>Article 262(1)<\/b> and <b>262(2)<\/b>. Parliament has enacted the <b>Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956<\/b> and the River Boards Act, 1956 under this article. Section 11 of the 1956 Act bars the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, though the Court retains its powers under Article 136 over a Tribunal's award.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 284,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The Inter-State Council is provided for under Article 263 and may be established by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Parliament by law\",\r\n      \"The President by order, if at any time it appears to him that the public interests would be served by its establishment\",\r\n      \"The Union Cabinet by resolution\",\r\n      \"The Supreme Court on a reference\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 263<\/b> empowers the <i>President<\/i> to establish the Council by order and to define its duties and organisation. The Council was actually set up in <b>1990<\/b> on the recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission; the Prime Minister is its Chairman, with six Union Ministers and the Chief Ministers of all States and Union territories with legislatures as members.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 285,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The duties which may be assigned to the Inter-State Council under Article 263 include: I. Inquiring into and advising upon disputes which may have arisen between States. II. Investigating and discussing subjects in which some or all of the States, or the Union and one or more of the States, have a common interest. III. Making recommendations upon any such subject, particularly for the better co-ordination of policy and action. Select the correct answer:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I and II only\",\r\n      \"II and III only\",\r\n      \"I and III only\",\r\n      \"I, II and III\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"All three are the duties enumerated in <b>Article 263(a), (b) and (c)<\/b>. The Council's function under clause (a) is advisory only; it is not an adjudicatory body, and its recommendations are not binding.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 286,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"If a State fails to comply with, or to give effect to, any directions given by the Union in the exercise of its executive power under Articles 256 and 257, the consequence provided by the Constitution is that:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The State Government stands automatically dismissed\",\r\n      \"It shall be lawful for the President to hold that a situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution\",\r\n      \"The Supreme Court may issue a writ of mandamus against the State\",\r\n      \"The Union may withhold all grants-in-aid to the State\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 365<\/b> provides this consequence, opening the way to a Proclamation under Article 356. It is one of the strongest coercive levers available to the Union, and the Sarkaria and Punchhi Commissions both recommended that it be used sparingly and only after a warning to the State.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 287,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 260 of the Constitution deals with:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The jurisdiction of the Union in relation to territories outside India\",\r\n      \"Full faith and credit to public acts and records\",\r\n      \"Adjudication of inter-State water disputes\",\r\n      \"The power of the States to entrust functions to the Union\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 260<\/b> permits the Government of India, by agreement with the Government of any territory not being part of the territory of India, to undertake any executive, legislative or judicial functions vested in the government of that territory. Article 259 was <b>omitted by the 7th Amendment Act, 1956<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 288,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245\u2013263)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 259 of the Constitution of India, which related to the Armed Forces in States in Part B of the First Schedule, was:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Omitted by the 7th Amendment Act, 1956\",\r\n      \"Omitted by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976\",\r\n      \"Omitted by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978\",\r\n      \"Still in force\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 259<\/b> was omitted by the <b>Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956<\/b>, which abolished the classification of States into Parts A, B, C and D. The same amendment inserted Article 258A.\"\r\n  }\r\n   ,\r\n   \/\/ Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\r\n     {\r\n    \"id\": 289,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides that taxes shall not be imposed save by authority of law?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 264\",\r\n      \"Article 265\",\r\n      \"Article 266\",\r\n      \"Article 267\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 265<\/b>. Article 264 is the interpretation clause defining Finance Commission for Part XII.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 290,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Consolidated Funds and public accounts of India and of the States?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 265\",\r\n      \"Article 266\",\r\n      \"Article 267\",\r\n      \"Article 283\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 266<\/b> \u2014 clause (1) creates the Consolidated Fund, clause (2) the Public Account, and clause (3) bars appropriation except in accordance with law.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 291,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Contingency Fund?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 266\",\r\n      \"Article 267\",\r\n      \"Article 268\",\r\n      \"Article 283\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 267<\/b> \u2014 a fund in the nature of an imprest, established by Parliament by law and placed at the disposal of the President.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 292,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India deals with Duties levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the States?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 267\",\r\n      \"Article 268\",\r\n      \"Article 269\",\r\n      \"Article 270\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 268<\/b> \u2014 now confined, after the 101st Amendment, to stamp duties mentioned in the Union List.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 293,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India deals with Taxes levied and collected by the Union but assigned to the States?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 268\",\r\n      \"Article 269\",\r\n      \"Article 270\",\r\n      \"Article 271\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 269<\/b>. Article 269A separately governs the levy and collection of GST on inter-State supplies.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 294,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India deals with Taxes levied and distributed between the Union and the States?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 269\",\r\n      \"Article 270\",\r\n      \"Article 271\",\r\n      \"Article 272\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 270<\/b> \u2014 the divisible pool, from which the States receive a share as recommended by the Finance Commission.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 295,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for a Surcharge on certain duties and taxes for purposes of the Union?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 270\",\r\n      \"Article 271\",\r\n      \"Article 272\",\r\n      \"Article 273\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 271<\/b> \u2014 the whole proceeds of such a surcharge form part of the Consolidated Fund of India and are not shared with the States.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 296,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for Grants in lieu of export duty on jute and jute products?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 272\",\r\n      \"Article 273\",\r\n      \"Article 274\",\r\n      \"Article 275\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 273<\/b> \u2014 payable to Assam, Bihar, Odisha and West Bengal. Article 272 was omitted by the 80th Amendment Act, 2000.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 297,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India requires the prior recommendation of the President for Bills affecting taxation in which States are interested?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 273\",\r\n      \"Article 274\",\r\n      \"Article 275\",\r\n      \"Article 276\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 274<\/b> \u2014 no such Bill shall be introduced or moved in either House of Parliament except on the President's recommendation.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 298,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for Grants from the Union to certain States?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 274\",\r\n      \"Article 275\",\r\n      \"Article 276\",\r\n      \"Article 282\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 275<\/b> \u2014 statutory grants-in-aid charged on the Consolidated Fund of India, distinct from the discretionary grants under Article 282.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 299,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for Taxes on professions, trades, callings and employments?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 275\",\r\n      \"Article 276\",\r\n      \"Article 277\",\r\n      \"Article 278\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 276<\/b> \u2014 subject to a ceiling of Rs 2,500 per person per annum, raised from Rs 250 by the 60th Amendment Act, 1988.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 300,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Calculation of net proceeds?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 277\",\r\n      \"Article 278\",\r\n      \"Article 279\",\r\n      \"Article 280\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 279<\/b> \u2014 ascertained and certified by the Comptroller and Auditor-General, whose certificate is final. Article 277 is the savings clause; Article 278 was omitted by the 7th Amendment.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 301,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Goods and Services Tax Council?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 246A\",\r\n      \"Article 269A\",\r\n      \"Article 279A\",\r\n      \"Article 280\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 279A<\/b>, inserted by the 101st Amendment Act, 2016, with the Union Finance Minister as Chairperson.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 302,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Finance Commission?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 279\",\r\n      \"Article 280\",\r\n      \"Article 281\",\r\n      \"Article 282\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 280<\/b> \u2014 constituted by the President every fifth year or earlier, consisting of a Chairman and four other members.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 303,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Recommendations of the Finance Commission to be laid before Parliament?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 280\",\r\n      \"Article 281\",\r\n      \"Article 282\",\r\n      \"Article 283\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 281<\/b> \u2014 every recommendation, with an explanatory memorandum as to the action taken thereon, is laid before each House.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 304,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for Expenditure defrayable by the Union or a State out of its revenues?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 281\",\r\n      \"Article 282\",\r\n      \"Article 283\",\r\n      \"Article 284\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 282<\/b> \u2014 grants for any public purpose, irrespective of legislative competence; the basis of centrally sponsored schemes.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 305,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Custody of Consolidated Funds, Contingency Funds and moneys credited to the public accounts?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 282\",\r\n      \"Article 283\",\r\n      \"Article 284\",\r\n      \"Article 285\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 283<\/b>. Article 284 separately deals with the custody of suitors' deposits and other moneys received by public servants and courts.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 306,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for Exemption of property of the Union from State taxation?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 284\",\r\n      \"Article 285\",\r\n      \"Article 286\",\r\n      \"Article 289\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 285<\/b>. The converse \u2014 exemption of the property and income of a State from Union taxation \u2014 is Article 289.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 307,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for Exemption from taxes on electricity?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 286\",\r\n      \"Article 287\",\r\n      \"Article 288\",\r\n      \"Article 289\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 287<\/b>. Article 288 deals with exemption from taxation by States in respect of water or electricity in certain cases.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 308,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for Adjustment in respect of certain expenses and pensions?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 289\",\r\n      \"Article 290\",\r\n      \"Article 290A\",\r\n      \"Article 291\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 290<\/b>. Article 290A provides for annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds; Article 291, on privy purses, was repealed by the 26th Amendment.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 309,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which articles of the Constitution of India provide respectively for Borrowing by the Government of India and Borrowing by States?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Articles 290 and 291\",\r\n      \"Articles 292 and 293\",\r\n      \"Articles 293 and 294\",\r\n      \"Articles 291 and 292\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 292<\/b> \u2014 borrowing by the Government of India; <b>Article 293<\/b> \u2014 borrowing by States, confined to within the territory of India.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 310,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following statements about the recommendations of the Finance Commission is correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"They are binding on the Government of India\",\r\n      \"They are advisory in nature, and by convention the recommendation on tax devolution has been accepted\",\r\n      \"They require ratification by half the State Legislatures\",\r\n      \"They may be modified only by the Supreme Court\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Neither Article 280 nor Article 281 makes the recommendations binding. They are advisory, although successive Governments have by convention accepted the core recommendation on the States' share in the divisible pool, while treating recommendations on grants and sector-specific matters more selectively.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 311,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The share of the States in the net proceeds of the divisible pool of central taxes was raised to 42 per cent, and subsequently adjusted to 41 per cent, on the recommendations of:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The Thirteenth and Fourteenth Finance Commissions\",\r\n      \"The Fourteenth and Fifteenth Finance Commissions\",\r\n      \"The Twelfth and Thirteenth Finance Commissions\",\r\n      \"The Fifteenth and Sixteenth Finance Commissions\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The <b>Fourteenth Finance Commission<\/b>, chaired by Y. V. Reddy, raised the States' share from 32 to <b>42 per cent<\/b>. The <b>Fifteenth Finance Commission<\/b>, chaired by N. K. Singh, adjusted it to <b>41 per cent<\/b> to account for the reorganisation of Jammu and Kashmir into two Union territories.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 312,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following is a valid criticism of the growing reliance on cesses and surcharges by the Union?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"They are unconstitutional under Article 271\",\r\n      \"Their proceeds form part of the Consolidated Fund of India in their entirety and fall outside the divisible pool, so the States' effective share of gross central revenues is reduced\",\r\n      \"They cannot be levied without the consent of the States\",\r\n      \"They must be approved by the Finance Commission\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 271<\/b> expressly provides that the whole proceeds of a surcharge form part of the Consolidated Fund of India. Cesses are similarly earmarked and excluded from the divisible pool under Article 270. The consequence is that a State's realised share of gross central tax revenue is materially lower than the headline devolution percentage \u2014 a recurring theme before recent Finance Commissions.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 313,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Under Article 279A, the weightage of votes in the Goods and Services Tax Council is:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Equal for the Centre and each State\",\r\n      \"One-third for the Centre and two-thirds for all the States taken together, with decisions requiring not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of those present and voting\",\r\n      \"One-half for the Centre and one-half for the States\",\r\n      \"Two-thirds for the Centre and one-third for the States\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The weighting in <b>Article 279A(9)<\/b> gives the Centre an effective veto, since no decision can be carried without its concurrence, while the States collectively can also block a proposal. The quorum under Article 279A(7) is one-half of the total number of members.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 314,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which of the following taxes remained outside the ambit of the goods and services tax introduced by the 101st Amendment? I. Taxes on petroleum crude, high speed diesel, motor spirit, natural gas and aviation turbine fuel, until a date recommended by the GST Council. II. Taxes on alcoholic liquor for human consumption. III. Stamp duty on immovable property. Select the correct answer:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I and II only\",\r\n      \"II and III only\",\r\n      \"I and III only\",\r\n      \"I, II and III\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"All three remain outside GST. Alcoholic liquor for human consumption is excluded by the definition of goods and services tax in <b>Article 366(12A)<\/b>; the five petroleum products are deferred under <b>Article 279A(5)<\/b>; and stamp duty on immovable property continues under the State List.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 315,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following correctly distinguishes grants under Article 275 from grants under Article 282?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 275 grants are statutory, charged on the Consolidated Fund of India and flow from Finance Commission recommendations, while Article 282 grants are discretionary and may be made for any public purpose\",\r\n      \"Article 282 grants are charged expenditure while Article 275 grants are voted\",\r\n      \"Article 275 grants may be made only during an Emergency\",\r\n      \"Article 282 grants may be made only by the States\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"This is the standard distinction between <b>statutory grants<\/b> and <b>discretionary grants<\/b>. Article 282 has been used as the basis for centrally sponsored schemes; its wide use has been criticised by the States as bypassing the Finance Commission channel and encroaching on the State List.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 316,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements regarding State borrowing under Article 293: I. A State may borrow only within the territory of India. II. The Government of India may make loans to any State, subject to limits fixed by Parliament by law. III. So long as any part of a loan made by the Government of India to a State remains outstanding, the State may not raise any further loan without the consent of the Government of India. Which of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I and II only\",\r\n      \"II and III only\",\r\n      \"I and III only\",\r\n      \"I, II and III\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"All three are correct, corresponding to <b>Article 293(1), (2) and (3)<\/b>. The restriction in clause (3) gives the Union substantial leverage over State finances in practice, since almost every State carries outstanding Union loans.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 317,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The principle that no tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law is contained in:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 264\",\r\n      \"Article 265\",\r\n      \"Article 266\",\r\n      \"Article 300A\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 265<\/b> embodies the principle of no taxation without legislative authority. The word <i>law<\/i> here means a validly enacted statute; an executive order or a rule not backed by statutory authority cannot impose a tax.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 318,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements regarding Article 266: I. All revenues received by the Government of India, all loans raised by it and all moneys received by it in repayment of loans form the Consolidated Fund of India. II. All other public moneys received by or on behalf of the Government of India are credited to the Public Account of India. III. No moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India shall be appropriated except in accordance with law and for the purposes and in the manner provided in the Constitution. Which of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I and II only\",\r\n      \"II and III only\",\r\n      \"I and III only\",\r\n      \"I, II and III\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"All three correspond to <b>Article 266(1), (2) and (3)<\/b>. Note that expenditure from the Public Account does not require parliamentary appropriation, since those moneys are held by the Government in a fiduciary or banker capacity.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 319,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The Contingency Fund of India under Article 267 is:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Established by the Constitution itself and placed at the disposal of the Finance Minister\",\r\n      \"Established by Parliament by law, in the nature of an imprest, and placed at the disposal of the President\",\r\n      \"Established by the President by order and operated by the Comptroller and Auditor General\",\r\n      \"A part of the Public Account of India operated by the Reserve Bank of India\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 267(1)<\/b> permits Parliament by law to establish a Contingency Fund of India in the nature of an imprest, placed at the disposal of the President to enable advances to be made for meeting unforeseen expenditure pending authorisation by Parliament. The Contingency Fund of India Act, 1950 governs it; the corpus was raised to <b>Rs 30,000 crore<\/b> by the Finance Act, 2021.