{"id":13049,"date":"2026-07-05T08:33:58","date_gmt":"2026-07-05T08:33:58","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/promotionexams.com\/?page_id=13049"},"modified":"2026-07-05T08:53:44","modified_gmt":"2026-07-05T08:53:44","slug":"chapterwise-mcqs-manual-of-goods","status":"publish","type":"page","link":"https:\/\/promotionexams.com\/?page_id=13049","title":{"rendered":"Chapterwise MCQs- Manual of goods"},"content":{"rendered":"\t\t<div data-elementor-type=\"wp-page\" data-elementor-id=\"13049\" class=\"elementor elementor-13049\">\n\t\t\t\t<div class=\"elementor-element elementor-element-966b542 e-con-full e-flex e-con e-parent\" data-id=\"966b542\" data-element_type=\"container\" data-e-type=\"container\">\n\t\t\t\t<div class=\"elementor-element elementor-element-494f466 elementor-widget elementor-widget-html\" data-id=\"494f466\" data-element_type=\"widget\" data-e-type=\"widget\" data-widget_type=\"html.default\">\n\t\t\t\t\t<!--\r\n============================================\r\nCSS ADDA - LDCE QUIZ WITH PROGRESS TRACKING\r\n& SMART WEAK AREAS PRACTICE SYSTEM\r\n============================================\r\nMODIFIED: Year filter removed\r\n============================================\r\n-->\r\n\r\n<link rel=\"preconnect\" href=\"https:\/\/fonts.googleapis.com\">\r\n<link rel=\"preconnect\" href=\"https:\/\/fonts.gstatic.com\" crossorigin>\r\n\r\n<link rel=\"stylesheet\" href=\"https:\/\/cdnjs.cloudflare.com\/ajax\/libs\/font-awesome\/6.4.0\/css\/all.min.css\">\r\n\r\n<style>\r\n\/* ========================================\r\n   CSS ADDA - ENHANCED QUIZ STYLES\r\n======================================== *\/\r\n\r\n:root {\r\n    --primary-blue: #2563EB;\r\n    --primary-blue-dark: #1D4ED8;\r\n    --primary-blue-light: #3B82F6;\r\n    --accent-orange: #ff6b35;\r\n    --accent-orange-light: #f59e0b;\r\n    --accent-orange-dark: #d97706;\r\n    --success-green: #10B981;\r\n    --success-green-light: #d1fae5;\r\n    --error-red: #EF4444;\r\n    --error-red-light: #fee2e2;\r\n    --warning-yellow: #fbbf24;\r\n    --bg-light: #F8FAFC;\r\n    --bg-card: #FFFFFF;\r\n    --text-dark: #1E293B;\r\n    --text-medium: #475569;\r\n    --text-light: #94A3B8;\r\n    --border-color: #E2E8F0;\r\n    --shadow-sm: 0 1px 2px 0 rgb(0 0 0 \/ 0.05);\r\n    --shadow-md: 0 4px 6px -1px rgb(0 0 0 \/ 0.1), 0 2px 4px -2px rgb(0 0 0 \/ 0.1);\r\n    --shadow-lg: 0 10px 15px -3px rgb(0 0 0 \/ 0.1), 0 4px 6px -4px rgb(0 0 0 \/ 0.1);\r\n    --shadow-xl: 0 20px 25px -5px rgb(0 0 0 \/ 0.1), 0 8px 10px -6px rgb(0 0 0 \/ 0.1);\r\n    --radius-sm: 6px;\r\n    --radius-md: 10px;\r\n    --radius-lg: 14px;\r\n    --radius-xl: 20px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* Reset *\/\r\n.ldce-quiz-wrapper * {\r\n    margin: 0;\r\n    padding: 0;\r\n    box-sizing: border-box;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.ldce-quiz-wrapper {\r\n    font-family: 'Source Sans 3', -apple-system, BlinkMacSystemFont, sans-serif;\r\n    background: linear-gradient(135deg, #EFF6FF 0%, #F8FAFC 50%, #FFFBEB 100%);\r\n    color: var(--text-dark);\r\n    -webkit-user-select: none;\r\n    -moz-user-select: none;\r\n    -ms-user-select: none;\r\n    user-select: none;\r\n    border-radius: var(--radius-lg);\r\n    overflow: hidden;\r\n    box-shadow: var(--shadow-lg);\r\n}\r\n\r\n@media print {\r\n    .ldce-quiz-wrapper { display: none !important; }\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* ========================================\r\n   HEADER\r\n======================================== *\/\r\n.quiz-header {\r\n    background: linear-gradient(135deg, var(--primary-blue-dark) 0%, var(--primary-blue) 100%);\r\n    padding: 18px 24px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.header-content {\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    justify-content: space-between;\r\n    align-items: center;\r\n    flex-wrap: wrap;\r\n    gap: 15px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.topic-title {\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    align-items: center;\r\n    gap: 14px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.topic-icon {\r\n    width: 48px;\r\n    height: 48px;\r\n    background: rgba(255, 255, 255, 0.15);\r\n    border-radius: var(--radius-md);\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    align-items: center;\r\n    justify-content: center;\r\n    font-size: 20px;\r\n    color: var(--accent-orange-light);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.topic-info h1 {\r\n    font-family: 'Poppins', sans-serif;\r\n    font-size: 1.3rem;\r\n    font-weight: 700;\r\n    color: white;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.topic-info p {\r\n    font-size: 0.8rem;\r\n    color: rgba(255, 255, 255, 