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 320,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following correctly describes the position of stamp duties mentioned in the Union List?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Levied and collected by the Union and retained by it\",\r\n      \"Levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the States\",\r\n      \"Levied and collected by the Union but assigned to the States\",\r\n      \"Levied and collected by the States\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 268<\/b> covers duties which are <i>levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the States<\/i>. Following the <b>101st Amendment Act, 2016<\/b>, the only surviving item under this head is stamp duties mentioned in the Union List; excise duties on medicinal and toilet preparations were removed, and Article 268A on service tax was omitted altogether.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 321,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Taxes on the sale or purchase of goods and taxes on the consignment of goods in the course of inter-State trade or commerce are dealt with under:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 268\",\r\n      \"Article 269\",\r\n      \"Article 270\",\r\n      \"Article 271\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 269<\/b> covers taxes levied and collected by the Union but <i>assigned to the States<\/i>. Article 269A, inserted by the 101st Amendment, separately governs the levy and collection of GST on inter-State supplies, which is collected by the Government of India and apportioned between the Union and the States.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 322,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Under Article 269A, goods and services tax on supplies in the course of inter-State trade or commerce is:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Levied and collected by the States and assigned to the Union\",\r\n      \"Levied and collected by the Government of India and apportioned between the Union and the States as provided by Parliament by law on the recommendations of the GST Council\",\r\n      \"Levied by the States and collected by the Union\",\r\n      \"Levied and retained entirely by the Union\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 269A(1)<\/b> provides for levy and collection by the Government of India and apportionment as Parliament may by law provide on the recommendations of the Goods and Services Tax Council. The Explanation deems supply in the course of <b>import<\/b> into India to be supply in the course of inter-State trade or commerce.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 323,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"A surcharge imposed under Article 271 on any of the duties or taxes referred to in Articles 269 and 270:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Is shared with the States in the same proportion as the underlying tax\",\r\n      \"Forms part of the Consolidated Fund of India in its entirety and is not shareable with the States\",\r\n      \"Is credited to the Contingency Fund of India\",\r\n      \"Must be distributed among the States as recommended by the Finance Commission\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 271<\/b> provides that the whole proceeds of any such surcharge shall form part of the Consolidated Fund of India, so surcharges and cesses fall outside the divisible pool. This has been a persistent grievance of the States before successive Finance Commissions. The 101st Amendment added a proviso excluding GST under Article 246A from this power.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 324,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 272, which provided for taxes which were levied and collected by the Union and might be distributed between the Union and the States, was omitted by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976\",\r\n      \"The 80th Amendment Act, 2000\",\r\n      \"The 88th Amendment Act, 2003\",\r\n      \"The 101st Amendment Act, 2016\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Article 272 was omitted by the <b>Constitution (Eightieth Amendment) Act, 2000<\/b>, which gave effect to the alternative scheme of devolution recommended by the Tenth Finance Commission by placing all central taxes and duties in a single divisible pool under a recast Article 270. Attributing this omission to the 101st Amendment is a common error.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 325,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Grants in lieu of export duty on jute and jute products under Article 273 are payable to the States of:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Assam, Bihar, Odisha and West Bengal\",\r\n      \"West Bengal, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh\",\r\n      \"Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal\",\r\n      \"Assam, Meghalaya and Tripura\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 273<\/b> provides for grants charged on the Consolidated Fund of India in lieu of any share of the net proceeds of export duty on jute and jute products to the States of <b>Assam, Bihar, Odisha and West Bengal<\/b>, so long as the Union continues to levy that duty.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 326,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Under Article 276, the total amount payable in respect of any one person to the State or to any local authority by way of taxes on professions, trades, callings and employments shall not exceed:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Rs 250 per annum\",\r\n      \"Rs 1,000 per annum\",\r\n      \"Rs 2,500 per annum\",\r\n      \"Rs 5,000 per annum\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The ceiling in <b>Article 276(2)<\/b> was originally Rs 250 per annum and was raised to <b>Rs 2,500<\/b> by the <b>Constitution (Sixtieth Amendment) Act, 1988<\/b>. Article 276(1) makes clear that such a tax is not invalid on the ground that it relates to a tax on income.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 327,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Under Article 279, the net proceeds of any tax or duty are ascertained and certified by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The Finance Commission, whose certificate is final\",\r\n      \"The Comptroller and Auditor General of India, whose certificate is final\",\r\n      \"The Ministry of Finance\",\r\n      \"The Reserve Bank of India\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 279(1)<\/b> provides that net proceeds \u2014 the proceeds reduced by the cost of collection \u2014 shall be ascertained and certified by the <b>Comptroller and Auditor General of India<\/b>, and his certificate shall be <i>final<\/i>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 328,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"With reference to the Goods and Services Tax Council under Article 279A, consider the following statements: I. The Union Finance Minister is the Chairperson of the Council. II. The quorum for a meeting is one-half of the total number of members. III. Every decision is taken by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting, the Centre having a weightage of one-third and the States together two-thirds. Which of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I and II only\",\r\n      \"II and III only\",\r\n      \"I and III only\",\r\n      \"I, II and III\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"All three are correct. <b>Article 279A<\/b> requires the President to constitute the Council within sixty days of the commencement of the 101st Amendment Act. The Vice-Chairperson is chosen from amongst the State Ministers, and the Union Minister of State in charge of Revenue or Finance is also a member.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 329,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The Finance Commission is constituted by the President:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Every year\",\r\n      \"Within two years from the commencement of the Constitution and thereafter at the expiration of every fifth year or at such earlier time as the President considers necessary\",\r\n      \"Every ten years\",\r\n      \"Whenever Parliament by resolution so requires\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 280(1)<\/b> prescribes exactly this. The Commission consists of a <b>Chairman and four other members<\/b>, and under Article 280(2) Parliament may by law determine their qualifications and the manner of their selection.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 330,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following is NOT among the matters on which the Finance Commission makes recommendations under Article 280(3)?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be, or may be, divided between them\",\r\n      \"The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India\",\r\n      \"The measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of Panchayats and Municipalities\",\r\n      \"The preparation and presentation of the Union Budget\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Options (a), (b) and (c) are <b>Article 280(3)(a), (b), (bb) and (c)<\/b> \u2014 the last two clauses having been added by the 73rd and 74th Amendments. Article 280(3)(d) adds any other matter referred to the Commission by the President. Budget preparation is an executive function of the Union and forms no part of the Commission's mandate.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 331,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Under Article 281, every recommendation made by the Finance Commission, together with an explanatory memorandum as to the action taken thereon, shall be laid before:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The House of the People only\",\r\n      \"Each House of Parliament\",\r\n      \"The Inter-State Council\",\r\n      \"The Union Cabinet\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 281<\/b> requires the President to cause every such recommendation, with an explanatory memorandum as to the action taken thereon, to be laid before each House of Parliament. The recommendations themselves are <b>advisory<\/b> and not binding on the Government.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 332,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 282 permits the Union or a State to make grants for any public purpose:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Only in respect of matters within its own legislative competence\",\r\n      \"Notwithstanding that the purpose is not one with respect to which Parliament or the Legislature of the State, as the case may be, may make laws\",\r\n      \"Only on the recommendation of the Finance Commission\",\r\n      \"Only during the operation of a Proclamation of Emergency\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 282<\/b> is the constitutional basis for discretionary grants and for centrally sponsored schemes, since it permits expenditure for any public purpose irrespective of legislative competence. It stands in contrast to the statutory grants under Article 275, which are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India and flow from Finance Commission recommendations.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 333,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Grants-in-aid of the revenues of States which are in need of assistance, including special grants for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes and for the administration of Scheduled Areas, are provided under:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 273\",\r\n      \"Article 275\",\r\n      \"Article 280\",\r\n      \"Article 282\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 275(1)<\/b> provides for statutory grants-in-aid charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to such States as Parliament may determine to be in need of assistance, with a proviso for special grants for schemes of development for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes and for raising the level of administration of Scheduled Areas, including the State of Assam.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 334,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Match the following exemption provisions with the correct Article: I. Exemption of property of the Union from State taxation II. Exemption from taxes on electricity III. Exemption of property and income of a State from Union taxation\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I-285, II-287, III-289\",\r\n      \"I-286, II-288, III-290\",\r\n      \"I-285, II-286, III-287\",\r\n      \"I-289, II-287, III-285\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 285<\/b> exempts Union property from State taxation; <b>Article 287<\/b> exempts specified consumption or sale of electricity from State taxes; <b>Article 289<\/b> exempts the property and income of a State from Union taxation. Article 286 restricts State taxation on inter-State and international supplies, and Article 288 concerns taxation by States in respect of water or electricity in certain cases.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 335,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 290A provides for an annual payment out of the Consolidated Fund of the States of Kerala and Tamil Nadu to certain Devaswom Funds. The article was inserted by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The 7th Amendment Act, 1956\",\r\n      \"The 26th Amendment Act, 1971\",\r\n      \"The 28th Amendment Act, 1972\",\r\n      \"The Constitution as originally enacted\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 290A<\/b> was inserted by the <b>Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956<\/b> upon the reorganisation of States. It charges Rs 46,50,000 annually on the Consolidated Fund of the State of <b>Kerala<\/b> for the Travancore Devaswom Fund, and Rs 13,50,000 on the Consolidated Fund of the State of <b>Tamil Nadu<\/b> for the Devaswom Fund maintaining Hindu temples in the territories transferred from Travancore-Cochin on 1 November 1956.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 336,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 290 of the Constitution deals with:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds\",\r\n      \"Adjustment in respect of certain expenses and pensions\",\r\n      \"Exemption of property and income of a State from Union taxation\",\r\n      \"Borrowing by the Government of India\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 290<\/b> provides for adjustment in respect of certain expenses and pensions, requiring charges in respect of any court or Commission, or in respect of the pensions of persons who served before the commencement of the Constitution, to be apportioned as agreed or as determined by an arbitrator appointed by the Chief Justice of India.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 337,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 291, which provided for privy purse sums of Rulers, was repealed by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The 7th Amendment Act, 1956\",\r\n      \"The 26th Amendment Act, 1971\",\r\n      \"The 28th Amendment Act, 1972\",\r\n      \"The 44th Amendment Act, 1978\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The <b>Constitution (Twenty-sixth Amendment) Act, 1971<\/b> abolished the privy purses and the special privileges of the former Rulers, omitting Articles 291 and 362 and inserting Article 363A. The Supreme Court had earlier struck down the executive attempt to abolish them in <b>Madhav Rao Scindia v. Union of India (1970)<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 338,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Under Article 292, the executive power of the Union extends to borrowing:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Upon the security of the Consolidated Fund of India, within such limits as may from time to time be fixed by Parliament by law\",\r\n      \"Upon the security of the Contingency Fund of India, without any limit\",\r\n      \"Only from the Reserve Bank of India\",\r\n      \"Only with the prior approval of the Finance Commission\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 292<\/b> permits borrowing upon the security of the Consolidated Fund of India within limits fixed by Parliament by law, and also the giving of guarantees within such limits. Parliament has not so far enacted any general law fixing such a ceiling.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 339,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Under Article 293, the executive power of a State extends to borrowing:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Within the territory of India, upon the security of the Consolidated Fund of the State, within limits fixed by the Legislature of that State\",\r\n      \"Within India or abroad, with the consent of the Government of India\",\r\n      \"From any source, without any limit\",\r\n      \"Only from the Government of India\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 293(1)<\/b> confines a State's borrowing to <i>within the territory of India<\/i>, upon the security of the Consolidated Fund of the State and within limits fixed by the State Legislature. A State therefore cannot borrow abroad \u2014 a point frequently stated incorrectly. Under Article 293(3), a State may not raise any loan without the consent of the Government of India if any part of a Union loan to it remains outstanding.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 340,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements regarding Article 299: I. All contracts made in the exercise of the executive power of the Union or of a State shall be expressed to be made by the President or by the Governor, as the case may be. II. Such contracts shall be executed on behalf of the President or the Governor by such persons and in such manner as he may direct or authorise. III. The President or the Governor shall be personally liable in respect of any contract executed for the purposes of the Constitution. Which of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I and II only\",\r\n      \"II and III only\",\r\n      \"I and III only\",\r\n      \"I, II and III\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Statements I and II are <b>Article 299(1)<\/b>. Statement III is the exact opposite of <b>Article 299(2)<\/b>, which provides that neither the President nor the Governor shall be personally liable in respect of any such contract, nor shall the person executing it on their behalf be personally liable.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 341,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Under Article 297, which of the following vest in the Union?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"All lands, minerals and other things of value underlying the ocean within the territorial waters\",\r\n      \"All other resources of the exclusive economic zone of India\",\r\n      \"All lands, minerals and other things of value underlying the ocean within the continental shelf\",\r\n      \"All of the above\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 297<\/b>, as amended by the <b>40th Amendment Act, 1976<\/b>, vests in the Union all lands, minerals and other things of value underlying the ocean within the territorial waters, the continental shelf, and all other resources of the exclusive economic zone of India, to be held for the purposes of the Union.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 342,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 300 provides that the Government of India may sue or be sued by the name of:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The President of India\",\r\n      \"The Union of India\",\r\n      \"The Central Government\",\r\n      \"The Secretary of State for India\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 300(1)<\/b> provides that the Government of India may sue or be sued by the name of the <b>Union of India<\/b>, and the Government of a State by the name of the State, subject to any provisions made by Act of Parliament or of the State Legislature. Article 296 deals with property accruing by escheat, lapse or as bona vacantia.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 343,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India is the Interpretation clause opening Part XII on Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 263\",\r\n      \"Article 264\",\r\n      \"Article 265\",\r\n      \"Article 266\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 264<\/b> \u2014 Interpretation, defining the expression Finance Commission for the purposes of Part XII, Chapter I.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 344,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 272 of the Constitution of India, which provided for taxes levied and collected by the Union and distributable between the Union and the States, was omitted by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The 7th Amendment Act, 1956\",\r\n      \"The 80th Amendment Act, 2000\",\r\n      \"The 88th Amendment Act, 2003\",\r\n      \"The 101st Amendment Act, 2016\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 272<\/b> was omitted by the <b>80th Amendment Act, 2000<\/b>, which implemented the alternative devolution scheme of the Tenth Finance Commission by creating a single divisible pool under a recast Article 270.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 345,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India is headed Savings, in relation to taxes, duties, cesses or fees lawfully levied immediately before the commencement of the Constitution?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 276\",\r\n      \"Article 277\",\r\n      \"Article 278\",\r\n      \"Article 279\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 277<\/b> \u2014 Savings. Article 278, which dealt with agreements with States in Part B of the First Schedule, was omitted by the 7th Amendment Act, 1956.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 346,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Custody of suitors' deposits and other moneys received by public servants and courts?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 283\",\r\n      \"Article 284\",\r\n      \"Article 285\",\r\n      \"Article 286\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 284<\/b>. Article 283 separately deals with the custody of the Consolidated Funds, the Contingency Funds and moneys credited to the public accounts.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 347,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India imposes restrictions on the imposition of tax on the supply of goods or services?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 285\",\r\n      \"Article 286\",\r\n      \"Article 287\",\r\n      \"Article 288\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 286<\/b> \u2014 restrictions on State taxation of supplies taking place outside the State or in the course of import or export. The words <i>supply of goods or of services or both<\/i> were substituted for <i>sale or purchase of goods<\/i> by the 101st Amendment Act, 2016.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 348,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for Exemption from taxation by States in respect of water or electricity in certain cases?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 287\",\r\n      \"Article 288\",\r\n      \"Article 289\",\r\n      \"Article 290\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 288<\/b> \u2014 exemption in respect of water or electricity stored, generated, consumed, distributed or sold by any authority established by law for regulating or developing any inter-State river or river valley.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 349,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Exemption of property and income of a State from Union taxation?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 285\",\r\n      \"Article 287\",\r\n      \"Article 289\",\r\n      \"Article 290\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 289<\/b>. The converse provision, exempting the property of the Union from State taxation, is <b>Article 285<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 350,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 289\",\r\n      \"Article 290\",\r\n      \"Article 290A\",\r\n      \"Article 291\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 290A<\/b>, inserted by the 7th Amendment Act, 1956, charging annual sums on the Consolidated Funds of Kerala and Tamil Nadu for the Travancore Devaswom Fund and for the Devaswom Fund maintaining Hindu temples in transferred territories.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 351,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 291 of the Constitution of India, which provided for privy purse sums of Rulers, was repealed by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The 7th Amendment Act, 1956\",\r\n      \"The 26th Amendment Act, 1971\",\r\n      \"The 28th Amendment Act, 1972\",\r\n      \"The 44th Amendment Act, 1978\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 291<\/b> was repealed, along with Article 362, by the <b>26th Amendment Act, 1971<\/b>, which abolished the privy purses and privileges of the former Rulers and inserted Article 363A.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 352,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which articles of the Constitution of India deal with Succession to property, assets, rights, liabilities and obligations?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Articles 292 and 293\",\r\n      \"Articles 294 and 295\",\r\n      \"Articles 296 and 297\",\r\n      \"Articles 298 and 299\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 294<\/b> deals with succession in respect of the former Dominion of India and the Provinces, and <b>Article 295<\/b> with succession in other cases, principally the former Indian States.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 353,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for Property accruing by escheat or lapse or as bona vacantia?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 295\",\r\n      \"Article 296\",\r\n      \"Article 297\",\r\n      \"Article 298\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 296<\/b> \u2014 such property vests in the State if it was situate in that State, and otherwise in the Union.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 354,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides that things of value within territorial waters or the continental shelf and the resources of the exclusive economic zone shall vest in the Union?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 296\",\r\n      \"Article 297\",\r\n      \"Article 298\",\r\n      \"Article 299\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 297<\/b>, in its present form as amended by the <b>40th Amendment Act, 1976<\/b>, which extended it to the resources of the exclusive economic zone.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 355,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India confers on the Union and the States the Power to carry on trade or business and to acquire, hold and dispose of property?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 297\",\r\n      \"Article 298\",\r\n      \"Article 299\",\r\n      \"Article 300\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 298<\/b> \u2014 the executive power of the Union and of each State extends to the carrying on of any trade or business and to the acquisition, holding and disposal of property and the making of contracts for any purpose.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 356,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides that all contracts made in the exercise of the executive power of the Union or of a State shall be expressed to be made by the President or by the Governor?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 298\",\r\n      \"Article 299\",\r\n      \"Article 300\",\r\n      \"Article 300A\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 299<\/b> \u2014 Contracts. Clause (2) provides that neither the President nor the Governor shall be personally liable in respect of any such contract.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 357,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264\u2013300)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides that the Government of India may sue or be sued by the name of the Union of India?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 298\",\r\n      \"Article 299\",\r\n      \"Article 300\",\r\n      \"Article 300A\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 300<\/b> \u2014 Suits and proceedings. A State may correspondingly sue or be sued by the name of the State.\"\r\n  },\r\n    \/\/ Right to Property (Article 300A)\r\n    {\r\n    \"id\": 358,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Right to Property (Article 300A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 300A, which provides that no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law, was inserted by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The 25th Amendment Act, 1971\",\r\n      \"The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976\",\r\n      \"The 44th Amendment Act, 1978\",\r\n      \"The 1st Amendment Act, 1951\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The <b>44th Amendment Act, 1978<\/b> abolished the fundamental right to property by repealing Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31, and inserted <b>Article 300A<\/b> in a new Chapter IV of Part XII. The right to property is now a constitutional and legal right, not a fundamental right, so it cannot be enforced directly under Article 32.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 359,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Right to Property (Article 300A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides that no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 19(1)(f)\",\r\n      \"Article 31\",\r\n      \"Article 300\",\r\n      \"Article 300A\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 300A<\/b>, inserted by the <b>44th Amendment Act, 1978<\/b> in a new Chapter IV of Part XII, headed <i>Right to Property<\/i>. The same amendment repealed Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 360,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Right to Property (Article 300A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The right to property under Article 300A is:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"A fundamental right enforceable under Article 32\",\r\n      \"A constitutional and legal right, not enforceable directly under Article 32 but enforceable under Article 226\",\r\n      \"A directive principle of State policy\",\r\n      \"A fundamental duty\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Since the <b>44th Amendment Act, 1978<\/b> removed property from Part III, Article 300A confers a constitutional and legal right only. A violation cannot found a petition under Article 32, though relief may be sought from a High Court under Article 226.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 361,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Right to Property (Article 300A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which of the following provisions relating to property were repealed by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978? I. Article 19(1)(f) II. Article 31 III. Article 31A\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I and II only\",\r\n      \"II and III only\",\r\n      \"I and III only\",\r\n      \"I, II and III\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The 44th Amendment repealed <b>Article 19(1)(f)<\/b> and <b>Article 31<\/b> and inserted Article 300A. <b>Article 31A<\/b>, together with Articles 31B and 31C, was retained and continues in Part III as a saving provision for laws relating to the acquisition of estates.\"\r\n  }\r\n    ,\r\n    \/\/ Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\u2013312A)\r\n     {\r\n    \"id\": 362,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\u2013312A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India is the Interpretation clause opening Part XIV on Services?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 307\",\r\n      \"Article 308\",\r\n      \"Article 309\",\r\n      \"Article 310\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 308<\/b> \u2014 Interpretation, defining the expression State for the purposes of Part XIV.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 363,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\u2013312A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for Recruitment and conditions of service of persons serving the Union or a State?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 308\",\r\n      \"Article 309\",\r\n      \"Article 310\",\r\n      \"Article 311\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 309<\/b> \u2014 regulated by Acts of the appropriate Legislature and, until then, by rules made under the proviso.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 364,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\u2013312A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Tenure of office of persons serving the Union or a State?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 309\",\r\n      \"Article 310\",\r\n      \"Article 311\",\r\n      \"Article 312\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 310<\/b> \u2014 the doctrine of pleasure, covering both civil and defence services.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 365,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\u2013312A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for Dismissal, removal or reduction in rank of persons employed in civil capacities?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 310\",\r\n      \"Article 311\",\r\n      \"Article 312\",\r\n      \"Article 312A\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 311<\/b> \u2014 the two safeguards in clauses (1) and (2), with three exceptions in the second proviso to clause (2).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 366,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\u2013312A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for All-India services?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 311\",\r\n      \"Article 312\",\r\n      \"Article 312A\",\r\n      \"Article 315\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 312<\/b> \u2014 creation on a resolution of the Council of States supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 367,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\u2013312A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India empowers Parliament to vary or revoke conditions of service of officers of certain services?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 312\",\r\n      \"Article 312A\",\r\n      \"Article 313\",\r\n      \"Article 314\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 312A<\/b>, inserted by the 28th Amendment Act, 1972, which simultaneously repealed Article 314.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 368,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\u2013312A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 301 declares that trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India shall be:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Regulated by Parliament alone\",\r\n      \"Free, subject to the other provisions of Part XIII\",\r\n      \"Subject to the approval of the Inter-State Council\",\r\n      \"Free only in respect of goods and not services\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 301<\/b> guarantees freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India, subject to the other provisions of Part XIII. The freedom is not absolute; Articles 302 to 305 lay down permissible restrictions.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 369,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\u2013312A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Under Article 303, Parliament may make a law giving preference to one State over another, or making discrimination between States, only:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"With the previous sanction of the President\",\r\n      \"For the purpose of dealing with a situation arising from scarcity of goods in any part of the territory of India\",\r\n      \"On the recommendation of the Finance Commission\",\r\n      \"During the operation of a Proclamation of Emergency\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 303(1)<\/b> bars both Parliament and State Legislatures from giving preference or making discrimination between States by virtue of any entry relating to trade and commerce. <b>Article 303(2)<\/b> creates a single exception for Parliament: a law declaring that it is necessary to deal with a situation arising from <b>scarcity of goods<\/b> in any part of India.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 370,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\u2013312A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Under Article 304(b), a Bill imposing reasonable restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce or intercourse in the public interest cannot be introduced or moved in the Legislature of a State without:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The previous sanction of the President\",\r\n      \"The previous sanction of the Governor\",\r\n      \"A resolution of the Inter-State Council\",\r\n      \"The prior approval of Parliament\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The proviso to <b>Article 304(b)<\/b> requires the <b>previous sanction of the President<\/b>. Article 304(a) separately permits a State to tax goods imported from other States only to the extent that similar goods manufactured within the State are taxed, so as not to discriminate.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 371,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\u2013312A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 307 empowers Parliament to:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Appoint by law such authority as it considers appropriate for carrying out the purposes of Articles 301 to 304\",\r\n      \"Impose customs duties on inter-State trade\",\r\n      \"Establish an Inter-State Trade Tribunal with binding powers\",\r\n      \"Regulate trade with foreign countries\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 307<\/b> permits Parliament by law to appoint such authority as it considers appropriate for carrying out the purposes of Articles 301 to 304, and to confer on that authority such powers and duties as it thinks necessary. <b>No such authority has ever been constituted<\/b>, which is itself a frequently tested point.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 372,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\u2013312A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Recruitment and conditions of service of persons serving the Union or a State are regulated by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Acts of the appropriate Legislature, and until such provision is made, by rules made by the President or the Governor or a person directed by them\",\r\n      \"Rules made by the Union Public Service Commission\",\r\n      \"Executive orders of the Cabinet Secretary\",\r\n      \"The Constitution itself, exhaustively\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 309<\/b> permits the appropriate Legislature to regulate recruitment and conditions of service, and the proviso empowers the President or the Governor, or a person directed by them, to make rules until such legislation is enacted. Most service rules in India, including the Central Civil Services Rules, are still framed under this proviso.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 373,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\u2013312A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The doctrine of pleasure, under which a person holds office during the pleasure of the President or the Governor, is embodied in:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 308\",\r\n      \"Article 309\",\r\n      \"Article 310\",\r\n      \"Article 311\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 310(1)<\/b> embodies the doctrine of pleasure, covering members of the defence services, the civil services of the Union, all-India services, and holders of civil posts under the Union or a State. The doctrine is expressly made <i>subject to the provisions of this Constitution<\/i>, and is therefore controlled principally by Article 311.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 374,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\u2013312A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The protection under Article 311 is available to:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Members of the defence services only\",\r\n      \"Members of a civil service of the Union or an all-India service or a civil service of a State, and persons holding a civil post under the Union or a State\",\r\n      \"All employees of the Union, including those of public sector undertakings\",\r\n      \"Only members of the all-India services\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 311(1)<\/b> is confined to civil servants and holders of civil posts. Members of the <b>defence services<\/b> are covered by the doctrine of pleasure in Article 310 but enjoy no Article 311 protection \u2014 the distinction is regularly tested.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 375,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\u2013312A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Under Article 311(1), no civil servant shall be dismissed or removed by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The President or the Governor\",\r\n      \"An authority subordinate to that by which he was appointed\",\r\n      \"A disciplinary authority without a departmental inquiry\",\r\n      \"Any authority other than the Union Public Service Commission\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 311(1)<\/b> requires that dismissal or removal be by an authority not subordinate to the appointing authority. Note that it applies only to <i>dismissal and removal<\/i>, whereas Article 311(2) additionally covers <i>reduction in rank<\/i>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 376,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\u2013312A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The second proviso to Article 311(2) dispenses with the requirement of an inquiry in how many situations?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"One\",\r\n      \"Two\",\r\n      \"Three\",\r\n      \"Four\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"There are <b>three<\/b> exceptions: (a) where the person is dismissed, removed or reduced in rank on the ground of conduct which has led to his <b>conviction on a criminal charge<\/b>; (b) where the empowered authority is satisfied, for reasons to be recorded in writing, that it is <b>not reasonably practicable<\/b> to hold such an inquiry; and (c) where the President or the Governor is satisfied that in the interest of the <b>security of the State<\/b> it is not expedient to hold such an inquiry. Answers stating two exceptions are incorrect.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 377,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\u2013312A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The requirement of giving a civil servant a second opportunity to make representation against the proposed penalty was removed from Article 311(2) by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The 15th Amendment Act, 1963\",\r\n      \"The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976\",\r\n      \"The 44th Amendment Act, 1978\",\r\n      \"The 28th Amendment Act, 1972\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The <b>42nd Amendment Act, 1976<\/b> amended Article 311(2) so that a reasonable opportunity of being heard is required only in respect of the <i>charges<\/i>, and no opportunity of making representation on the proposed penalty is necessary. This remains the position today.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 378,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\u2013312A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 308 of the Constitution deals with:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Recruitment and conditions of service\",\r\n      \"Interpretation, defining the expression State for the purposes of Part XIV\",\r\n      \"Tenure of office\",\r\n      \"All-India services\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 308<\/b> is the interpretation clause opening Part XIV, Chapter I. Articles 309, 310 and 311 then deal respectively with recruitment and conditions of service, tenure, and dismissal, removal or reduction in rank.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 379,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\u2013312A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Parliament may provide for the creation of one or more all-India services common to the Union and the States if the Council of States has declared by resolution supported by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"A simple majority of the members present and voting\",\r\n      \"Not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting\",\r\n      \"A majority of the total membership and not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting\",\r\n      \"Not less than three-fourths of the total membership\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 312(1)<\/b> requires only a resolution supported by <b>not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting<\/b>. There is no additional requirement of a majority of the total membership \u2014 the formula is identical to Article 249, and the frequently circulated composite formula is wrong.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 380,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\u2013312A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following is NOT an all-India service?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Indian Administrative Service\",\r\n      \"Indian Police Service\",\r\n      \"Indian Foreign Service\",\r\n      \"Indian Forest Service\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The <b>Indian Foreign Service<\/b> is a central service, not an all-India service. There are three all-India services: the IAS and IPS, deemed to have been created under Article 312 by clause (1A), and the <b>Indian Forest Service<\/b>, created in 1966 under the All India Services Act, 1951.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 381,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\u2013312A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 312(3) provides that the all-India judicial service shall not include any post inferior to that of:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"A civil judge\",\r\n      \"A district judge as defined in Article 236\",\r\n      \"An additional sessions judge\",\r\n      \"A magistrate of the first class\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 312(3)<\/b>, inserted by the <b>42nd Amendment Act, 1976<\/b>, provides that the all-India judicial service shall not include any post inferior to that of a district judge as defined in Article 236. The service has been debated repeatedly but has never been created.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 382,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\u2013312A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 312A, which empowers Parliament to vary or revoke conditions of service of officers of certain services, and Article 314, which was repealed at the same time, relate to:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Members of the all-India services recruited after 1950\",\r\n      \"Persons appointed by the Secretary of State or the Secretary of State in Council to a civil service of the Crown in India before the commencement of the Constitution\",\r\n      \"Judges of the High Courts\",\r\n      \"Officers of the defence services\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Both provisions concern the former <b>Secretary of State's Services<\/b>, principally the Indian Civil Service. The <b>Constitution (Twenty-eighth Amendment) Act, 1972<\/b> inserted Article 312A and repealed Article 314, which had guaranteed those officers their existing conditions of service. Attributing the repeal of Article 314 to the 42nd Amendment is an error.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 383,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\u2013312A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements regarding all-India services: I. Members of an all-India service serve both the Union and the States. II. The resolution recommending the creation of an all-India service must be passed by the Council of States. III. The recruitment and conditions of service of members of an all-India service are regulated by Parliament by law. Which of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I and II only\",\r\n      \"II and III only\",\r\n      \"I and III only\",\r\n      \"I, II and III\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"All three are correct. The requirement that the resolution originate in the <b>Council of States<\/b> reflects the federal character of the House and is one of its four special powers, alongside Article 249. Parliament exercised the power under Article 312(2) through the <b>All India Services Act, 1951<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 384,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\u2013312A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India declares that trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India shall be free?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 300A\",\r\n      \"Article 301\",\r\n      \"Article 302\",\r\n      \"Article 304\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 301<\/b> \u2014 the freedom is subject to the other provisions of Part XIII, namely Articles 302 to 305.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 385,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\u2013312A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India empowers Parliament to impose restrictions on trade, commerce and intercourse in the public interest?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 301\",\r\n      \"Article 302\",\r\n      \"Article 303\",\r\n      \"Article 304\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 302<\/b> \u2014 Parliament may by law impose such restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce or intercourse between one State and another or within any part of India as may be required in the public interest.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 386,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\u2013312A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India restricts the legislative powers of the Union and of the States with regard to trade and commerce, barring preference or discrimination between States?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 302\",\r\n      \"Article 303\",\r\n      \"Article 304\",\r\n      \"Article 305\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 303<\/b>. Clause (2) creates a single exception, permitting Parliament to make a law declaring it necessary to deal with a situation arising from scarcity of goods in any part of India.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 387,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\u2013312A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India permits a State to impose reasonable restrictions on trade, commerce and intercourse in the public interest, subject to the previous sanction of the President?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 302\",\r\n      \"Article 303\",\r\n      \"Article 304\",\r\n      \"Article 305\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 304(b)<\/b> \u2014 a Bill for such restrictions cannot be introduced or moved in a State Legislature without the previous sanction of the President. Article 304(a) separately permits non-discriminatory taxation of imported goods.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 388,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\u2013312A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India saves existing laws and laws providing for State monopolies from the operation of Article 301?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 304\",\r\n      \"Article 305\",\r\n      \"Article 306\",\r\n      \"Article 307\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 305<\/b>. Article 306, which related to States in Part B of the First Schedule, was omitted by the 7th Amendment Act, 1956.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 389,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\u2013312A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India empowers Parliament to appoint an authority for carrying out the purposes of Articles 301 to 304?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 305\",\r\n      \"Article 306\",\r\n      \"Article 307\",\r\n      \"Article 308\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 307<\/b> \u2014 no such authority has ever been constituted, notwithstanding recommendations to that effect by the Sarkaria Commission.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 390,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\u2013312A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India contains the Transitional provisions relating to services, saving pre-Constitution rules until other provision is made?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 312A\",\r\n      \"Article 313\",\r\n      \"Article 314\",\r\n      \"Article 315\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 313<\/b> \u2014 until other provision is made, all laws in force immediately before the commencement of the Constitution and applicable to any public service continue in force so far as consistent with the Constitution.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 391,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301\u2013312A)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 314 of the Constitution of India, which protected the existing conditions of service of persons appointed by the Secretary of State, was repealed by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The 7th Amendment Act, 1956\",\r\n      \"The 26th Amendment Act, 1971\",\r\n      \"The 28th Amendment Act, 1972\",\r\n      \"The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 314<\/b> was repealed by the <b>28th Amendment Act, 1972<\/b>, which simultaneously inserted Article 312A empowering Parliament to vary or revoke the conditions of service of those officers. Attributing this repeal to the 42nd Amendment is a common error.\"\r\n  }, \r\n     \/\/ Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\r\n     {\r\n    \"id\": 392,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Proclamation of Emergency?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 350\",\r\n      \"Article 352\",\r\n      \"Article 356\",\r\n      \"Article 360\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 352<\/b> \u2014 on the ground of war, external aggression or armed rebellion.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 393,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Effect of a Proclamation of Emergency?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 352\",\r\n      \"Article 353\",\r\n      \"Article 354\",\r\n      \"Article 355\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 353<\/b> \u2014 extension of the Union's executive power to give directions to States and of Parliament's legislative power to matters outside the Union List.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 394,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India deals with the Application of provisions relating to distribution of revenues while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 353\",\r\n      \"Article 354\",\r\n      \"Article 355\",\r\n      \"Article 356\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 354<\/b> \u2014 the President may modify Articles 268 to 279, but not beyond the end of the financial year in which the Proclamation ceases to operate.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 395,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India imposes the Duty of the Union to protect States against external aggression and internal disturbance?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 354\",\r\n      \"Article 355\",\r\n      \"Article 356\",\r\n      \"Article 357\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 355<\/b> \u2014 the twin duty of protection and of ensuring that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the Constitution.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 396,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India contains Provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinery in States?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 355\",\r\n      \"Article 356\",\r\n      \"Article 357\",\r\n      \"Article 365\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 356<\/b> \u2014 popularly called President's Rule. Article 365 provides the separate consequence of a State's failure to comply with Union directions.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 397,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Exercise of legislative powers under a Proclamation issued under Article 356?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 356\",\r\n      \"Article 357\",\r\n      \"Article 358\",\r\n      \"Article 359\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 357<\/b> \u2014 Parliament may confer the State Legislature's law-making power on the President, with power of delegation.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 398,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Suspension of the provisions of Article 19 during emergencies?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 357\",\r\n      \"Article 358\",\r\n      \"Article 359\",\r\n      \"Article 360\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 358<\/b> \u2014 now confined by the 44th Amendment to Proclamations made on the ground of war or external aggression.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 399,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the Suspension of the enforcement of the rights conferred by Part III during emergencies?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 358\",\r\n      \"Article 359\",\r\n      \"Article 360\",\r\n      \"Article 361\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 359<\/b> \u2014 by Presidential order, and excluding the rights conferred by Articles 20 and 21 since the 44th Amendment.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 400,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India contains Provisions as to financial emergency?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 358\",\r\n      \"Article 359\",\r\n      \"Article 360\",\r\n      \"Article 361\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 360<\/b> \u2014 never invoked. Article 361 provides protection to the President and Governors.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 401,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides that a State's failure to comply with directions given by the Union may lead the President to hold that the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 355\",\r\n      \"Article 356\",\r\n      \"Article 360\",\r\n      \"Article 365\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 365<\/b> \u2014 it lies outside Part XVIII but is the bridge from Articles 256 and 257 to a Proclamation under Article 356.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 402,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following changes was NOT made by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978 in relation to the emergency provisions?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Substitution of armed rebellion for internal disturbance in Article 352\",\r\n      \"Requirement of a written recommendation of the Union Cabinet before a Proclamation of Emergency\",\r\n      \"Insertion of the provision making the President's satisfaction final and conclusive\",\r\n      \"Exclusion of Articles 20 and 21 from the operation of Article 359\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The immunity clause making the President's satisfaction final and conclusive was inserted by the <b>38th Amendment Act, 1975<\/b>; the 44th Amendment <i>deleted<\/i> it. The other three are all 44th Amendment reforms, along with the reduction of the approval period under Article 352 to one month and the introduction of the special-sitting mechanism in Article 352(8).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 403,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which of the following changes were made by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 in relation to emergency? I. A Proclamation of Emergency could be made in respect of only a part of the territory of India. II. The maximum permissible duration of President's Rule was extended. III. The ground of internal disturbance was replaced by armed rebellion. Select the correct answer:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I and II only\",\r\n      \"II and III only\",\r\n      \"I and III only\",\r\n      \"I, II and III\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Statements I and II are correct. Statement III is a <b>44th Amendment<\/b> change, not a 42nd Amendment change. The 42nd Amendment had extended the outer limit of President's Rule; the 44th Amendment restored the three-year cap and added the twin conditions in Article 356(5).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 404,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Compare the majorities required for parliamentary approval of the three Proclamations. Which one of the following is correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"All three require a special majority\",\r\n      \"Article 352 requires a special majority, while Articles 356 and 360 require only a simple majority\",\r\n      \"All three require only a simple majority\",\r\n      \"Articles 352 and 356 require a special majority, while Article 360 requires a simple majority\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 352(6)<\/b> prescribes a special majority \u2014 a majority of the total membership of the House and not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. Neither <b>Article 356<\/b> nor <b>Article 360<\/b> prescribes any special majority, so the ordinary rule of a simple majority under Article 100(1) applies.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 405,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following statements about the duration of the three Proclamations is correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"All three, once approved, continue for six months at a time\",\r\n      \"A Proclamation under Article 352 continues for six months at a time with no outer limit; one under Article 356 continues for six months at a time subject to an outer limit of three years; one under Article 360 continues indefinitely until revoked\",\r\n      \"All three have an outer limit of three years\",\r\n      \"All three lapse automatically after one year\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Article 352 permits indefinite six-monthly extensions with no constitutional outer limit; Article 356 caps the total at <b>three years<\/b>, with the additional conditions in clause (5) applying beyond one year; a Financial Emergency once approved needs no periodic renewal and continues until revoked by the President.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 406,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements regarding Article 358 and Article 359: I. Article 358 confers immunity only on laws and executive action taken during the Emergency, and such acts cannot be challenged even after the Emergency ends. II. Under Article 359, once the Emergency ends, the suspended right revives and a challenge may be brought in respect of acts done during the Emergency, unless the law is protected on other grounds. Which of the statements given above is\/are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I only\",\r\n      \"II only\",\r\n      \"Both I and II\",\r\n      \"Neither I nor II\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Both are correct and capture the essential difference in <i>after-effects<\/i>. Article 358 gives an immunity to things done or omitted to be done while it was in operation, which survives the Emergency; Article 359 merely suspends the <i>remedy<\/i>, so the underlying right revives on the expiry of the Presidential order.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 407,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"In ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla (1976), the majority held that during the operation of a Presidential order under Article 359 no person could move any court for enforcement of the right to life and personal liberty. This position:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Remains good law today\",\r\n      \"Was reversed legislatively by the 44th Amendment excluding Articles 20 and 21 from Article 359, and was expressly overruled by the Supreme Court in K. S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017)\",\r\n      \"Was overruled in Kesavananda Bharati\",\r\n      \"Was never followed by any High Court\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The <b>44th Amendment Act, 1978<\/b> placed Articles 20 and 21 beyond the reach of Article 359. In <b>K. S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017)<\/b>, the nine-judge Bench on the right to privacy expressly held that the majority opinion in ADM Jabalpur was seriously flawed and stood overruled, endorsing Justice H. R. Khanna's dissent.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 408,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following is a correct statement about a Proclamation under Article 356 and the State Legislative Assembly?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The Assembly stands automatically dissolved on the issue of the Proclamation\",\r\n      \"The Assembly may be either dissolved or kept in suspended animation, and in S. R. Bommai the Court held that it should not be dissolved until both Houses of Parliament have approved the Proclamation\",\r\n      \"The Assembly continues to function normally\",\r\n      \"Only the Governor may dissolve the Assembly\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Article 356(1)(c) permits such incidental and consequential provisions as appear necessary, which has been used both to dissolve and to keep an Assembly in <b>suspended animation<\/b>. <b>S. R. Bommai (1994)<\/b> held that dissolution before parliamentary approval is impermissible, since the Proclamation may yet be disapproved and the Assembly would then have to be revived.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 409,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The proclamation of Emergency in 1975 was revoked in:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"1976\",\r\n      \"1977\",\r\n      \"1978\",\r\n      \"1980\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The Emergency proclaimed on 25 June <b>1975<\/b> on the ground of internal disturbance was revoked in <b>March 1977<\/b>, together with the 1971 Proclamation which had continued in force. The 44th Amendment Act, 1978 followed, embedding the safeguards designed to prevent a recurrence.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 410,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements: I. During a Proclamation of Emergency, the Union may give directions to a State on any matter, and failure to comply may attract Article 365. II. During President's Rule, the powers of the State Legislature are exercised by or under the authority of Parliament. III. During a Financial Emergency, the President may reduce the salaries of Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts. How many of the above statements are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"All three\",\r\n      \"None\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"All three are correct, corresponding to <b>Article 353(a)<\/b> read with Article 365, <b>Article 356(1)(b)<\/b>, and <b>Article 360(4)(b)<\/b>. The last is the only circumstance in which the Constitution permits judicial salaries to be reduced, the ordinary rule under Articles 125(2) and 221(2) being that they cannot be varied to a Judge's disadvantage after appointment.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 411,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which one of the following statements about Article 355 is correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"It is a source of independent power for the Union to act in a State without a Proclamation under Article 356\",\r\n      \"It imposes a duty on the Union, and the Sarkaria and Punchhi Commissions recommended that the Union should first act under Article 355 by way of warning and lesser measures before resorting to Article 356\",\r\n      \"It applies only during a Proclamation of Emergency\",\r\n      \"It has been repealed\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 355<\/b> is framed as a <i>duty<\/i>, and both Commissions treated it as requiring graduated intervention \u2014 a warning to the errant State, deployment of central forces where necessary, and localised emergency \u2014 before the drastic step of dismissing an elected government under Article 356.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 412,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"A Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 may be issued on the ground that the security of India or of any part of its territory is threatened by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"War, external aggression or internal disturbance\",\r\n      \"War, external aggression or armed rebellion\",\r\n      \"War or external aggression only\",\r\n      \"Financial instability or armed rebellion\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 352(1)<\/b> as it stands today permits a Proclamation on the ground of <b>war, external aggression or armed rebellion<\/b>. The original ground of <i>internal disturbance<\/i> was replaced by <i>armed rebellion<\/i> by the <b>44th Amendment Act, 1978<\/b>. The Explanation permits a Proclamation to be made even before the actual occurrence, if there is imminent danger.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 413,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Under Article 352(3), the President shall not issue a Proclamation of Emergency unless:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The Prime Minister has advised him orally\",\r\n      \"The decision of the Union Cabinet that such a Proclamation may be issued has been communicated to him in writing\",\r\n      \"Both Houses of Parliament have passed a prior resolution\",\r\n      \"The Chief Justice of India has been consulted\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 352(3)<\/b>, inserted by the <b>44th Amendment Act, 1978<\/b>, requires the written recommendation of the <b>Union Cabinet<\/b> \u2014 that is, the Council consisting of the Prime Minister and other Ministers of Cabinet rank. The safeguard was a direct response to the 1975 Proclamation, which had been issued on the Prime Minister's advice alone.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 414,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"A Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 ceases to operate unless approved by resolutions of both Houses of Parliament within:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"One month\",\r\n      \"Two months\",\r\n      \"Six weeks\",\r\n      \"Six months\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 352(4)<\/b> prescribes <b>one month<\/b>, reduced from two months by the <b>44th Amendment Act, 1978<\/b>. Note the contrast: a Proclamation under Article 356 and one under Article 360 must each be approved within <b>two months<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 415,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Resolutions approving or continuing a Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 must be passed by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"A simple majority of the members present and voting in each House\",\r\n      \"A majority of the total membership of each House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting\",\r\n      \"Two-thirds of the total membership of each House\",\r\n      \"The House of the People alone, by a simple majority\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 352(6)<\/b> requires this special majority for every resolution approving or continuing the Proclamation. Once approved, the Proclamation continues for <b>six months<\/b> from the date of the resolution and may be extended by six months at a time under Article 352(5).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 416,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Under Article 352(7) and (8), a Proclamation of Emergency shall be revoked if the House of the People passes a resolution disapproving it. Such a resolution requires:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"A special majority, and may be moved only by the Government\",\r\n      \"A simple majority, and a special sitting must be held within fourteen days of notice given by not less than one-tenth of the total number of members of the House\",\r\n      \"A two-thirds majority, and concurrence of the Council of States\",\r\n      \"The prior consent of the President\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 352(7)<\/b> makes revocation mandatory on such a resolution of the House of the People, passed by a <b>simple majority<\/b>. Under <b>Article 352(8)<\/b>, where notice in writing signed by not less than one-tenth of the total number of members is given, a special sitting must be held within fourteen days. Both safeguards were introduced by the 44th Amendment.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 417,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"National Emergency has been proclaimed in India on how many occasions, and on what grounds?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Twice \u2014 in 1962 and 1971, both on the ground of external aggression\",\r\n      \"Thrice \u2014 in 1962 and 1971 on the ground of external aggression, and in 1975 on the ground of internal disturbance\",\r\n      \"Thrice \u2014 in 1962, 1971 and 1975, all on the ground of external aggression\",\r\n      \"Four times \u2014 in 1962, 1965, 1971 and 1975\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Three Proclamations have been issued: <b>1962<\/b> (Chinese aggression) and <b>1971<\/b> (Pakistani aggression), both on the ground of external aggression, and <b>1975<\/b> on the ground of internal disturbance. The 1975 Proclamation is what prompted the substitution of <i>armed rebellion<\/i> for <i>internal disturbance<\/i> by the 44th Amendment.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 418,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements regarding the effect of a Proclamation of Emergency under Article 353: I. The executive power of the Union extends to giving directions to any State as to the manner in which its executive power is to be exercised. II. The power of Parliament to make laws extends to matters not enumerated in the Union List. III. The Legislature of the State is thereby divested of its power to make laws on those matters. Which of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I and II only\",\r\n      \"II and III only\",\r\n      \"I and III only\",\r\n      \"I, II and III\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Statements I and II are <b>Article 353(a)<\/b> and <b>353(b)<\/b>. Statement III is incorrect \u2014 the State Legislature is <i>not<\/i> divested of its legislative competence; Parliament's power under Article 250 is concurrent, and any repugnancy is resolved in favour of the parliamentary law under Article 251.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 419,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"An order made by the President under Article 354, modifying the provisions relating to the distribution of revenues while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, shall not extend beyond:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Six months after the Proclamation ceases to operate\",\r\n      \"The expiration of the financial year in which the Proclamation ceases to operate\",\r\n      \"One year after the Proclamation ceases to operate\",\r\n      \"The date on which the Proclamation ceases to operate\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 354(1)<\/b> permits the President to direct that all or any of the provisions of Articles 268 to 279 shall have effect subject to such exceptions or modifications as he thinks fit, for a period not extending in any case beyond the expiration of the <b>financial year<\/b> in which the Proclamation ceases to operate. Every such order must be laid before each House under Article 354(2).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 420,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"The provision that the satisfaction of the President in issuing a Proclamation of Emergency shall be final and conclusive and shall not be questioned in any court was:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Inserted by the 38th Amendment Act, 1975 and deleted by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978\",\r\n      \"Inserted by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 and continues in force\",\r\n      \"Part of the original Constitution\",\r\n      \"Inserted by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The <b>38th Amendment Act, 1975<\/b> inserted the immunity clause, and the <b>44th Amendment Act, 1978<\/b> deleted it. In <b>Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980)<\/b> the Supreme Court confirmed that a Proclamation is open to judicial review, though only on limited grounds such as mala fides or reliance on wholly extraneous facts.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 421,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 355 imposes on the Union the duty to:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance\",\r\n      \"Ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution\",\r\n      \"Both (a) and (b)\",\r\n      \"Impose President's Rule wherever the constitutional machinery has failed\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 355<\/b> contains a two-fold duty: to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance, and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. It is the constitutional justification for the Union's intervention under Article 356.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 422,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"A Proclamation under Article 356 may be issued by the President:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Only on receipt of a report from the Governor of the State\",\r\n      \"On receipt of a report from the Governor of the State or otherwise\",\r\n      \"Only on a resolution passed by Parliament\",\r\n      \"Only on the recommendation of the Election Commission\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 356(1)<\/b> permits the President to act on receipt of a report from the Governor <i>or otherwise<\/i>, if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. The Governor's report is therefore not a legal precondition.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 423,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Under Article 356, the President may assume to himself all or any of the functions of the Government of the State, but he shall NOT:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Declare that the powers of the State Legislature shall be exercisable by Parliament\",\r\n      \"Assume any of the powers vested in or exercisable by a High Court\",\r\n      \"Suspend the operation of any provision of the Constitution relating to any body or authority in the State\",\r\n      \"Make incidental and consequential provisions\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The proviso to <b>Article 356(1)<\/b> expressly bars the President from assuming to himself any of the powers vested in or exercisable by a <b>High Court<\/b>, or from suspending in whole or in part the operation of any provision of the Constitution relating to High Courts. The other three options are permitted by clauses (a), (b) and (c).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 424,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"A Proclamation under Article 356 must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"One month\",\r\n      \"Two months\",\r\n      \"Six weeks\",\r\n      \"Six months\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 356(3)<\/b> requires approval within <b>two months<\/b>, by a simple majority in each House. Once approved, the Proclamation continues for six months from the date of the resolution and may be extended by six months at a time, subject to an outer limit of <b>three years<\/b>.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 425,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"A Proclamation under Article 356 may be continued beyond one year only if both of the following conditions are satisfied: I. A Proclamation of Emergency is in operation in the whole of India or in the whole or any part of the State at the time of passing the resolution. II. The Election Commission certifies that the continuance in force of the Proclamation is necessary on account of difficulties in holding general elections to the Legislative Assembly of the State concerned. This restriction was introduced by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The 38th Amendment Act, 1975\",\r\n      \"The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976\",\r\n      \"The 44th Amendment Act, 1978\",\r\n      \"The 59th Amendment Act, 1988\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 356(5)<\/b>, in its present form, was substituted by the <b>44th Amendment Act, 1978<\/b> and imposes both conditions cumulatively. The 42nd Amendment had earlier extended the maximum permissible duration; the 44th Amendment restored the three-year outer limit and added these safeguards.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 426,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"In which case did the Supreme Court hold that a Proclamation under Article 356 is subject to judicial review, that the power is conditional and not absolute, and that a dissolved Assembly may be revived if the Proclamation is struck down?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"State of Rajasthan v. Union of India (1977)\",\r\n      \"S. R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994)\",\r\n      \"Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)\",\r\n      \"Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>S. R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994)<\/b> laid down that the Proclamation is justiciable, that the floor of the House is the only test of majority, that secularism forms part of the basic structure, and that the Legislative Assembly should not be dissolved until both Houses of Parliament have approved the Proclamation.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 427,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 357 provides that where a Proclamation under Article 356 declares that the powers of the State Legislature shall be exercisable by Parliament, Parliament may:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Confer on the President the power of the State Legislature to make laws, and authorise him to delegate that power to any other authority specified by him\",\r\n      \"Dissolve the State Legislature permanently\",\r\n      \"Amend the Constitution in relation to that State\",\r\n      \"Appoint the Governor of that State\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 357(1)(a)<\/b> permits Parliament to confer the State Legislature's law-making power on the President, with power of sub-delegation. Under <b>Article 357(2)<\/b>, a law so made continues in force until altered, repealed or amended by a competent Legislature or other authority.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 428,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 358, which suspends the operation of Article 19, now applies only where the Proclamation of Emergency is made on the ground of:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Armed rebellion\",\r\n      \"War or external aggression\",\r\n      \"Internal disturbance\",\r\n      \"Any of the grounds specified in Article 352\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The <b>44th Amendment Act, 1978<\/b> confined Article 358 to Proclamations made on the ground of <b>war or external aggression<\/b>, so it does not operate where the Emergency is declared on the ground of armed rebellion. The amendment also restricted the protection to laws containing a recital that they relate to the Proclamation.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 429,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Under Article 359, the President may by order suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of such rights conferred by Part III as may be mentioned in the order, EXCEPT the rights conferred by:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Articles 14 and 15\",\r\n      \"Articles 19 and 22\",\r\n      \"Articles 20 and 21\",\r\n      \"Articles 25 and 28\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The exception for <b>Articles 20 and 21<\/b> was inserted by the <b>44th Amendment Act, 1978<\/b>, reversing the effect of <b>ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla (1976)<\/b>, in which the Court had held that even the right to life could be suspended. Every order under Article 359 must be laid before each House of Parliament.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 430,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which of the following correctly distinguishes Article 358 from Article 359? I. Article 358 suspends Article 19 itself, whereas Article 359 suspends only the right to move courts for enforcement of the specified rights. II. Article 358 operates automatically on the issue of the Proclamation, whereas Article 359 requires a separate Presidential order. III. Article 358 extends to the whole of India, whereas an order under Article 359 may extend to the whole or any part of the territory of India. Select the correct answer:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I and II only\",\r\n      \"II and III only\",\r\n      \"I and III only\",\r\n      \"I, II and III\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"All three distinctions are correct. A fourth follows from them: Article 358 is confined to Article 19, while an order under Article 359 may cover any fundamental right other than those in Articles 20 and 21.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 431,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"A Proclamation of Financial Emergency under Article 360 must be approved by resolutions of both Houses of Parliament within:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"One month\",\r\n      \"Two months\",\r\n      \"Six weeks\",\r\n      \"Six months\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 360(2)(c)<\/b> prescribes <b>two months<\/b>, the same period as for a Proclamation under Article 356 and longer than the one month applicable to Article 352. Answers stating one month for a Financial Emergency are incorrect. Once approved, the Proclamation continues indefinitely until revoked.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 432,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"During the operation of a Proclamation of Financial Emergency, the Union may give directions to a State for:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The observance of such canons of financial propriety as may be specified in the directions\",\r\n      \"The reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the State\",\r\n      \"The reservation for the consideration of the President of all Money Bills or other Bills to which Article 207(1) applies, after they have been passed by the State Legislature\",\r\n      \"All of the above\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 3,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"All three are set out in <b>Article 360(3) and (4)<\/b>. Under Article 360(4)(b) the President may also direct the reduction of salaries and allowances of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union, <b>including the Judges of the Supreme Court and of the High Courts<\/b> \u2014 a striking departure from the ordinary guarantee of judicial independence.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 433,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"A Financial Emergency may be proclaimed under Article 360 if the President is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The security of India is threatened\",\r\n      \"The financial stability or credit of India or of any part of its territory is threatened\",\r\n      \"The government of a State cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution\",\r\n      \"There has been a failure of the monsoon leading to economic distress\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 360(1)<\/b> requires satisfaction that the <i>financial stability or credit of India or of any part of the territory thereof<\/i> is threatened. A Financial Emergency has <b>never<\/b> been proclaimed in India, including during the balance of payments crisis of 1991.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 434,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Match the approval period with the correct type of Proclamation: I. Article 352 \u2014 National Emergency II. Article 356 \u2014 President's Rule III. Article 360 \u2014 Financial Emergency\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"I-one month, II-two months, III-two months\",\r\n      \"I-two months, II-two months, III-one month\",\r\n      \"I-one month, II-one month, III-two months\",\r\n      \"I-two months, II-six months, III-two months\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"Article 352 requires approval within <b>one month<\/b> (reduced from two months by the 44th Amendment); Articles 356 and 360 each require approval within <b>two months<\/b>. A further distinction lies in the majority required: Article 352 needs a special majority, whereas Articles 356 and 360 need only a simple majority.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 435,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"During the operation of a Proclamation of Emergency, the term of the House of the People may be extended by Parliament by law for:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Six months at a time, and not beyond six months after the Proclamation ceases to operate\",\r\n      \"One year at a time, and not beyond six months after the Proclamation ceases to operate\",\r\n      \"One year at a time, and not beyond one year after the Proclamation ceases to operate\",\r\n      \"Two years at a time, without further limit\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 1,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The proviso to <b>Article 83(2)<\/b> permits extension by a period <i>not exceeding one year at a time<\/i>, and in no case beyond a period of <b>six months<\/b> after the Proclamation has ceased to operate. A similar provision applies to State Legislative Assemblies under Article 172(1).\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 436,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which of the following Commissions examined Centre-State relations, including the working of Article 356?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"The Sarkaria Commission (1983) and the Punchhi Commission (2007)\",\r\n      \"The Sarkaria Commission (1983) and the Malimath Committee (2000)\",\r\n      \"The Punchhi Commission (2007) and the Narasimham Committee (1991)\",\r\n      \"The Rajamannar Committee (1969) and the Mandal Commission (1979)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"The <b>Sarkaria Commission<\/b>, appointed in 1983 and reporting in 1988, and the <b>Punchhi Commission<\/b>, appointed in 2007 and reporting in 2010, both examined Centre-State relations and recommended that Article 356 be used sparingly, as a last resort. The Rajamannar Committee of 1969 was a Tamil Nadu State initiative on the same subject.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 437,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Consider the following statements: I. During a National Emergency, the executive power of the Union extends to giving directions to any State on any matter. II. During President's Rule, the President may assume the functions of the Government of the State and the powers of the Governor. III. During a Financial Emergency, the President may require all Money Bills passed by a State Legislature to be reserved for his consideration. How many of the above statements are correct?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Only one\",\r\n      \"Only two\",\r\n      \"All three\",\r\n      \"None\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"All three are correct, corresponding respectively to <b>Article 353(a)<\/b>, <b>Article 356(1)(a)<\/b> and <b>Article 360(4)(a)(ii)<\/b>. Together they illustrate the graduated intensity of the three emergency regimes in Part XVIII.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 438,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the protection of the President and the Governors of States in respect of the exercise of the powers and duties of their office?\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Article 359\",\r\n      \"Article 360\",\r\n      \"Article 361\",\r\n      \"Article 362\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 2,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 361<\/b> \u2014 the President and Governors are not answerable to any court for the exercise of the powers and duties of their office, and no criminal proceedings may be instituted or continued against them during their term of office.\"\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    \"id\": 439,\r\n    \"chapter\": \"Emergency Provisions (Articles 352\u2013360)\",\r\n    \"question\": \"Article 359A, which made special provision as to the application of Article 359 in relation to the State of Punjab, was:\",\r\n    \"options\": [\r\n      \"Inserted by the 59th Amendment Act, 1988 and omitted by the 63rd Amendment Act, 1989\",\r\n      \"Inserted by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978 and continues in force\",\r\n      \"Part of the original Constitution\",\r\n      \"Never enacted\"\r\n    ],\r\n    \"correct\": 0,\r\n    \"explanation\": \"<b>Article 359A<\/b> was inserted by the <b>59th Amendment Act, 1988<\/b>, which permitted a Proclamation of Emergency in Punjab on the ground of internal disturbance, and was omitted by the <b>63rd Amendment Act, 1989<\/b> when those special provisions were withdrawn.\"\r\n  }\r\n    ];\r\n\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   3. SANITISE + INDEX\r\n   Both banks are checked the same way; bad rows are dropped with a\r\n   console note rather than blanking the widget.\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nfunction sanitise(list, kind){\r\n  if(!Array.isArray(list)) return [];\r\n  const ok=[], bad=[];\r\n  list.forEach((q,i)=>{\r\n    const good = q && q.id!==undefined && typeof q.question==='string'\r\n      && Array.isArray(q.options) && q.options.length>=2\r\n      && Number.isInteger(q.correct) && q.correct>=0 && q.correct<q.options.length\r\n      && typeof q.chapter==='string' && q.chapter.length;\r\n    if(good){ q.bank = kind; ok.push(q); } else bad.push({row:i, id:q&&q.id});\r\n  });\r\n  if(bad.length) console.warn('['+kind+' bank] skipped '+bad.length+' malformed question(s):', bad);\r\n  return ok;\r\n}\r\nconst PYQ = sanitise(pyqQuestions,'pyq');\r\nconst CON = sanitise(conceptQuestions,'concept');\r\nconst QS  = PYQ.concat(CON);\r\n\r\nconst L = ['A','B','C','D','E','F'];\r\nconst uid = q => q.bank+'##'+q.chapter+'##'+q.id;\r\nconst BY_UID = new Map(QS.map(q=>[uid(q), q]));\r\n\r\n\/* ---------------------------------------------------------------------\r\n   Chapters are keyed on their number, so the two banks do not have to\r\n   spell the name identically. 'Ch 2', 'CH 2: Right to Information...'\r\n   and 'Chapter-2' all resolve to the same chapter; the longest spelling\r\n   found in either bank becomes the display name.\r\n   --------------------------------------------------------------------- *\/\r\nconst ROMAN = {i:1,ii:2,iii:3,iv:4,v:5,vi:6,vii:7,viii:8,ix:9,x:10,xi:11,xii:12};\r\nfunction chKey(str){\r\n  const t = String(str).toUpperCase().replace(\/[\\u2010-\\u2015]\/g,'-').trim();\r\n  let m = t.match(\/^(?:CH|CHAP|CHAPTER)\\s*[-.:]?\\s*(\\d+)\/);\r\n  if(m) return 'CH'+(+m[1]);\r\n  m = t.match(\/^(?:APPENDICES|APPENDIX|ANNEXURES?|ANNEXES?|APNDX|APPX|APDX|APP)\\s*[-.:]?\\s*(\\d+|[IVX]+)\\b\/);\r\n  if(m){ const v=m[1]; return 'APP'+(\/^\\d+$\/.test(v) ? +v : (ROMAN[v.toLowerCase()]||v)); }\r\n  m = t.match(\/^(\\d+)\\s*[-.:)]\/);\r\n  if(m) return 'CH'+(+m[1]);\r\n  return 'T:'+t.replace(\/[^A-Z0-9]+\/g,' ').trim();\r\n}\r\nconst CH_NAME = (function(){\r\n  const best={};\r\n  QS.forEach(q=>{ const k=chKey(q.chapter);\r\n    if(!best[k] || q.chapter.length>best[k].length) best[k]=q.chapter; });\r\n  return best;\r\n})();\r\nQS.forEach(q=>{ q.chKey = chKey(q.chapter); q.chapter = CH_NAME[q.chKey]; });\r\n\r\nconst CHAPTERS = (function(){\r\n  const seen=[]; QS.forEach(q=>{ if(!seen.includes(q.chapter)) seen.push(q.chapter); }); return seen;\r\n})();\r\nconst BY_CH = (()=>{ const m=new Map();\r\n  QS.forEach(q=>{ if(!m.has(q.chapter)) m.set(q.chapter,[]); m.get(q.chapter).push(q); }); return m; })();\r\nconst inCh   = c => BY_CH.get(c) || [];\r\nconst inChB  = (c,b) => inCh(c).filter(q=>q.bank===b);\r\n\r\nfunction chOrder(c){\r\n  const k = chKey(c);\r\n  if(k.startsWith('CH'))  return [0, +k.slice(2)||0, c];\r\n  if(k.startsWith('APP')) return [1, +k.slice(3)||99, c];\r\n  return [2, 0, c];\r\n}\r\nfunction byChapterOrder(a,b){\r\n  const x=chOrder(a.chapter||a), y=chOrder(b.chapter||b);\r\n  return x[0]-y[0] || x[1]-y[1] || String(x[2]).localeCompare(String(y[2]));\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* a bank that stores chapter names in block capitals is softened for display *\/\r\nfunction titleCase(str){\r\n  const t=String(str), letters=t.replace(\/[^A-Za-z]\/g,'');\r\n  if(!letters || letters !== letters.toUpperCase()) return t;\r\n  const small=new Set(['of','the','and','for','in','to','a','an','on','by','or','with','from','as','at','under']);\r\n  return t.toLowerCase().replace(\/[A-Za-z][A-Za-z'\\u2019]*\/g,(w,i)=>\r\n    (i>0 && small.has(w)) ? w : w.charAt(0).toUpperCase()+w.slice(1))\r\n    .replace(\/\\bCh\\b\/g,'Ch').replace(\/\\bC&ag\\b\/gi,'C&AG').replace(\/\\bRti\\b\/g,'RTI');\r\n}\r\nconst chShort = c => { const k=chKey(c);\r\n  return k.startsWith('CH') ? 'Ch '+k.slice(2) : k.startsWith('APP') ? 'Appx '+k.slice(3) : titleCase(c).slice(0,22); };\r\nconst chBrief = c => { const m=String(c).match(\/^\\s*(?:CH|CHAPTER)\\s*(\\d+)\\s*:\\s*(.+)$\/i);\r\n  const cap=t=>t.length>40?t.slice(0,38).trim()+'\\u2026':t;\r\n  return m ? 'Ch '+m[1]+': '+cap(titleCase(m[2])) : cap(titleCase(String(c))); };\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   4. EXAM WEIGHT \u2014 counted, not declared\r\n   A chapter's weight is its share of the PYQ bank. Nothing is set by\r\n   hand, so adding a year of papers re-weights the whole page. If there\r\n   are no PYQs at all, the page falls back to the concept bank's shape\r\n   and stops calling it exam weight.\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nconst W = (function(){\r\n  const pyqCount={}, conCount={};\r\n  CHAPTERS.forEach(c=>{ pyqCount[c]=inChB(c,'pyq').length; conCount[c]=inChB(c,'concept').length; });\r\n  const totalPyq = PYQ.length, totalCon = CON.length;\r\n  const weights={};\r\n  if(totalPyq>0) CHAPTERS.forEach(c=>weights[c]=pyqCount[c]\/totalPyq);\r\n  else           CHAPTERS.forEach(c=>weights[c]= totalCon?conCount[c]\/totalCon:0);\r\n  \/\/ chapters the paper has never touched\r\n  const untested = CHAPTERS.filter(c=>pyqCount[c]===0 && conCount[c]>0);\r\n  return {weights, pyqCount, conCount, totalPyq, totalCon, untested, measured: totalPyq>0};\r\n})();\r\nconst weightOf = c => W.weights[c] || 0;\r\nconst pctLabel = x => { const v=(x||0)*100; if(!(v>0)) return '0%';\r\n  return (v<10 ? Math.round(v*10)\/10 : Math.round(v)) + '%'; };\r\n\r\n\/* wording \u2014 weights are counted from real papers here, so the exam\r\n   language is accurate; it softens on its own if no PYQs are loaded *\/\r\nconst WT = W.measured;\r\nconst T = {\r\n  ofPaper   : WT ? 'of the exam'          : 'of this bank',\r\n  onScreen  : WT ? 'Exam weight on screen': 'Share on screen',\r\n  colWeight : WT ? 'Exam weight'          : 'Share of bank',\r\n  covered   : WT ? 'Paper weight touched' : 'Bank covered',\r\n  projected : WT ? 'Projected paper score': 'Projected score',\r\n  leakHead  : WT ? 'Where your marks are leaking' : 'Where you are losing the most',\r\n  leakUnit  : WT ? 'marks \/100'           : 'points \/100',\r\n  leakWord  : WT ? 'marks'                : 'points',\r\n  readyDef  : WT ? 'Readiness = \\u03a3 (exam weight \\u00d7 mastery)' : 'Readiness = \\u03a3 (share of the bank \\u00d7 mastery)',\r\n  paperOut  : WT ? 'the paper would come out near' : 'you would score around'\r\n};\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   6. PROGRESS (localStorage, one record per quizId)\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nconst SCHEMA = 1;\r\nconst KEY = 'pe_chapterdrill_' + CFG.quizId;\r\nfunction blank(){ return { schema:SCHEMA, stats:{}, weak:[], flags:[], log:[], queue:[], queueLabel:'', queueKind:'', lastUid:null }; }\r\nlet P = (function(){\r\n  const p = blank();\r\n  try{\r\n    const s = localStorage.getItem(KEY);\r\n    if(s){ const j=JSON.parse(s);\r\n      if(j && j.schema===SCHEMA) Object.assign(p, j);\r\n      else if(j) console.warn('[storage] older schema found; starting fresh.');\r\n    }\r\n  }catch(e){ console.warn('progress load failed', e); }\r\n  ['weak','flags','log','queue'].forEach(k=>{ if(!Array.isArray(p[k])) p[k]=[]; });\r\n  if(!p.stats) p.stats={};\r\n  return p;\r\n})();\r\nlet storageWarned=false;\r\nfunction save(){\r\n  try{\r\n    if(P.log.length>400) P.log = P.log.slice(-400);\r\n    localStorage.setItem(KEY, JSON.stringify(P));\r\n  }catch(e){\r\n    try{ P.log = P.log.slice(-80); localStorage.setItem(KEY, JSON.stringify(P)); }\r\n    catch(e2){ if(!storageWarned){ storageWarned=true; toast('Your browser is blocking saved progress \u2014 this sitting will not be remembered'); } }\r\n  }\r\n}\r\nfunction stat(u){ if(!P.stats[u]) P.stats[u]={correct:0,incorrect:0,last:null,lastOk:null}; return P.stats[u]; }\r\nconst flags = new Set(P.flags);\r\nconst weak  = new Set(P.weak);\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   7. SESSION STATE\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nconst S = { tab:'quiz', filter:'all', chapter:null, bank:'all', i:0, pick:null, nudge:false,\r\n            query:'', unattempted:false, ans:{}, order:[] };\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   8. FORMAT + TRAIT MODEL\r\n   SHAPE  = how the question is built (one per question)\r\n   TRAIT  = what it turns on (a question may carry several)\r\n   A shape gap is a reading habit; a trait gap is recall. Same number,\r\n   opposite remedy \u2014 so they are reported separately.\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nconst SHAPES = [\r\n  { key:'match',  label:'Match the following (List-I \/ List-II)',\r\n    test:q => \/list\\s*-?\\s*i\\b\/i.test(q.question) },\r\n  { key:'multi',  label:'Multi-statement \/ how many are correct',\r\n    test:q => q.question.split(\/<br\\s*\\\/?>|\\n\/).filter(x=>\/^\\s*\\d+[.)]\/.test(x)).length>=2 },\r\n  { key:'direct', label:'Explanation', test:()=>true }  \/\/ catch-all\r\n];\r\nconst TRAITS = [\r\n  { key:'cite',      label:'Para, rule, article or article-number recall',\r\n    test:q => \/\\b(para|paragraph|rule|article|section|appendix|schedule|clause)\\s*[-\u2013]?\\s*\\d\/i.test(q.question+' '+q.options.join(' ')) },\r\n  { key:'period',    label:'Time limits and periods',\r\n    test:q => \/\\b\\d+\\s*(day|week|month|year|hour)s?\\b|\\b(one|two|three|four|five|six|seven|ten|fourteen|fifteen|twenty|twenty-five|thirty|forty-five|sixty|ninety)[\\s-](day|week|month|year)s?\\b\/i.test(q.options.join(' ')) },\r\n  { key:'money',     label:'Numbers, monetary limits and percentages',\r\n    test:q => \/\u20b9|\\bRs\\.?\\s*\\d|\\blakhs?\\b|\\bcrores?\\b|per\\s*cent|%|\\bone-(third|fourth|half|tenth)\\b\/i.test(q.options.join(' ')) },\r\n  { key:'authority', label:'Competent authority \/ level \/ who does what',\r\n    test:q => \/\\bwho\\b|\\bby whom\\b|\\bauthority\\b|\\brank of\\b|\\blevel of\\b|\\bnot below\\b|addressed to|shall be (signed|issued|approved|maintained|prepared|submitted)\/i.test(q.question+' '+q.options.join(' ')) },\r\n  { key:'negative',  label:'Negatively phrased (\u201cNOT correct\u201d, \u201cexcept\u201d)',\r\n    test:q => \/\\bnot correct\\b|\\bis incorrect\\b|\\bare not correct\\b|\\bexcept\\b|\\bdoes not\\b|\\bcannot\\b|\\bnot required\\b|\\bneed not\\b|\\bis\\\/are not\\b\/i.test(q.question) }\r\n];\r\nconst _shape = {};\r\nfunction shapeOf(q){ const u=uid(q); return _shape[u] || (_shape[u] = SHAPES.find(s=>s.test(q)) || SHAPES[SHAPES.length-1]); }\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   9. MODELS\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nfunction smoothed(c,i){ const k=CFG.priorStrength, p0=CFG.priorAccuracy; return (c + k*p0)\/(c + i + k); }\r\nfunction expectedRate(c,i,coverage){ return smoothed(c,i)*coverage + CFG.priorAccuracy*(1-coverage); }\r\nfunction recall(st){\r\n  if(!st || !st.last || st.correct<2) return null;\r\n  const R=CFG.retention, reps=Math.max(1, st.correct - st.incorrect);\r\n  const stability = R.baseDays * Math.pow(R.growth, reps-1);\r\n  return Math.exp(-((Date.now()-st.last)\/86400000)\/stability);\r\n}\r\nfunction retentionIndex(){\r\n  let s=0,n=0; QS.forEach(q=>{ const r=recall(P.stats[uid(q)]); if(r!==null){s+=r;n++;} });\r\n  return n ? Math.round(s\/n*100) : null;\r\n}\r\nfunction bankStats(c, bank){\r\n  const qs = inChB(c, bank);\r\n  let att=0, ok=0, bad=0, mastSum=0;\r\n  qs.forEach(q=>{ const st=P.stats[uid(q)];\r\n    if(st && (st.correct+st.incorrect)>0){ att++; ok+=st.correct; bad+=st.incorrect; }\r\n    mastSum += st ? Math.min(st.correct\/CFG.masteryThreshold,1) : 0; });\r\n  return { count:qs.length, att, ok, bad,\r\n           acc:(ok+bad)?ok\/(ok+bad):null,\r\n           coverage: qs.length?att\/qs.length:0,\r\n           mastery: qs.length?mastSum\/qs.length:0 };\r\n}\r\nfunction chapterRows(){\r\n  return CHAPTERS.map(c=>{\r\n    const pyq = bankStats(c,'pyq'), con = bankStats(c,'concept');\r\n    const count = pyq.count+con.count, att = pyq.att+con.att;\r\n    const ok = pyq.ok+con.ok, bad = pyq.bad+con.bad;\r\n    const acc = (ok+bad) ? ok\/(ok+bad) : null;\r\n    const weight = weightOf(c);\r\n    const coverage = count?att\/count:0;\r\n    const mastery  = count ? (pyq.mastery*pyq.count + con.mastery*con.count)\/count : 0;\r\n    const expected = expectedRate(ok,bad,coverage);\r\n    const leak = weight*(1-expected);\r\n    const difficulty = acc===null ? 1 : (1.4 - 0.6*acc);\r\n    return { chapter:c, count, weight, pyq, con, att, ok, bad,\r\n             coverage, acc, mastery, expected, leak,\r\n             priority: weight*(1-mastery)*difficulty };\r\n  }).sort((a,b)=>b.weight-a.weight);\r\n}\r\nfunction readiness(){\r\n  const rows=chapterRows();\r\n  return {\r\n    score     : Math.round(rows.reduce((a,r)=>a+r.weight*r.mastery,0)*100),\r\n    projected : Math.round(rows.reduce((a,r)=>a+r.weight*r.expected,0)*100),\r\n    covered   : Math.round(rows.reduce((a,r)=>a+r.weight*r.coverage,0)*100),\r\n    touched   : Object.values(P.stats).some(s=>(s.correct+s.incorrect)>0),\r\n    rows\r\n  };\r\n}\r\nfunction masteredCount(){ return QS.filter(q=>{ const s=P.stats[uid(q)]; return s && s.correct>=CFG.masteryThreshold; }).length; }\r\nfunction formatRows(){\r\n  const acc={};\r\n  const ensure=(k,l,kind)=> acc[k] || (acc[k]={key:k,label:l,kind:kind,ok:0,bad:0,total:0,seen:0});\r\n  SHAPES.forEach(s=>ensure(s.key,s.label,'shape'));\r\n  TRAITS.forEach(t=>ensure(t.key,t.label,'trait'));\r\n  QS.forEach(q=>{\r\n    const s=P.stats[uid(q)], buckets=[acc[shapeOf(q).key]];\r\n    TRAITS.forEach(t=>{ if(t.test(q)) buckets.push(acc[t.key]); });\r\n    buckets.forEach(r=>{ r.total++; if(s && (s.correct+s.incorrect)>0){ r.seen++; r.ok+=s.correct; r.bad+=s.incorrect; } });\r\n  });\r\n  return Object.values(acc).map(r=>{ const n=r.ok+r.bad; r.attempts=n; r.acc = n? r.ok\/n : null; return r; })\r\n    .filter(r=>r.total>0);\r\n}\r\nfunction dueForRevision(){\r\n  const risk=CFG.retention.riskBelow;\r\n  return QS.map(q=>{\r\n    const st=P.stats[uid(q)], r=recall(st);\r\n    if(r===null || r>=risk) return null;\r\n    return { q, recall:r, days:Math.floor((Date.now()-st.last)\/86400000), urgency: weightOf(q.chapter)*(1-r) };\r\n  }).filter(Boolean).sort((a,b)=>b.urgency-a.urgency);\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   10. SESSION PLANNER\r\n   Focused set \u2014 chapter time in proportion to the marks leaking out.\r\n   Mock paper  \u2014 ignores your history, mirrors the shape of the bank.\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nfunction gain(q){\r\n  const u=uid(q), st=P.stats[u], c=st?st.correct:0, i=st?st.incorrect:0;\r\n  const deficit = 1 - Math.min(c\/CFG.masteryThreshold, 1);\r\n  let urgency = 1 + 0.15*deficit;\r\n  if(weak.has(u)) urgency += 0.60;\r\n  const r = recall(st);\r\n  if(r!==null && r<CFG.retention.riskBelow) urgency += (1-r);\r\n  if(c+i===0) urgency += 0.15;\r\n  return weightOf(q.chapter)*(deficit+0.12)*urgency;\r\n}\r\nfunction allocate(rows,n,shareOf){\r\n  const total = rows.reduce((a,r)=>a+Math.max(0,shareOf(r)),0);\r\n  if(!(total>0)) return rows.map(r=>({r,slots:0}));\r\n  const out = rows.map(r=>{ const exact=n*Math.max(0,shareOf(r))\/total;\r\n    return {r, exact, slots:Math.min(Math.floor(exact), r.count)}; });\r\n  let left = n - out.reduce((a,x)=>a+x.slots,0);\r\n  out.slice().sort((a,b)=>(b.exact-b.slots)-(a.exact-a.slots))\r\n     .forEach(x=>{ if(left>0 && x.slots<x.r.count){ x.slots++; left--; } });\r\n  if(left>0) out.slice().sort((a,b)=>shareOf(b.r)-shareOf(a.r))\r\n     .forEach(x=>{ while(left>0 && x.slots<x.r.count){ x.slots++; left--; } });\r\n  return out;\r\n}\r\n\/* Fisher\u2013Yates, so the order of a sitting is never the order of the bank *\/\r\nfunction shuffle(a){\r\n  for(let i=a.length-1;i>0;i--){ const j=Math.floor(Math.random()*(i+1)); [a[i],a[j]]=[a[j],a[i]]; }\r\n  return a;\r\n}\r\n\/* Weighted sampling without replacement: a high score makes a question\r\n   likely, never certain. Two sittings built back to back therefore share\r\n   only part of their content instead of being identical. *\/\r\nfunction sampleWeighted(pool, n, scoreFn){\r\n  const items = pool.map(q=>({q, w:Math.max(scoreFn(q), 1e-9)}));\r\n  const out=[];\r\n  n = Math.min(n, items.length);\r\n  for(let k=0;k<n;k++){\r\n    let total=0; items.forEach(x=>total+=x.w);\r\n    let r=Math.random()*total, hit=items.length-1;\r\n    for(let i=0;i<items.length;i++){ r-=items[i].w; if(r<=0){ hit=i; break; } }\r\n    out.push(items[hit].q);\r\n    items.splice(hit,1);\r\n  }\r\n  return out;\r\n}\r\nfunction buildSession(kind){\r\n  const only = kind==='pyq' ? 'pyq' : null;\r\n  const rows = chapterRows().filter(r=> only ? r[only].count>0 : r.count>0);\r\n  if(!rows.length) return 0;\r\n  const cap = kind==='mock' ? CFG.mockSize : kind==='pyq' ? CFG.pyqSize : CFG.sessionSize;\r\n  const n = Math.min(cap, only==='pyq' ? PYQ.length : QS.length);\r\n  const share = kind==='focus' ? (r=>r.leak) : (r=>r.weight);\r\n  const alloc = allocate(rows.map(r=>only?Object.assign({},r,{count:r[only].count}):r), n, share);\r\n\r\n  \/\/ whatever you were given last time is pushed down, not banned\r\n  const last = new Set(P.queue||[]);\r\n  const fresh = u => last.has(u) ? 0.3 : 1;\r\n\r\n  const picked=[];\r\n  alloc.forEach(({r,slots})=>{\r\n    if(!slots) return;\r\n    const pool = only ? inChB(r.chapter,only).slice() : inCh(r.chapter).slice();\r\n    if(kind==='mock' || kind==='pyq'){\r\n      \/\/ the mock ignores how well you know a question and simply spreads\r\n      \/\/ itself over the bank, favouring what you have seen least\r\n      picked.push(...sampleWeighted(pool, slots, q=>{\r\n        const st=P.stats[uid(q)], seen=st?(st.correct+st.incorrect):0;\r\n        const stale=(st&&st.last) ? Math.min((Date.now()-st.last)\/(86400000*30),1) : 1;\r\n        return (1\/(1+seen*1.6) + 0.35*stale) * fresh(uid(q));\r\n      }));\r\n    } else {\r\n      picked.push(...sampleWeighted(pool, slots, q=>gain(q)*fresh(uid(q))));\r\n    }\r\n  });\r\n  shuffle(picked);\r\n  P.queue = picked.map(uid);\r\n  P.queueLabel = kind==='mock' ? 'Mock paper' : kind==='pyq' ? 'PYQ paper' : 'Focused set';\r\n  P.queueKind = kind;\r\n  save();\r\n  return picked.length;\r\n}\r\nfunction startSession(kind){\r\n  const had = (P.queue||[]).length;\r\n  const n = buildSession(kind);\r\n  if(!n){ toast('Nothing to build a session from yet'); return; }\r\n  setTab('quiz'); setFilter('session');\r\n  S.ans = {};                                   \/\/ a new sitting starts clean\r\n  toast(P.queueLabel+' ready \u2014 '+n+' fresh questions'+(had?' (previous set replaced)':''), true);\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   11. POOL \/ FILTERS\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nfunction pool(){\r\n  let p = QS.slice();\r\n  if(S.filter==='pyq')     p = p.filter(q=>q.bank==='pyq');\r\n  if(S.filter==='concept') p = p.filter(q=>q.bank==='concept');\r\n  if(S.filter==='chapter' && S.chapter){\r\n    p = inCh(S.chapter).slice();\r\n    if(S.bank!=='all') p = p.filter(q=>q.bank===S.bank);\r\n  }\r\n  if(S.filter==='weak')    p = p.filter(q=>weak.has(uid(q)));\r\n  if(S.filter==='flagged') p = p.filter(q=>flags.has(uid(q)));\r\n  if(S.filter==='session') p = (P.queue||[]).map(u=>BY_UID.get(u)).filter(Boolean);\r\n  if(S.query){ const t=S.query.toLowerCase();\r\n    p = p.filter(q=>(q.question+' '+q.options.join(' ')+' '+q.explanation).toLowerCase().includes(t)); }\r\n  if(S.unattempted) p = p.filter(q=>S.ans[uid(q)]==null);\r\n  return p;\r\n}\r\nfunction refreshWeak(){\r\n  weak.clear();\r\n  QS.forEach(q=>{ const s=P.stats[uid(q)];\r\n    if(s && s.incorrect>=CFG.weakThreshold && s.correct<CFG.masteryThreshold) weak.add(uid(q)); });\r\n  P.weak=[...weak];\r\n}\r\nrefreshWeak();\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   12. STEM RENDERING (statements + List-I \/ List-II)\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nconst cleanStem = t => String(t).replace(\/^\\s*(?:Q|Question)\\s*\\.?\\s*\\d+\\s*[.):\\-]\\s*\/i,'').trim();\r\nconst QN = '<span class=\"qno\">Q.<\/span>';   \/\/ the marker printed before every stem\r\nfunction buildStem(raw){\r\n  const lines = raw.split(\/<br\\s*\\\/?>|\\n\/).map(s=>s.trim()).filter(Boolean);\r\n  const plain = s => s.replace(\/<\\\/?b>\/g,'').trim();\r\n  const isMatch = lines.some(l=>\/^List\\s*[-\u2013\u2014]?\\s*I\\b\/i.test(plain(l)));\r\n  const numbered = lines.filter(l=>\/^\\d+[.)]\\s\/.test(plain(l)));\r\n  if(isMatch) return matchCard(lines, plain);\r\n  if(numbered.length>=2) return stmtCard(lines, plain);\r\n  return plainCard(lines);\r\n}\r\n\/* a single-statement question gets the same sheet as the other two, so\r\n   every question on the page reads the same way *\/\r\nfunction plainCard(lines){\r\n  return '<div class=\"stem\" id=\"qStem\"><div class=\"qsheet\">'\r\n    + lines.map((l,i)=>'<p class=\"'+(i===0?'lead':'close')+'\">'+(i===0?QN:'')+l+'<\/p>').join('')\r\n    + '<\/div><\/div>';\r\n}\r\nfunction stmtCard(lines, plain){\r\n  const isN = l => \/^\\d+[.)]\\s\/.test(plain(l));\r\n  const first = lines.findIndex(isN);\r\n  let last=-1; lines.forEach((l,i)=>{ if(isN(l)) last=i; });\r\n  const head = lines.slice(0,first), tail = lines.slice(last+1);\r\n  const items = lines.slice(first,last+1).filter(isN).map(l=>plain(l).replace(\/^\\d+[.)]\\s*\/,''));\r\n  return '<div class=\"stem\" id=\"qStem\"><div class=\"qsheet\">'\r\n    + head.map((l,i)=>'<p class=\"'+(i===0?'lead':'intro')+'\">'+(i===0?QN:'')+l+'<\/p>').join('')\r\n    + '<ol class=\"stmts\">'+items.map(t=>'<li><span>'+t+'<\/span><\/li>').join('')+'<\/ol>'\r\n    + tail.map(l=>'<p class=\"close\">'+l+'<\/p>').join('')\r\n    + '<\/div><\/div>';\r\n}\r\n\/* Match-the-following comes in every shape: one item per line, or the\r\n   whole list run together on a single line separated by semicolons or\r\n   commas, or nothing at all between items. All three are split here so\r\n   the two columns always come out as proper rows. *\/\r\nfunction splitItems(body, kind){\r\n  const lab = kind==='alpha' ? '[A-Fa-f]' : '\\\\d{1,2}';\r\n  const mk  = re => new RegExp(re.replace('LAB', lab), 'g');\r\n  let parts = body.split(mk('\\\\s*[;\\\\n]\\\\s*(?=LAB\\\\s*[.):]\\\\s)'));\r\n  if(parts.length < 2) parts = body.split(mk('\\\\s*,\\\\s*(?=LAB\\\\s*[.):]\\\\s)'));\r\n  if(parts.length < 2) parts = body.split(mk('(?<=\\\\S)\\\\s+(?=LAB\\\\s*[.)]\\\\s)'));\r\n  const re = new RegExp('^\\\\s*('+lab+')\\\\s*[.):]\\\\s*(.+?)\\\\s*[;,.]?\\\\s*$');\r\n  return parts.map(p=>{ const m=String(p).match(re);\r\n    return m ? {k:m[1].toUpperCase(), v:m[2]} : null; }).filter(Boolean);\r\n}\r\nfunction matchCard(lines, plain){\r\n  \/\/ keep line breaks, normalise only runs of spaces\r\n  const text = lines.map(plain).join('\\n').replace(\/[ \\t]+\/g,' ').trim();\r\n\r\n  \/* The opening line almost always names both lists \u2014 \"Match List-I with\r\n     List-II and select\u2026\" \u2014 so the first occurrence of each is the wrong\r\n     one. Take the last List-I that actually has items after it, and the\r\n     first List-II following that. *\/\r\n  const at = re => [...text.matchAll(re)].map(m=>m.index);\r\n  const posI  = at(\/List\\s*[-\u2013\u2014]?\\s*I\\b\/gi);\r\n  const posII = at(\/List\\s*[-\u2013\u2014]?\\s*II\\b\/gi);\r\n  const hasItems = (str,kind) =>\r\n    (kind==='alpha' ? \/[A-F]\\s*[.):]\\s\/ : \/\\d{1,2}\\s*[.):]\\s\/).test(str);\r\n  let iI=-1, iII=-1;\r\n  for(let k=posI.length-1;k>=0 && iI<0;k--){\r\n    const ii = posII.find(x=>x>posI[k]);\r\n    if(ii===undefined) continue;\r\n    if(hasItems(text.slice(posI[k],ii),'alpha') && hasItems(text.slice(ii),'num')){ iI=posI[k]; iII=ii; }\r\n  }\r\n  if(iI<0 || iII<0) return plainCard(lines);\r\n\r\n  const head  = text.slice(0, iI).trim();\r\n  let segI    = text.slice(iI, iII).trim();\r\n  let segII   = text.slice(iII).trim();\r\n\r\n  \/\/ anything after the lists \u2014 \"Code :\", \"Select the correct answer\u2026\"\r\n  let tail = '';\r\n  const t = segII.match(\/(?:\\n|\\s)(Code\\s*[:.]?\\s*$|(?:Select|Choose)\\b[\\s\\S]*$)\/i);\r\n  if(t){ tail = t[1].trim(); segII = segII.slice(0, t.index).trim(); }\r\n\r\n  \/\/ column captions: \"List-I (Purpose of Leave) :\"\r\n  const capRe = \/^List\\s*[-\u2013\u2014]?\\s*I{1,2}\\b\\s*(\\([^)]*\\))?\\s*[:.]?\\s*\/i;\r\n  const hI  = segI.match(capRe),  hII = segII.match(capRe);\r\n  const capI  = hI  ? hI[0].replace(\/[\\s:.]+$\/,'')  : 'List-I';\r\n  const capII = hII ? hII[0].replace(\/[\\s:.]+$\/,'') : 'List-II';\r\n  const rowsI  = splitItems(hI  ? segI.slice(hI[0].length)  : segI,  'alpha');\r\n  const rowsII = splitItems(hII ? segII.slice(hII[0].length): segII, 'num');\r\n  if(!rowsI.length || !rowsII.length) return plainCard(lines);\r\n\r\n  const cell = x => '<li><b>'+x.k+'.<\/b><span>'+x.v+'<\/span><\/li>';\r\n  const headLines = head ? head.split('\\n').filter(Boolean) : [];\r\n  return '<div class=\"stem\" id=\"qStem\"><div class=\"qsheet\">'\r\n    + (headLines.length\r\n        ? headLines.map((l,i)=>'<p class=\"'+(i===0?'lead':'intro')+'\">'+(i===0?QN:'')+l+'<\/p>').join('')\r\n        : '<p class=\"lead\">'+QN+'Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:<\/p>')\r\n    + '<div class=\"lists\">'\r\n      + '<div class=\"lcol\"><h5>'+capI+'<\/h5><ul>'+rowsI.map(cell).join('')+'<\/ul><\/div>'\r\n      + '<div class=\"lcol\"><h5>'+capII+'<\/h5><ul>'+rowsII.map(cell).join('')+'<\/ul><\/div>'\r\n    + '<\/div>'\r\n    + '<p class=\"close\">'+(tail || 'Select the correct answer using the code given below:')+'<\/p>'\r\n    + '<\/div><\/div>';\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   13. UI HELPERS\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nconst $ = id => document.getElementById(id);\r\nlet toastTimer=null;\r\nfunction toast(msg, ok){\r\n  const t=$('toast'); t.innerHTML=msg; t.className='toast show'+(ok?' ok':'');\r\n  clearTimeout(toastTimer); toastTimer=setTimeout(()=>t.className='toast',3000);\r\n}\r\nconst SRC_ON = !!(CFG.sourceUrl && CFG.sourceUrl.trim());\r\nconst stripHtml = s => String(s).replace(\/<[^>]+>\/g,'').replace(\/\\s+\/g,' ').trim();\r\nconst preview = (q,n) => { const t=stripHtml(q.question); return t.length>n ? t.slice(0,n)+'\u2026' : t; };\r\nfunction stars(u){\r\n  const s=P.stats[u]; if(!s || (s.correct+s.incorrect)===0) return null;\r\n  return { filled: Math.min(s.correct, CFG.masteryThreshold), c:s.correct, i:s.incorrect };\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   14. RENDER \u2014 PRACTICE\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nfunction renderCtx(){\r\n  const panel=$('chapPanel');\r\n  const on = S.filter==='chapter';\r\n  panel.classList.toggle('hide', !on);\r\n  if(!on) return;\r\n  document.querySelectorAll('#cdRoot .bankseg button').forEach(b=>\r\n    b.setAttribute('aria-pressed', b.dataset.bank===S.bank));\r\n  const rows = chapterRows().filter(r=>r.count>0).sort(byChapterOrder);\r\n  if(!S.chapter || !rows.some(r=>r.chapter===S.chapter)) S.chapter = rows[0] ? rows[0].chapter : null;\r\n  $('chapList').innerHTML = rows.map((r,n)=>{\r\n    const sel = r.chapter===S.chapter;\r\n    const mastered = inCh(r.chapter).filter(q=>{ const s=P.stats[uid(q)]; return s && s.correct>=CFG.masteryThreshold; }).length;\r\n    const title = r.chapter+(WT?' \u2014 '+pctLabel(r.weight)+' of the exam':'')\r\n                + ' \u00b7 '+r.pyq.count+' PYQs, '+r.con.count+' concept MCQs \u00b7 '\r\n                + Math.round(r.coverage*100)+'% seen'+(mastered?' \u00b7 '+mastered+' mastered':'');\r\n    return '<button class=\"chapchip\" aria-pressed=\"'+sel+'\" data-ch=\"'+encodeURIComponent(r.chapter)+'\" title=\"'+title+'\">'\r\n      + '<span class=\"no\">'+(n+1)+'<\/span>'\r\n      + '<span class=\"cn\">'+titleCase(r.chapter)+'<\/span>'\r\n      + (WT ? '<span class=\"cw\">'+pctLabel(r.weight)+' of exam<\/span>' : '')\r\n      + (mastered===r.count ? '<span class=\"done\">\u2713<\/span>' : '')\r\n      + '<span class=\"cc pyq\" title=\"previous year questions\">'+r.pyq.count+'<\/span>'\r\n      + '<span class=\"cc con\" title=\"concept MCQs\">'+r.con.count+'<\/span><\/button>';\r\n  }).join('');\r\n  const r = rows.find(x=>x.chapter===S.chapter);\r\n  $('ctxMeta').textContent = r\r\n    ? Math.round(r.coverage*100)+'% seen \u00b7 '+(r.acc===null?'not attempted':Math.round(r.acc*100)+'% accurate')\r\n    : '';\r\n}\r\nfunction render(){\r\n  renderCtx();\r\n  const p = pool();\r\n  const ec = $('emptyCard');\r\n  if(!p.length){\r\n    $('qCard').classList.add('hide'); ec.classList.remove('hide');\r\n    $('emptyBody').innerHTML =\r\n      S.query    ? '<b>No match for \u201c'+S.query+'\u201d<\/b>Try a rule or paragraph number, or a phrase like \u201cpart file\u201d.' :\r\n      S.filter==='weak'    ? '<b>No weak areas yet<\/b>Anything you answer wrong lands here until you have it right '+CFG.masteryThreshold+' times.' :\r\n      S.filter==='flagged' ? '<b>Nothing flagged yet<\/b>Press <b style=\"display:inline\">Flag for review<\/b> under any question and it collects here.' :\r\n      S.filter==='session' ? '<b>No session built yet<\/b>Open My Performance and build a Focused set or a Mock paper.' :\r\n      S.unattempted        ? '<b>You have attempted everything here<\/b>Turn off \u201cUnattempted only\u201d to revise what you have done.' :\r\n                             '<b>No questions in this selection<\/b>Clear the search or pick another chapter.';\r\n    renderNav(p); rail(p); return;\r\n  }\r\n  ec.classList.add('hide'); $('qCard').classList.remove('hide');\r\n  if(S.i>=p.length) S.i=0; if(S.i<0) S.i=p.length-1;\r\n\r\n  const q=p[S.i], u=uid(q), given=S.ans[u];\r\n  $('qCount').textContent = 'Question '+(S.i+1)+' of '+p.length;\r\n  $('qChap').textContent  = chBrief(q.chapter);\r\n  const src=$('qSrc');\r\n  src.className = 'badge-src '+(q.bank==='pyq'?'pyq':'con');\r\n  src.textContent = q.bank==='pyq' ? ('PYQ'+(q.year?' '+q.year:'')) : 'Concept';\r\n  const tags=[];\r\n  if(weak.has(u))  tags.push('<span class=\"qtag weak\">\u26a0\ufe0f Weak<\/span>');\r\n  if(flags.has(u)) tags.push('<span class=\"qtag flag\">\ud83d\udd16 Flagged<\/span>');\r\n  const sMast=P.stats[u];\r\n  if(sMast && sMast.correct>=CFG.masteryThreshold) tags.push('<span class=\"qtag done\">\u2713 Mastered<\/span>');\r\n  $('qTags').innerHTML = tags.join('');\r\n  const st = stars(u), badge=$('qMastery');\r\n  if(!st){ badge.textContent='Not seen yet'; badge.className='badge-m'; }\r\n  else {\r\n    const done = st.c>=CFG.masteryThreshold;\r\n    badge.textContent = '\u2605'.repeat(st.filled)+'\u2606'.repeat(Math.max(0,CFG.masteryThreshold-st.filled))+'  '+st.c+'\u2713 '+st.i+'\u2717';\r\n    badge.className = 'badge-m'+(weak.has(u)&&!done?' weak':'');\r\n  }\r\n  $('qStem').outerHTML = buildStem(cleanStem(q.question));\r\n\r\n  const box=$('qOpts'); box.innerHTML='';\r\n  q.options.forEach((o,k)=>{\r\n    const b=document.createElement('button');\r\n    b.className='opt';\r\n    b.innerHTML='<span class=\"key\">('+L[k].toLowerCase()+')<\/span><span class=\"txt\">'+o+'<\/span>';\r\n    if(given!=null){\r\n      b.disabled=true;\r\n      if(k===q.correct){ b.classList.add('right'); b.insertAdjacentHTML('beforeend','<span class=\"mark r\">Correct<\/span>'); }\r\n      else if(k===given){ b.classList.add('wrong'); b.insertAdjacentHTML('beforeend','<span class=\"mark w\">Your answer<\/span>'); }\r\n    } else if(S.pick===k) b.classList.add('sel');\r\n    b.onclick=()=>{ if(given!=null) return; S.pick=k; S.nudge=false; render(); };\r\n    box.appendChild(b);\r\n  });\r\n\r\n  const bc=$('btnCheck');\r\n  bc.disabled = given!=null;\r\n  bc.textContent = given!=null ? 'Answered \u2713' : 'Check answer';\r\n  $('pickHint').classList.toggle('hide', !(given==null && S.pick==null && S.nudge));\r\n  const on = flags.has(u);\r\n  $('btnFlag').setAttribute('aria-pressed', on);\r\n  $('flagIco').textContent = on ? '\ud83d\udd16' : '\ud83c\udff3\ufe0f';\r\n  $('flagTxt').textContent = on ? 'Flagged' : 'Flag for review';\r\n\r\n  const res=$('result');\r\n  res.classList.toggle('hide', given==null);\r\n  if(given!=null){\r\n    const ok = given===q.correct, v=$('verdict');\r\n    v.className='verdict '+(ok?'r':'w');\r\n    v.innerHTML = ok ? '\u2713 Correct \u2014 '+L[q.correct]+' is right'\r\n                     : '\u2715 Not quite \u2014 the answer is '+L[q.correct];\r\n    $('explBody').innerHTML = q.explanation;\r\n  }\r\n  renderNav(p); rail(p);\r\n}\r\nlet navOpen=true;\r\nfunction renderNav(p){\r\n  const card=$('navCard');\r\n  if(!p.length){ card.classList.add('hide'); return; }\r\n  card.classList.remove('hide');\r\n  const done=p.filter(q=>S.ans[uid(q)]!=null).length;\r\n  $('navTitle').textContent = 'Navigator \u2014 '+done+' of '+p.length+' attempted';\r\n  const g=$('navGrid');\r\n  g.classList.toggle('hide', !navOpen);\r\n  $('navToggle').textContent = navOpen ? 'Hide' : 'Show';\r\n  if(!navOpen) return;\r\n  g.innerHTML='';\r\n  p.forEach((q,k)=>{\r\n    const u=uid(q), a=S.ans[u], s=P.stats[u];\r\n    const b=document.createElement('button');\r\n    b.className='nq'+(k===S.i?' cur':(a!=null?(a===q.correct?' r':' w'):''))\r\n              + (s && s.correct>=CFG.masteryThreshold ? ' mastered':'');\r\n    b.innerHTML=(k+1)+(flags.has(u)?'<span class=\"fl\">\ud83d\udd16<\/span>':'');\r\n    b.title = 'Q'+(k+1)+' \u00b7 '+chBrief(q.chapter)+(a!=null?(a===q.correct?' \u00b7 correct':' \u00b7 wrong'):'');\r\n    b.setAttribute('aria-label','Go to question '+(k+1));\r\n    b.onclick=()=>{ S.i=k; S.pick=null; render(); };\r\n    g.appendChild(b);\r\n  });\r\n}\r\nfunction rail(p){\r\n  const seen=Object.keys(S.ans).length;\r\n  const right=Object.entries(S.ans).filter(([u,a])=>BY_UID.get(u) && BY_UID.get(u).correct===a).length;\r\n  $('sPct').textContent = seen ? Math.round(right\/seen*100)+'%' : '\u2014';\r\n  $('sFrac').textContent = right+' of '+seen+' correct';\r\n  $('sBar').style.width = (seen?right\/seen*100:0)+'%';\r\n  $('sSeen').textContent = seen+' attempted';\r\n  $('sLeft').textContent = Math.max(0,p.length-S.i-1)+' left here';\r\n  const st=$('streak'); st.innerHTML='';\r\n  Object.entries(S.ans).slice(-10).forEach(([u,a])=>{\r\n    const q=BY_UID.get(u); if(!q) return;\r\n    const el=document.createElement('i'); el.className = q.correct===a?'r':'w'; st.appendChild(el);\r\n  });\r\n  const chs=[...new Set(p.map(q=>q.chapter))];\r\n  const w=chs.reduce((s,c)=>s+weightOf(c),0)*100;\r\n  $('wPct').textContent = w.toFixed(1)+'%';\r\n  $('wNote').textContent = p.length+' questions on screen, from '+chs.length+' '+(chs.length===1?'chapter':'chapters')+'. '\r\n    + (w>=35 ? 'That is a big slice in one sitting \u2014 worth clearing properly.' : 'Useful for topping up once the bigger chapters are secure.');\r\n  hdr();\r\n}\r\nfunction hdr(){\r\n  $('hQ').textContent = QS.length;\r\n  $('hCh').textContent = CHAPTERS.length;\r\n  $('hMastered').textContent = (QS.length ? Math.round(masteredCount()\/QS.length*100) : 0)+'%';\r\n  const r=readiness();\r\n  $('hReady').textContent = r.touched ? r.score+'%' : '\u2014';\r\n  $('fAll').textContent  = QS.length;\r\n  $('fPyq').textContent  = PYQ.length;\r\n  $('fCon').textContent  = CON.length;\r\n  $('fWeak').textContent = weak.size;\r\n  $('fFlag').textContent = flags.size;\r\n  $('fSess').textContent = (P.queue||[]).length;\r\n  $('pillSession').classList.toggle('hide', !(P.queue||[]).length);\r\n  $('sessLabel').textContent = P.queueLabel || 'My session';\r\n  $('perfPill').classList.toggle('hide', weak.size<5);\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   15. RENDER \u2014 PERFORMANCE\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nfunction renderPerf(){\r\n  const body=$('perfBody');\r\n  const seen=Object.values(P.stats).filter(s=>(s.correct+s.incorrect)>0).length;\r\n  $('perfCount').textContent = seen+' questions attempted';\r\n\r\n  if(!QS.length){ body.innerHTML='<div class=\"empty\"><b>No questions loaded<\/b>Paste your bank into <code>chapterQuestions<\/code> and reload.<\/div>'; return; }\r\n  const R = readiness();\r\n  if(!R.touched){\r\n    body.innerHTML = '<div class=\"empty\"><b>Your coach is waiting for data<\/b>Answer a few questions in Practice. '\r\n      + 'The coach then scores your readiness against the weightage of each chapter, works out where marks are leaking, and builds the next sitting for you.<\/div>'\r\n      + plannerHTML(true);\r\n    bindPerf(); return;\r\n  }\r\n  const rows=R.rows, byPriority=[...rows].sort((a,b)=>b.priority-a.priority);\r\n  const allC=Object.values(P.stats).reduce((a,s)=>a+s.correct,0);\r\n  const allI=Object.values(P.stats).reduce((a,s)=>a+s.incorrect,0);\r\n  const accAll = (allC+allI) ? Math.round(allC\/(allC+allI)*100) : 0;\r\n  const recent = P.log.slice(-20);\r\n  const accRec = recent.length ? Math.round(recent.filter(x=>x.ok).length\/recent.length*100) : 0;\r\n  const trend = recent.length>=5 ? (accRec>accAll?' \u2197':(accRec<accAll?' \u2198':'')) : '';\r\n  const ret = retentionIndex();\r\n  const due = dueForRevision();\r\n  const band=(v,hi,mid)=> v>=hi?'var(--ok)': v>=mid?'#8A6206':'var(--bad)';\r\n\r\n  const verdict = R.score>=80 ? '<b>In good shape.<\/b> Hold it there with the revision queue and weak-area drills.'\r\n    : R.score>=60 ? '<b>Strong base.<\/b> Close the gaps in the biggest chapters below to cross 80.'\r\n    : R.score>=35 ? '<b>Building up.<\/b> Work the plan top-down \u2014 it is ordered by what will move this number fastest.'\r\n    : '<b>Early stage.<\/b> Start at the top of the plan; the biggest chapters move this number fastest.';\r\n\r\n  body.innerHTML =\r\n  '<div class=\"hero2\">'\r\n  + '<div class=\"ring-card\"><div class=\"ring\" role=\"img\" aria-label=\"Readiness '+R.score+' out of 100\">'\r\n    + '<svg width=\"150\" height=\"150\" aria-hidden=\"true\"><circle class=\"bg\" cx=\"75\" cy=\"75\" r=\"64\"><\/circle>'\r\n    + '<circle class=\"fg\" cx=\"75\" cy=\"75\" r=\"64\" stroke-dasharray=\"402\" stroke-dashoffset=\"'+(402-402*R.score\/100)+'\"><\/circle><\/svg>'\r\n    + '<div class=\"ring-txt\"><b>'+R.score+'<\/b><span>Readiness \/ 100<\/span><\/div><\/div>'\r\n    + '<div class=\"verdict2\">'+verdict+'<br><span style=\"font-size:11.6px;opacity:.85\">'+T.readyDef+' across '+CHAPTERS.length\r\n    + ' chapters. On today\\u2019s form '+T.paperOut+' <b>'+R.projected+'%<\/b>.<\/span><\/div><\/div>'\r\n  + '<div class=\"coach\"><h4>\ud83e\udded What to do next<\/h4><div id=\"recoList\"><\/div><\/div>'\r\n  + '<\/div>'\r\n\r\n  + plannerHTML(false)\r\n\r\n  + '<div class=\"kpis\">'\r\n    + kpi(R.projected+'%',T.projected, band(R.projected,65,45))\r\n    + kpi(R.covered+'%',T.covered, band(R.covered,70,40))\r\n    + kpi(ret===null?'\u2014':ret+'%','Retention now', ret===null?'var(--slate)':band(ret,75,55))\r\n    + kpi(accAll+'%','Lifetime accuracy', band(accAll,70,45))\r\n    + kpi(accRec+'%'+trend,'Last 20 attempts', band(accRec,70,45))\r\n    + kpi(masteredCount(),'Mastered ('+CFG.masteryThreshold+'\u2713)','var(--ok)')\r\n    + kpi(weak.size,'Weak questions','var(--bad)')\r\n    + kpi(flags.size,'Flagged','#8A6206')\r\n  + '<\/div>'\r\n\r\n  + '<section class=\"pblock\"><div class=\"pbh\"><div class=\"txt\">'\r\n    + '<h4><span class=\"secno\">02<\/span>Chapter performance vs '+(WT?'exam weight':'bank share')+'<\/h4>'\r\n    + '<p>Both banks scored separately, so you can see a chapter that is fine on practice questions and weak on the real paper.<\/p><\/div>'\r\n    + '<span class=\"sechint\">priority = high weight \\u00d7 low accuracy<\/span><\/div>'\r\n    + '<div class=\"tblwrap\" style=\"border:0;border-radius:0\"><table class=\"perf-t nested\"><thead>'\r\n    + '<tr><th rowspan=\"2\" class=\"lft\">Chapter<\/th><th rowspan=\"2\">'+T.colWeight+'<\/th>'\r\n    + '<th colspan=\"2\" class=\"grp pyq\">PYQs<\/th>'\r\n    + '<th colspan=\"2\" class=\"grp con\">Concept MCQs<\/th>'\r\n    + '<th rowspan=\"2\">Status<\/th><th rowspan=\"2\">Practice<\/th><\/tr>'\r\n    + '<tr><th class=\"sub2\">Covered<\/th><th class=\"sub2\">Accuracy<\/th>'\r\n    + '<th class=\"sub2\">Covered<\/th><th class=\"sub2\">Accuracy<\/th><\/tr><\/thead><tbody>'\r\n    + byPriority.map(r=>{\r\n        const a = r.acc===null?null:Math.round(r.acc*100);\r\n        const tag = r.count===0 ? '<span class=\"tag na\">No questions<\/span>'\r\n          : r.acc===null ? '<span class=\"tag na\">Not started<\/span>'\r\n          : a<45 ? '<span class=\"tag hot\">Critical<\/span>'\r\n          : a<65 ? '<span class=\"tag warm\">Needs work<\/span>'\r\n          : a<85 ? '<span class=\"tag ok\">On track<\/span>'\r\n                 : '<span class=\"tag good\">Strong<\/span>';\r\n        const cov = b => b.count ? b.att+'\/'+b.count : '<span class=\"nil\">\\u2014<\/span>';\r\n        const accCell = b => {\r\n          if(b.acc===null) return '<span class=\"nil\">\\u2014<\/span>';\r\n          const v=Math.round(b.acc*100);\r\n          const col = v<45?'var(--bad)':v<65?'var(--gold)':'var(--ok)';\r\n          return '<div class=\"minibar\"><i style=\"width:'+Math.max(v,4)+'%;background:'+col+'\"><\/i><\/div>'\r\n               + '<span class=\"miniv\" style=\"color:'+col+'\">'+v+'%<\/span>';\r\n        };\r\n        const wcell = '<b class=\"wt\">'+pctLabel(r.weight)+'<\/b>'\r\n          + (WT ? '<span class=\"wsub\">('+r.pyq.count+' PYQ'+(r.pyq.count===1?'':'s')+')<\/span>' : '');\r\n        return '<tr><td class=\"lft\" title=\"'+r.chapter+'\">'+chBrief(r.chapter)+'<\/td>'\r\n          + '<td>'+wcell+'<\/td>'\r\n          + '<td>'+cov(r.pyq)+'<\/td><td>'+accCell(r.pyq)+'<\/td>'\r\n          + '<td>'+cov(r.con)+'<\/td><td>'+accCell(r.con)+'<\/td>'\r\n          + '<td>'+tag+'<\/td>'\r\n          + '<td class=\"prac\">'\r\n            + (r.pyq.count?'<button class=\"mini-go pyq\" data-goch=\"'+encodeURIComponent(r.chapter)+'\" data-bank=\"pyq\">PYQ<\/button>':'')\r\n            + (r.con.count?'<button class=\"mini-go\" data-goch=\"'+encodeURIComponent(r.chapter)+'\" data-bank=\"concept\">Drill<\/button>':'')\r\n          + '<\/td><\/tr>';\r\n      }).join('')\r\n    + '<\/tbody><\/table><\/div><\/section>'\r\n\r\n  + '<section class=\"pblock\"><div class=\"pbh\"><div class=\"txt\">'\r\n    + '<h4><span class=\"secno\">03<\/span>'+T.leakHead+'<\/h4>'\r\n    + '<p id=\"leakNote\"><\/p><\/div>'\r\n    + '<span class=\"sechint\">'+rows.filter(r=>r.count>0).length+' chapters<\/span><\/div>'\r\n    + '<div class=\"bars\" id=\"leakBars\"><\/div><\/section>'\r\n\r\n  + '<section class=\"pblock\"><div class=\"pbh\"><div class=\"txt\">'\r\n    + '<h4><span class=\"secno\">04<\/span>How you handle each kind of question<\/h4>'\r\n    + '<p id=\"fmtNote\"><\/p><\/div>'\r\n    + '<span class=\"sechint\">format beats topic when the gap is wide<\/span><\/div>'\r\n    + '<div class=\"subhead\"><h5>How the question is built<\/h5><span>one shape per question<\/span><\/div>'\r\n    + '<div class=\"bars\" id=\"shapeBars\"><\/div>'\r\n    + '<div class=\"subhead\"><h5>What the question turns on<\/h5><span>a question can sit in more than one \u2014 a time limit asked as a multi-statement code counts on both<\/span><\/div>'\r\n    + '<div class=\"bars\" id=\"traitBars\"><\/div><\/section>'\r\n\r\n  + '<div class=\"split\">'\r\n    + '<div class=\"panel\"><h4 class=\"ph\"><span class=\"secno\">05<\/span> Revision queue \u2014 what is fading fastest<\/h4><div id=\"revQ\"><\/div><\/div>'\r\n    + '<div class=\"panel\"><h4 class=\"ph\"><span class=\"secno\">06<\/span> Mastery distribution<\/h4><div id=\"mastDist\"><\/div><\/div>'\r\n  + '<\/div>'\r\n\r\n  + '<div class=\"danger\"><p><b>Danger zone.<\/b> This permanently erases your lifetime performance for this subject \u2014 mastery, weak areas, flags, accuracy history and the readiness score. Reset session on the Practice tab does <b>not<\/b> touch this.<\/p>'\r\n    + '<button class=\"dbtn\" id=\"btnWipe\">\ud83d\uddd1\ufe0f Reset my performance<\/button><\/div>';\r\n\r\n  renderRecos(byPriority, rows, due);\r\n  renderLeaks(rows);\r\n  renderFormats();\r\n  renderRevision(due);\r\n  renderMastery();\r\n  bindPerf();\r\n}\r\nfunction kpi(v,l,color){ return '<div class=\"kpi\"><b style=\"color:'+color+'\">'+v+'<\/b><span>'+l+'<\/span><\/div>'; }\r\nfunction plannerHTML(empty){\r\n  const rows=chapterRows().filter(r=>r.count>0).sort((a,b)=>b.leak-a.leak).slice(0,2).map(r=>chShort(r.chapter));\r\n  return '<div class=\"planner\"><div><h4><span class=\"secno\">01<\/span>Plan the next sitting<\/h4><p id=\"plannerNote\">'\r\n    + (empty\r\n        ? 'The focused set gives each chapter time in proportion to what you are losing in it. The mock paper ignores your history and mirrors the shape of the whole bank. Neither is fixed \\u2014 build again and you get a fresh set of questions.'\r\n        : 'The focused set gives each chapter time in proportion to what is leaking out of it \\u2014 right now mostly <b>'+rows.join('<\/b> and <b>')+'<\/b>. The mock paper mirrors the exam weight across both banks, and the PYQ paper drills nothing but real papers. None of them is fixed: press again for a fresh set, and last time\\u2019s questions are pushed to the back of the queue.')\r\n    + '<\/p><\/div><div class=\"pbtns\">'\r\n    + '<button class=\"pbtn primary\" id=\"btnFocus\">\ud83e\udde9 Focused set \u2014 '+Math.min(CFG.sessionSize,QS.length)+' Q<\/button>'\r\n    + '<button class=\"pbtn\" id=\"btnMock\">\ud83d\udcc4 Mock paper \u2014 '+Math.min(CFG.mockSize,QS.length)+' Q<\/button>'\r\n    + (PYQ.length ? '<button class=\"pbtn navy\" id=\"btnPyq\">\ud83d\udcdc PYQ paper \u2014 '+Math.min(CFG.pyqSize,PYQ.length)+' Q<\/button>' : '')\r\n    + '<\/div><\/div>';\r\n}\r\nfunction renderRecos(byPriority, rows, due){\r\n  const out=[], named=new Set();\r\n  byPriority.slice(0,3).forEach(r=>{\r\n    if(!r.count) return;\r\n    named.add(r.chapter);\r\n    const imp = WT ? '<b>'+pctLabel(r.weight)+'<\/b> of the exam ('+r.pyq.count+' PYQ'+(r.pyq.count===1?'':'s')+')' : '';\r\n    if(r.acc===null)\r\n      out.push({ic:'warm',icon:'\ud83e\udded',txt:'<b>'+chBrief(r.chapter)+'<\/b>'+(imp?' is '+imp+' and':'')+' you have not touched it yet \u2014 start here.',ch:r.chapter});\r\n    else if(r.acc<0.6)\r\n      out.push({ic:'hot',icon:'\ud83d\udd25',txt:'<b>'+chBrief(r.chapter)+'<\/b>'+(imp?', '+imp+',':'')+' is running at only <b>'+Math.round(r.acc*100)+'%<\/b> \u2014 about <b>'+(r.leak*100).toFixed(1)+' '+T.leakWord+' per 100<\/b> are going here.',ch:r.chapter});\r\n    else if(r.coverage<0.6)\r\n      out.push({ic:'cool',icon:'\ud83d\udd0d',txt:'<b>'+chBrief(r.chapter)+'<\/b>: accuracy is fine at '+Math.round(r.acc*100)+'%, but you have seen only <b>'+Math.round(r.coverage*100)+'%<\/b> of a chapter'+(imp?' '+imp:'')+' \u2014 finish the set.',ch:r.chapter});\r\n    else\r\n      out.push({ic:'good',icon:'\u2705',txt:'<b>'+chBrief(r.chapter)+'<\/b>'+(imp?' ('+stripHtml(imp)+')':'')+' is in good shape at '+Math.round(r.acc*100)+'% \u2014 keep it warm through the revision queue.',ch:r.chapter});\r\n  });\r\n\r\n  \/\/ a format gap costs you in every chapter at once\r\n  const f = formatRows().filter(r=>r.acc!==null && r.attempts>=8).sort((a,b)=>a.acc-b.acc);\r\n  if(f.length>=2){\r\n    const worst=f[0], best=f[f.length-1];\r\n    if(best.acc-worst.acc >= 0.12){\r\n      const tail = worst.kind==='shape'\r\n        ? 'That is a reading habit, not a gap in the rules \u2014 and it costs you in every chapter at once.'\r\n        : 'That is recall, not comprehension \u2014 these have to be committed to memory, and they turn up everywhere.';\r\n      out.push({ic:'hot',icon:'\ud83e\udde9',txt:'<b>'+worst.label+'<\/b> questions are running at <b>'+Math.round(worst.acc*100)+'%<\/b> while you sit at '+Math.round(best.acc*100)+'% on '+best.label.toLowerCase()+'. '+tail});\r\n    }\r\n  }\r\n  \/\/ big chapter you have exhausted\r\n  const done = rows.filter(r=>!named.has(r.chapter) && r.weight>=0.08 && r.coverage>=0.9 && r.count>0).sort((a,b)=>b.weight-a.weight)[0];\r\n  if(done) out.push({ic:'warm',icon:'\ud83d\udcd8',txt:'You have worked nearly every question in <b>'+chBrief(done.chapter)+'<\/b>'+(WT?', '+pctLabel(done.weight)+' of the exam':'')+'. Practice has given what it can \u2014 go back to the source text for the rest.',ch:done.chapter});\r\n\r\n  \/\/ a chapter drilled hard that the paper has never actually asked from\r\n  if(WT && W.untested.length){\r\n    const worked = W.untested.map(c=>rows.find(r=>r.chapter===c)).filter(r=>r&&r.coverage>0.5)\r\n                    .sort((a,b)=>b.con.count-a.con.count)[0];\r\n    if(worked) out.push({ic:'cool',icon:'\u2696\ufe0f',txt:'<b>'+chBrief(worked.chapter)+'<\/b> has <b>no previous year questions<\/b> at all, and you are already '+Math.round(worked.coverage*100)+'% through its concept MCQs. Worth knowing before you spend another evening on it.',ch:worked.chapter});\r\n  }\r\n  \/\/ heavy on the paper, thin on practice material\r\n  const thin = rows.filter(r=>r.weight>=0.10 && r.con.count>0 && r.con.count < r.pyq.count)\r\n                   .sort((a,b)=>b.weight-a.weight)[0];\r\n  if(WT && thin) out.push({ic:'warm',icon:'\ud83d\udcda',txt:'<b>'+chBrief(thin.chapter)+'<\/b> is <b>'+pctLabel(thin.weight)+'<\/b> of the exam but has only '+thin.con.count+' concept MCQ'+(thin.con.count===1?'':'s')+' against '+thin.pyq.count+' PYQs. The bank is thin exactly where the paper is heavy.',ch:thin.chapter});\r\n  if(weak.size>=3) out.push({ic:'hot',icon:'\u26a0\ufe0f',txt:'You have <b>'+weak.size+' weak questions<\/b> flagged, biggest chapter first. One Weak-areas sitting clears the backlog.',weak:true});\r\n  if(due.length) out.push({ic:'warm',icon:'\ud83d\udd01',txt:'<b>'+due.length+' questions<\/b> you had mastered have decayed below <b>'+Math.round(CFG.retention.riskBelow*100)+'% recall<\/b>. Re-answering one costs seconds; re-learning it later costs an evening.'});\r\n  if(flags.size) out.push({ic:'cool',icon:'\ud83d\udd16',txt:'<b>'+flags.size+'<\/b> question'+(flags.size>1?'s are':' is')+' flagged for review. Clear the flags before the next mock.',flag:true});\r\n\r\n  $('recoList').innerHTML = out.map(r=>{\r\n    let btn='';\r\n    if(r.ch)        btn='<button class=\"go\" data-goch=\"'+encodeURIComponent(r.ch)+'\">Practice \u2192<\/button>';\r\n    else if(r.weak) btn='<button class=\"go\" data-goweak=\"1\">Start \u2192<\/button>';\r\n    else if(r.flag) btn='<button class=\"go\" data-goflag=\"1\">Open \u2192<\/button>';\r\n    return '<div class=\"reco\"><span class=\"ic '+r.ic+'\">'+r.icon+'<\/span><p>'+r.txt+'<\/p>'+btn+'<\/div>';\r\n  }).join('');\r\n}\r\nfunction renderLeaks(rows){\r\n  const list = rows.filter(r=>r.count>0).sort((a,b)=>b.leak-a.leak);\r\n  if(!list.length) return;\r\n  const max = Math.max(0.0001, ...list.map(r=>r.leak));\r\n  const total = list.reduce((a,r)=>a+r.leak,0)*100;\r\n  const top3 = list.slice(0,3);\r\n  $('leakNote').innerHTML = 'On today\\u2019s form you would expect to drop about <b>'+Math.round(total)+' '+T.leakWord+' in every 100<\/b>. <b>'\r\n    + top3.map(r=>chShort(r.chapter)).join(', ')+'<\/b> alone account for <b>'+Math.round(top3.reduce((a,r)=>a+r.leak,0)*100)\r\n    + '<\/b> of them \u2014 the shortest route to a better score.';\r\n  $('leakBars').innerHTML = list.map(r=>{\r\n    const m=r.leak*100;\r\n    const col = m>=8?'linear-gradient(90deg,#F08A92,var(--bad))' : m>=4?'linear-gradient(90deg,var(--gold-lt),var(--gold))' : 'linear-gradient(90deg,#9DB6EE,var(--blue-700))';\r\n    return '<div class=\"lrow\"><div><span class=\"lname\" title=\"'+r.chapter+'\">'+chBrief(r.chapter)+'<\/span>'\r\n      + '<span class=\"lsub\">'+(WT?pctLabel(r.weight)+' of the exam \u00b7 ':'')+'you would clear about '+Math.round(r.expected*100)+'% today<\/span><\/div>'\r\n      + '<div class=\"ltrack\"><div class=\"lfill\" style=\"width:'+(r.leak\/max*100)+'%;background:'+col+'\"><\/div><\/div>'\r\n      + '<div class=\"lval\">'+m.toFixed(1)+'<small>'+T.leakUnit+'<\/small><\/div><\/div>';\r\n  }).join('');\r\n}\r\nfunction renderFormats(){\r\n  const rows=formatRows();\r\n  const bar = r => {\r\n    const p = r.acc===null?null:Math.round(r.acc*100);\r\n    const col = p===null?'#CBD5E1' : p<50?'linear-gradient(90deg,#F08A92,var(--bad))' : p<70?'linear-gradient(90deg,var(--gold-lt),var(--gold))' : 'linear-gradient(90deg,#6EE7B7,var(--ok))';\r\n    return '<div class=\"lrow\"><div><span class=\"lname\">'+r.label+'<\/span>'\r\n      + '<span class=\"lsub\">'+r.total+' in this bank \u00b7 '+r.seen+' attempted<\/span><\/div>'\r\n      + '<div class=\"ltrack\"><div class=\"lfill\" style=\"width:'+(p===null?0:p)+'%;background:'+col+'\"><\/div><\/div>'\r\n      + '<div class=\"lval\">'+(p===null?'\u2014':p+'%')+'<small>accuracy<\/small><\/div><\/div>';\r\n  };\r\n  const sorter=(a,b)=>(a.acc===null)-(b.acc===null)||(a.acc-b.acc);\r\n  $('shapeBars').innerHTML = rows.filter(r=>r.kind==='shape').sort(sorter).map(bar).join('');\r\n  $('traitBars').innerHTML = rows.filter(r=>r.kind==='trait').sort(sorter).map(bar).join('');\r\n  const rated = rows.filter(r=>r.acc!==null && r.attempts>=8).sort(sorter);\r\n  $('fmtNote').innerHTML = rated.length>=2\r\n    ? (()=>{ const w=rated[0], b=rated[rated.length-1], gap=Math.round((b.acc-w.acc)*100);\r\n        return gap>=12\r\n          ? 'Your weakest kind of question is <b>'+w.label+'<\/b> at <b>'+Math.round(w.acc*100)+'%<\/b>, against <b>'+Math.round(b.acc*100)+'%<\/b> on '+b.label.toLowerCase()+' \u2014 a <b>'+gap+'-point<\/b> gap. That is worth more than any single chapter, because these turn up in all of them.'\r\n          : 'You handle the different kinds of question evenly, within <b>'+gap+' points<\/b> of each other. Nothing to fix here \u2014 keep working the chapter list.'; })()\r\n    : 'Attempt a few more and this will show whether the format is costing you more than the topic.';\r\n}\r\nfunction renderRevision(due){\r\n  $('revQ').innerHTML = due.length\r\n    ? due.slice(0,8).map(d=>'<button class=\"rev\" data-gouid=\"'+encodeURIComponent(uid(d.q))+'\">'\r\n        + '<span class=\"n\">Q'+d.q.id+'<\/span><span class=\"t\">'+preview(d.q,58)+'<\/span>'\r\n        + '<span class=\"d\">'+Math.round(d.recall*100)+'% recall<\/span><\/button>').join('')\r\n    : '<p style=\"font-size:13px;color:var(--slate);line-height:1.6\">Nothing decaying right now. Mastered questions return here as their estimated recall drops below '+Math.round(CFG.retention.riskBelow*100)+'%.<\/p>';\r\n}\r\nfunction renderMastery(){\r\n  const b=[0,0,0,0];\r\n  QS.forEach(q=>{ const s=P.stats[uid(q)];\r\n    if(!s || (s.correct+s.incorrect)===0) b[0]++;\r\n    else if(s.correct>=CFG.masteryThreshold) b[3]++;\r\n    else if(s.correct>=2) b[2]++;\r\n    else b[1]++; });\r\n  const labels=['Untouched','Learning (0\u20131 \u2713)','Almost there (2 \u2713)','Mastered ('+CFG.masteryThreshold+' \u2713+)'];\r\n  const cols=['#CBD5E1','var(--gold)','var(--blue-700)','var(--ok)'];\r\n  $('mastDist').innerHTML = b.map((n,i)=>\r\n    '<div class=\"lrow\" style=\"grid-template-columns:minmax(120px,1fr) 2fr 54px\"><span class=\"lname\">'+labels[i]+'<\/span>'\r\n    + '<div class=\"ltrack\"><div class=\"lfill\" style=\"width:'+(QS.length?n\/QS.length*100:0)+'%;background:'+cols[i]+'\"><\/div><\/div>'\r\n    + '<div class=\"lval\" style=\"font-size:15px\">'+n+'<\/div><\/div>').join('');\r\n}\r\nfunction bindPerf(){\r\n  const f=$('btnFocus'), m=$('btnMock'), y=$('btnPyq'), w=$('btnWipe');\r\n  if(f) f.onclick=()=>startSession('focus');\r\n  if(m) m.onclick=()=>startSession('mock');\r\n  if(y) y.onclick=()=>startSession('pyq');\r\n  if(w) w.onclick=wipe;\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   15b. EXAM ANALYTICS  \u2014  what the paper has actually asked\r\n   Everything here is counted from the PYQ bank's year field. Nothing is\r\n   estimated, so the tab hides itself when no years are recorded.\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nconst YEAR_ORDER = y => { const m=String(y).match(\/\\d{4}\/); return m ? +m[0] : 9999; };\r\nfunction examData(){\r\n  const years=[...new Set(PYQ.map(q=>q.year).filter(y=>y!==undefined && y!==null && y!==''))]\r\n              .sort((a,b)=>YEAR_ORDER(a)-YEAR_ORDER(b) || String(a).localeCompare(String(b)));\r\n  const rows = CHAPTERS.map(c=>{\r\n    const qs=inChB(c,'pyq'), byYear={};\r\n    years.forEach(y=>byYear[y]=0);\r\n    qs.forEach(q=>{ if(byYear[q.year]!==undefined) byYear[q.year]++; });\r\n    return { chapter:c, total:qs.length, byYear,\r\n             share: PYQ.length?qs.length\/PYQ.length:0 };\r\n  }).filter(r=>r.total>0).sort((a,b)=>b.total-a.total);\r\n  const perYear={}; years.forEach(y=>perYear[y]=PYQ.filter(q=>q.year===y).length);\r\n  return {years, rows, perYear, total:PYQ.length};\r\n}\r\nfunction renderExam(){\r\n  const d = examData(), body=$('examBody');\r\n  $('examCount').textContent = PYQ.length+' previous year questions';\r\n  if(!PYQ.length){ body.innerHTML='<div class=\"empty\"><b>No previous year questions loaded<\/b>Paste them into <code>pyqQuestions<\/code>, each with its year.<\/div>'; return; }\r\n\r\n  const hi = CFG.highYield, maxTot = Math.max(...d.rows.map(r=>r.total), 1);\r\n  const maxCell = Math.max(1, ...d.rows.map(r=>Math.max(...Object.values(r.byYear))));\r\n  const shade = n => { if(!n) return '';\r\n    const t=n\/maxCell;\r\n    return 'background:'+(t>0.8?'#D99B12':t>0.6?'#E8B44A':t>0.4?'#F2D28C':t>0.2?'#F9E9C4':'#FDF6E6')\r\n         + ';color:'+(t>0.6?'#3A2A02':'#8A6206')+';font-weight:800';\r\n  };\r\n  const maxYear = Math.max(...Object.values(d.perYear), 1);\r\n  const heavy = d.rows.filter(r=>r.total>=hi);\r\n  const heavyShare = heavy.reduce((a,r)=>a+r.share,0);\r\n  const spread = d.rows.filter(r=>Object.values(r.byYear).filter(Boolean).length >= Math.ceil(d.years.length*0.6));\r\n\r\n  body.innerHTML =\r\n  \/\/ ---------- 01 ranked ----------\r\n  '<section class=\"pblock\"><div class=\"pbh\"><div class=\"txt\">'\r\n    + '<h4><span class=\"secno\">01<\/span>Ranked \u2014 previous year questions per chapter<\/h4>'\r\n    + '<p>'+(heavy.length\r\n        ? '<b>'+heavy.length+' chapter'+(heavy.length===1?'':'s')+'<\/b> carry '+hi+' questions or more and together hold <b>'\r\n          + Math.round(heavyShare*100)+'%<\/b> of every paper on record. They are shown in gold.'\r\n        : 'No chapter has reached '+hi+' questions yet, so nothing is marked high-yield.')+'<\/p><\/div>'\r\n    + '<span class=\"sechint\">gold = high-yield ('+hi+'+ Qs)<\/span><\/div>'\r\n    + '<div class=\"bars\">'\r\n    + d.rows.map((r,i)=>{\r\n        const gold = r.total>=hi;\r\n        return '<div class=\"rankrow\"><span class=\"rk\">'+(i+1)+'<\/span>'\r\n          + '<span class=\"rname'+(gold?' gold':'')+'\" title=\"'+r.chapter+'\">'+titleCase(r.chapter)+'<\/span>'\r\n          + '<div class=\"rtrack\"><i style=\"width:'+(r.total\/maxTot*100)+'%;background:'\r\n            + (gold?'linear-gradient(90deg,var(--gold-lt),#D99B12)':'linear-gradient(90deg,#93B4F7,var(--blue-700))')+'\"><\/i><\/div>'\r\n          + '<span class=\"rv\">'+r.total+'<\/span><span class=\"rp\">'+(r.share*100).toFixed(1)+'%<\/span><\/div>';\r\n      }).join('')\r\n    + '<\/div><\/section>'\r\n\r\n  \/\/ ---------- 02 heatmap ----------\r\n  + '<section class=\"pblock\"><div class=\"pbh\"><div class=\"txt\">'\r\n    + '<h4><span class=\"secno\">02<\/span>Heatmap matrix \u2014 chapter \\u00d7 exam year<\/h4>'\r\n    + '<p>'+(spread.length\r\n        ? '<b>'+spread.map(r=>chShort(r.chapter)).slice(0,3).join(', ')+'<\/b> appear in most papers on record \u2014 those are the standing favourites, not one-off spikes.'\r\n        : 'Read down a column to see what a single paper favoured; read across a row to see whether a chapter is a regular or a one-off.')+'<\/p><\/div>'\r\n    + '<span class=\"sechint\">darker gold = more questions<\/span><\/div>'\r\n    + '<div class=\"tblwrap\" style=\"border:0;border-radius:0\"><table class=\"perf-t hm\"><thead><tr>'\r\n    + '<th class=\"lft\">Chapter<\/th>'+d.years.map(y=>'<th>'+y+'<\/th>').join('')+'<th class=\"tot\">Total<\/th>'\r\n    + '<\/tr><\/thead><tbody>'\r\n    + d.rows.map(r=>'<tr><td class=\"lft\" title=\"'+r.chapter+'\">'+titleCase(r.chapter)+'<\/td>'\r\n        + d.years.map(y=>{ const n=r.byYear[y];\r\n            return '<td style=\"'+shade(n)+'\">'+(n||'<span class=\"nil\">\\u00b7<\/span>')+'<\/td>'; }).join('')\r\n        + '<td class=\"tot\">'+r.total+'<\/td><\/tr>').join('')\r\n    + '<\/tbody><tfoot><tr><td class=\"lft\">Total<\/td>'\r\n    + d.years.map(y=>'<td>'+d.perYear[y]+'<\/td>').join('')+'<td>'+d.total+'<\/td><\/tr><\/tfoot><\/table><\/div>'\r\n    + '<div class=\"hmlegend\"><span>Low<\/span>'\r\n    + ['#FDF6E6','#F9E9C4','#F2D28C','#E8B44A','#D99B12'].map(c=>'<i style=\"background:'+c+'\"><\/i>').join('')\r\n    + '<span>High<\/span><\/div><\/section>'\r\n\r\n  \/\/ ---------- 03 per cycle ----------\r\n  + '<section class=\"pblock\"><div class=\"pbh\"><div class=\"txt\">'\r\n    + '<h4><span class=\"secno\">03<\/span>Questions per exam cycle<\/h4>'\r\n    + '<p>How many questions each paper on record contributed. A short bar usually means a partly recovered paper rather than a shorter exam \\u2014 worth knowing before you read too much into that year\\u2019s pattern.<\/p><\/div>'\r\n    + '<span class=\"sechint\">'+d.years.length+' cycles \\u00b7 '+d.total+' questions<\/span><\/div>'\r\n    + '<div class=\"cyc\">'\r\n    + d.years.map(y=>{ const n=d.perYear[y];\r\n        return '<div class=\"cycbar\"><span class=\"cn\">'+n+'<\/span>'\r\n          + '<div class=\"cbar\" style=\"height:'+Math.max(n\/maxYear*140,6)+'px\"><\/div>'\r\n          + '<span class=\"cy\">'+y+'<\/span><\/div>'; }).join('')\r\n    + '<\/div><\/section>'\r\n\r\n  \/\/ ---------- 04 what this means for you ----------\r\n  + '<section class=\"pblock\"><div class=\"pbh\"><div class=\"txt\">'\r\n    + '<h4><span class=\"secno\">04<\/span>What this means for your revision<\/h4>'\r\n    + '<p>The same counts, read against how you are actually performing.<\/p><\/div><\/div>'\r\n    + '<div class=\"bars\" id=\"examReco\"><\/div><\/section>';\r\n\r\n  \/\/ recommendations tie the counts back to the learner's own record\r\n  const perf = chapterRows();\r\n  const out=[];\r\n  d.rows.slice(0,3).forEach(r=>{\r\n    const p = perf.find(x=>x.chapter===r.chapter);\r\n    const acc = p && p.acc!==null ? Math.round(p.acc*100) : null;\r\n    out.push({ic: acc===null?'warm':acc<60?'hot':'good', icon: acc===null?'\\ud83e\\udded':acc<60?'\\ud83d\\udd25':'\\u2705',\r\n      txt:'<b>'+chBrief(r.chapter)+'<\/b> has produced <b>'+r.total+' questions<\/b> across '\r\n        + Object.values(r.byYear).filter(Boolean).length+' of '+d.years.length+' papers'\r\n        + (acc===null ? ' and you have not attempted it yet.' : ' and you are at <b>'+acc+'%<\/b> on it.'),\r\n      ch:r.chapter});\r\n  });\r\n  const recent = d.years.slice(-3);\r\n  const rising = d.rows.map(r=>{\r\n    const late = recent.reduce((a,y)=>a+(r.byYear[y]||0),0);\r\n    const early = d.years.slice(0,-3).reduce((a,y)=>a+(r.byYear[y]||0),0);\r\n    return {r, late, early, rate: late\/Math.max(recent.length,1)};\r\n  }).filter(x=>x.late>=2 && x.rate > (x.early\/Math.max(d.years.length-3,1))*1.5)\r\n    .sort((a,b)=>b.late-a.late)[0];\r\n  if(rising) out.push({ic:'warm',icon:'\\ud83d\\udcc8',\r\n    txt:'<b>'+chBrief(rising.r.chapter)+'<\/b> has been asked <b>'+rising.late+' times in the last '+recent.length\r\n      + ' papers<\/b>, well above its own earlier rate. Recent papers are the better guide to the next one.',ch:rising.r.chapter});\r\n  const silent = CHAPTERS.filter(c=>inChB(c,'pyq').length===0 && inChB(c,'concept').length>0);\r\n  if(silent.length) out.push({ic:'cool',icon:'\\ud83d\\udd07',\r\n    txt:'<b>'+silent.length+' chapter'+(silent.length===1?' has':'s have')+' never been asked<\/b> in the papers on record \\u2014 '\r\n      + silent.slice(0,3).map(chBrief).join(', ')+(silent.length>3?' and others':'')\r\n      + '. They still carry concept MCQs, so decide deliberately how much time they deserve.'});\r\n  $('examReco').innerHTML = out.map(r=>\r\n    '<div class=\"reco\"><span class=\"ic '+r.ic+'\">'+r.icon+'<\/span><p>'+r.txt+'<\/p>'\r\n    + (r.ch?'<button class=\"go\" data-goch=\"'+encodeURIComponent(r.ch)+'\" data-bank=\"pyq\">Drill PYQs \\u2192<\/button>':'')+'<\/div>').join('');\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   16. ANSWERING\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nfunction check(){\r\n  const p=pool(), q=p[S.i]; if(!q) return;\r\n  if(S.pick==null){ S.nudge=true; render(); return; }\r\n  const u=uid(q), ok = S.pick===q.correct;\r\n  S.ans[u]=S.pick; S.pick=null; S.nudge=false;\r\n  const s=stat(u);\r\n  ok ? s.correct++ : s.incorrect++;\r\n  s.last=Date.now(); s.lastOk=ok;\r\n  P.log.push({u, ok, ts:Date.now()});\r\n  P.lastUid=u;\r\n  refreshWeak(); save(); render();\r\n  const res=$('result'); if(res && res.scrollIntoView) try{ res.scrollIntoView({block:'nearest',behavior:'smooth'}); }catch(e){}\r\n}\r\nfunction wipe(){\r\n  if(!confirm('Permanently erase ALL lifetime performance for this subject?\\n\\nMastery, weak areas, flags, accuracy history, the built session and the readiness score all go. This cannot be undone.')) return;\r\n  P = blank(); flags.clear(); weak.clear(); S.ans={};\r\n  save(); setFilter('all'); renderPerf(); hdr();\r\n  toast('Lifetime performance erased', true);\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   18. EVENTS\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nfunction setTab(t){\r\n  S.tab=t;\r\n  document.querySelectorAll('#cdRoot .tab').forEach(b=>b.setAttribute('aria-selected', b.dataset.tab===t));\r\n  $('viewQuiz').classList.toggle('hide', t!=='quiz');\r\n  $('viewPerf').classList.toggle('hide', t!=='perf');\r\n  $('viewExam').classList.toggle('hide', t!=='exam');\r\n  $('cdFilters').classList.toggle('hide', t!=='quiz');\r\n  if(t==='perf') renderPerf();\r\n  if(t==='exam') renderExam();\r\n}\r\nfunction setFilter(f, ch){\r\n  S.filter=f; S.i=0; S.pick=null;\r\n  if(ch) S.chapter=ch;\r\n  document.querySelectorAll('#cdRoot .pill-f').forEach(b=>b.setAttribute('aria-pressed', b.dataset.f===f));\r\n  render();\r\n}\r\ndocument.querySelectorAll('#cdRoot .tab').forEach(b=>b.onclick=()=>setTab(b.dataset.tab));\r\ndocument.querySelectorAll('#cdRoot .pill-f').forEach(b=>b.onclick=()=>setFilter(b.dataset.f));\r\n$('chapList').addEventListener('click', e=>{\r\n  const chip=e.target.closest('.chapchip'); if(!chip) return;\r\n  S.chapter = decodeURIComponent(chip.dataset.ch);\r\n  S.i=0; S.pick=null; render();\r\n});\r\n$('btnCheck').onclick = check;\r\n$('btnNext').onclick  = ()=>{ S.i++; S.pick=null; render(); };\r\n$('btnPrev').onclick  = ()=>{ S.i--; S.pick=null; render(); };\r\n$('btnFlag').onclick  = ()=>{\r\n  const p=pool(), q=p[S.i]; if(!q) return;\r\n  const u=uid(q);\r\n  flags.has(u) ? flags.delete(u) : flags.add(u);\r\n  P.flags=[...flags]; save(); render();\r\n};\r\n$('navToggle').onclick = ()=>{ navOpen=!navOpen; renderNav(pool()); };\r\nlet tmr;\r\n$('cdSearch').addEventListener('input', e=>{\r\n  clearTimeout(tmr);\r\n  tmr=setTimeout(()=>{ S.query=e.target.value.trim(); S.i=0; S.pick=null; render(); },220);\r\n});\r\n$('tglUn').onclick = e=>{\r\n  S.unattempted=!S.unattempted;\r\n  e.currentTarget.setAttribute('aria-pressed',S.unattempted);\r\n  e.currentTarget.firstChild.textContent = S.unattempted?'\u2611 ':'\u25fb ';\r\n  S.i=0; S.pick=null; render();\r\n};\r\n$('tglReset').onclick = ()=>{\r\n  if(!Object.keys(S.ans).length) return;\r\n  if(!confirm('Reset this sitting? Only the answers on screen are cleared \u2014 your lifetime performance and mastery are kept.')) return;\r\n  S.ans={}; S.i=0; S.pick=null; render();\r\n  toast('Session reset \u2014 performance data kept', true);\r\n};\r\n\r\n\/* performance-tab jumps + AI chips, delegated *\/\r\ndocument.addEventListener('click', e=>{\r\n  if(!e.target.closest('#cdRoot')) return;\r\n  const goch=e.target.closest('[data-goch]');\r\n  if(goch){\r\n    S.bank = goch.dataset.bank || 'all';\r\n    setTab('quiz'); setFilter('chapter', decodeURIComponent(goch.dataset.goch));\r\n    toast('Filtered to '+chShort(S.chapter)+(S.bank==='pyq'?' \u2014 PYQs':S.bank==='concept'?' \u2014 concept MCQs':''), true);\r\n    return;\r\n  }\r\n  const bseg=e.target.closest('.bankseg button');\r\n  if(bseg){ S.bank=bseg.dataset.bank; S.i=0; S.pick=null; render(); return; }\r\n  if(e.target.closest('[data-goweak]')){ setTab('quiz'); setFilter('weak'); return; }\r\n  if(e.target.closest('[data-goflag]')){ setTab('quiz'); setFilter('flagged'); return; }\r\n  const gu=e.target.closest('[data-gouid]');\r\n  if(gu){\r\n    const u=decodeURIComponent(gu.dataset.gouid);\r\n    setTab('quiz'); setFilter('all');\r\n    const idx=pool().findIndex(q=>uid(q)===u);\r\n    if(idx>=0){ S.i=idx; render(); }\r\n    return;\r\n  }\r\n});\r\n\/* keyboard, scoped to the widget *\/\r\ndocument.addEventListener('keydown', e=>{\r\n  if(S.tab!=='quiz') return;\r\n  const t=e.target;\r\n  if(t && (\/^(INPUT|TEXTAREA|SELECT)$\/.test(t.tagName) || t.isContentEditable)) return;\r\n  if(e.ctrlKey||e.metaKey||e.altKey) return;\r\n  const p=pool(); if(!p.length) return;\r\n  const q=p[S.i];\r\n  if(\/^[1-9]$\/.test(e.key)){\r\n    const k=+e.key-1;\r\n    if(q && S.ans[uid(q)]==null && k<q.options.length){ e.preventDefault(); S.pick=k; S.nudge=false; render(); }\r\n    return;\r\n  }\r\n  const low=e.key.toLowerCase();\r\n  if(\/^[a-f]$\/.test(low)){\r\n    const k=low.charCodeAt(0)-97;\r\n    if(q && S.ans[uid(q)]==null && k<q.options.length){ e.preventDefault(); S.pick=k; S.nudge=false; render(); }\r\n    return;\r\n  }\r\n  if(e.key==='Enter'){ e.preventDefault();\r\n    if(q && S.ans[uid(q)]==null) check();\r\n    else if(S.i<p.length-1){ S.i++; S.pick=null; render(); }\r\n    return; }\r\n  if(e.key==='ArrowRight'){ e.preventDefault(); S.i++; S.pick=null; render(); return; }\r\n  if(e.key==='ArrowLeft'){ e.preventDefault(); S.i--; S.pick=null; render(); return; }\r\n  if(low==='f'){ e.preventDefault(); $('btnFlag').click(); }\r\n});\r\nwindow.addEventListener('beforeunload', save);\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   19. BOOT\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\n$('cdEyebrow').textContent = 'CSS ADDA \u00b7 PromotionExams.com' + (CFG.eyebrow ? '  \u00b7  '+CFG.eyebrow : '');\r\n$('cdTopic').textContent   = CFG.topic;\r\n$('cdSub').textContent     = CFG.sub;\r\n$('wHead').textContent     = T.onScreen;\r\n$('wUnit').textContent     = WT ? 'importance' : 'of this bank';\r\n$('chapHint').textContent  = WT ? '\u2014 gold pill shows the importance you set' : '';\r\nif(PYQ.length) $('tabExam').classList.remove('hide');\r\nif(SRC_ON){\r\n  $('srcCard').classList.remove('hide');\r\n  $('srcLink').href = CFG.sourceUrl;\r\n}\r\nif(WT) console.info('[weight] counted from '+W.totalPyq+' previous year questions across '+CHAPTERS.length+' chapters.');\r\nelse   console.info('[weight] no PYQs loaded \u2014 chapters are ranked by their share of the concept bank, and nothing is called exam weight.');\r\nif(W.untested.length) console.info('[weight] no PYQs recorded for: '+W.untested.join(' | '));\r\nsetTab('quiz');\r\ntry{ render(); }catch(err){ console.error('render failed', err); }\r\n\r\n\/* =====================================================================\r\n   20. CONTENT PROTECTION\r\n   Honest about what this can and cannot do.\r\n\r\n   REALLY BLOCKED\r\n     copy, cut, right-click, drag-out, text selection, Ctrl\/Cmd+C, X, S,\r\n     P, U, and printing or \"Save as PDF\" from the browser.\r\n\r\n   DETERRED, NOT BLOCKED\r\n     screenshots. No web page can stop the operating system taking one \u2014\r\n     Print Screen, Snipping Tool, macOS Shift-Cmd-4 and every phone all\r\n     work below the browser. What is done instead: the questions blur the\r\n     moment this window stops being the front window, which defeats the\r\n     common \"screenshot with another app\" and casual screen-share cases,\r\n     and Print Screen is caught where the browser reports it and the\r\n     clipboard is overwritten.\r\n\r\n   NOT BLOCKED AT ALL\r\n     View Source, Save Page, DevTools, or Reader Mode. Every question is\r\n     in the page HTML because that is how the widget runs. Anyone willing\r\n     to open the source can read the bank. Serving questions from a\r\n     licence-checked endpoint is the only real fix for that; this layer\r\n     stops casual copying, which is what it is for.\r\n   ===================================================================== *\/\r\nconst PROTECT = {\r\n  selection : true,   \/\/ block selecting, copying, cutting, dragging\r\n  context   : true,   \/\/ block right-click inside the widget\r\n  keys      : true,   \/\/ block Ctrl\/Cmd + C X S P U\r\n  print     : true,   \/\/ swap the paper for a notice when printing\r\n  veil      : true    \/\/ blur the questions when the window loses focus\r\n};\r\n\r\n(function protectContent(){\r\n  const root = $('cdRoot');\r\n  const stop = (e, msg) => { e.preventDefault(); e.stopPropagation(); if(msg) toast(msg); return false; };\r\n\r\n  if(PROTECT.selection){\r\n    ['copy','cut'].forEach(ev => root.addEventListener(ev, e=>{\r\n      if(e.target && \/^(INPUT|TEXTAREA)$\/.test(e.target.tagName)) return;   \/\/ let the search box work\r\n      stop(e,'This content cannot be copied');\r\n    }));\r\n    root.addEventListener('dragstart', e=>stop(e));\r\n    root.addEventListener('selectstart', e=>{\r\n      if(e.target && \/^(INPUT|TEXTAREA)$\/.test(e.target.tagName)) return;\r\n      e.preventDefault();\r\n    });\r\n  }\r\n\r\n  if(PROTECT.context)\r\n    root.addEventListener('contextmenu', e=>stop(e,'Right-click is disabled here'));\r\n\r\n  if(PROTECT.keys){\r\n    document.addEventListener('keydown', e=>{\r\n      const t=e.target;\r\n      const inField = t && (\/^(INPUT|TEXTAREA)$\/.test(t.tagName) || t.isContentEditable);\r\n      const k=(e.key||'').toLowerCase();\r\n      if((e.ctrlKey||e.metaKey) && ['c','x','s','p','u'].includes(k)){\r\n        if(inField && (k==='c'||k==='x')) return;    \/\/ copying inside the search box is harmless\r\n        return stop(e, k==='p' ? 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