0.8);\r\n    margin-top: 2px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.header-stats {\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    gap: 10px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.stat-badge {\r\n    background: rgba(255, 255, 255, 0.15);\r\n    padding: 8px 14px;\r\n    border-radius: var(--radius-xl);\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    align-items: center;\r\n    gap: 8px;\r\n    color: white;\r\n    font-weight: 500;\r\n    font-size: 0.82rem;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.stat-badge i { color: var(--accent-orange-light); }\r\n.stat-badge.progress-badge { background: linear-gradient(135deg, var(--success-green) 0%, #059669 100%); }\r\n.stat-badge.weak-badge {\r\n    background: linear-gradient(135deg, var(--error-red) 0%, #dc2626 100%);\r\n    cursor: pointer;\r\n    transition: transform 0.3s;\r\n}\r\n.stat-badge.weak-badge:hover { transform: scale(1.05); }\r\n\r\n\/* ========================================\r\n   MODE SELECTOR\r\n======================================== *\/\r\n.mode-selector {\r\n    background: var(--bg-card);\r\n    padding: 14px 20px;\r\n    border-bottom: 1px solid var(--border-color);\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    align-items: center;\r\n    justify-content: space-between;\r\n    flex-wrap: wrap;\r\n    gap: 12px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.mode-tabs {\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    gap: 8px;\r\n    flex-wrap: wrap;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.mode-tab {\r\n    padding: 9px 18px;\r\n    border: 2px solid var(--border-color);\r\n    border-radius: var(--radius-md);\r\n    background: var(--bg-light);\r\n    font-family: 'Poppins', sans-serif;\r\n    font-size: 0.8rem;\r\n    font-weight: 600;\r\n    color: var(--text-medium);\r\n    cursor: pointer;\r\n    transition: all 0.3s ease;\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    align-items: center;\r\n    gap: 6px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.mode-tab:hover {\r\n    border-color: var(--primary-blue-light);\r\n    color: var(--primary-blue);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.mode-tab.active {\r\n    background: linear-gradient(135deg, var(--primary-blue) 0%, var(--primary-blue-dark) 100%);\r\n    border-color: var(--primary-blue);\r\n    color: white;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.mode-tab.weak-mode { border-color: var(--error-red); }\r\n.mode-tab.weak-mode.active {\r\n    background: linear-gradient(135deg, var(--error-red) 0%, #dc2626 100%);\r\n    border-color: var(--error-red);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.mode-tab .badge {\r\n    background: rgba(255, 255, 255, 0.3);\r\n    padding: 2px 8px;\r\n    border-radius: 20px;\r\n    font-size: 0.7rem;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.mode-tab:not(.active) .badge { background: var(--primary-blue); color: white; }\r\n.mode-tab.weak-mode:not(.active) .badge { background: var(--error-red); }\r\n\r\n.session-info {\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    align-items: center;\r\n    gap: 12px;\r\n    font-size: 0.82rem;\r\n    color: var(--text-medium);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.session-info i { color: var(--accent-orange); }\r\n\r\n.resume-btn {\r\n    padding: 7px 14px;\r\n    background: linear-gradient(135deg, var(--accent-orange) 0%, var(--accent-orange-dark) 100%);\r\n    border: none;\r\n    border-radius: var(--radius-md);\r\n    color: white;\r\n    font-family: 'Poppins', sans-serif;\r\n    font-size: 0.78rem;\r\n    font-weight: 600;\r\n    cursor: pointer;\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    align-items: center;\r\n    gap: 5px;\r\n    transition: all 0.3s ease;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.resume-btn:hover {\r\n    transform: translateY(-2px);\r\n    box-shadow: var(--shadow-md);\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* ========================================\r\n   MAIN LAYOUT - 3 COLUMN GRID\r\n======================================== *\/\r\n.quiz-container {\r\n    display: grid;\r\n    grid-template-columns: 290px 1fr 320px;\r\n    gap: 18px;\r\n    padding: 18px;\r\n    align-items: stretch;\r\n    min-height: 650px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* ========================================\r\n   UNIFIED CARD STYLES\r\n======================================== *\/\r\n.quiz-card {\r\n    background: var(--bg-card);\r\n    border-radius: var(--radius-lg);\r\n    box-shadow: var(--shadow-md);\r\n    overflow: hidden;\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    flex-direction: column;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.quiz-card-header {\r\n    background: linear-gradient(135deg, var(--primary-blue) 0%, var(--primary-blue-dark) 100%);\r\n    padding: 14px 16px;\r\n    color: white;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.quiz-card-header h3 {\r\n    font-family: 'Poppins', sans-serif;\r\n    font-size: 0.85rem;\r\n    font-weight: 600;\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    align-items: center;\r\n    gap: 8px;\r\n    color: white;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.quiz-card-header h3 i {\r\n    color: var(--accent-orange-light);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.quiz-card-header.light {\r\n    background: linear-gradient(135deg, var(--bg-light) 0%, #E0E7FF 100%);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.quiz-card-header.light h3 {\r\n    color: var(--primary-blue);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.quiz-card-header.light h3 i {\r\n    color: var(--accent-orange);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.quiz-card-body {\r\n    padding: 16px;\r\n    flex: 1;\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    flex-direction: column;\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* ========================================\r\n   LEFT SIDEBAR\r\n======================================== *\/\r\n.left-sidebar {\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    flex-direction: column;\r\n    gap: 16px;\r\n    height: 100%;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.left-sidebar .quiz-card {\r\n    flex: none;\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    flex-direction: column;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.left-sidebar .quiz-card-body {\r\n    flex: 1;\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    flex-direction: column;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.left-sidebar .filter-list {\r\n    flex: 1;\r\n    max-height: 300px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* Filter Lists *\/\r\n.filter-list {\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    flex-direction: column;\r\n    gap: 6px;\r\n    overflow-y: auto;\r\n    padding-right: 4px;\r\n    flex: 1;\r\n    max-height: 300px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.filter-list::-webkit-scrollbar { width: 4px; }\r\n.filter-list::-webkit-scrollbar-track { background: var(--bg-light); border-radius: 10px; }\r\n.filter-list::-webkit-scrollbar-thumb { background: var(--primary-blue); border-radius: 10px; }\r\n\r\n.filter-item {\r\n    padding: 10px 12px;\r\n    border-radius: var(--radius-sm);\r\n    cursor: pointer;\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    align-items: flex-start;\r\n    justify-content: space-between;\r\n    transition: all 0.3s ease;\r\n    border: 2px solid transparent;\r\n    background: var(--bg-light);\r\n    font-size: 0.82rem;\r\n    gap: 8px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.filter-item:hover {\r\n    background: #EFF6FF;\r\n    border-color: var(--primary-blue-light);\r\n    transform: translateX(3px);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.filter-item.active {\r\n    background: linear-gradient(135deg, var(--primary-blue) 0%, var(--primary-blue-dark) 100%);\r\n    color: white;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.filter-item .filter-text {\r\n    font-weight: 600;\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    align-items: flex-start;\r\n    gap: 6px;\r\n    font-size: 0.8rem;\r\n    line-height: 1.4;\r\n    word-break: break-word;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.filter-item .filter-text i {\r\n    flex-shrink: 0;\r\n    margin-top: 2px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.filter-item .filter-count {\r\n    background: rgba(255, 255, 255, 0.2);\r\n    padding: 2px 8px;\r\n    border-radius: 20px;\r\n    font-size: 0.7rem;\r\n    font-weight: 600;\r\n    flex-shrink: 0;\r\n    margin-top: 2px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.filter-item:not(.active) .filter-count {\r\n    background: var(--primary-blue);\r\n    color: white;\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* Weak Areas Card *\/\r\n.weak-areas-card .quiz-card-header {\r\n    background: linear-gradient(135deg, var(--error-red) 0%, #dc2626 100%);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.weak-areas-card .quiz-card-body {\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    flex-direction: column;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.weak-question-list {\r\n    flex: 1;\r\n    overflow-y: auto;\r\n    margin-bottom: 10px;\r\n    max-height: 180px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.weak-question-item {\r\n    background: var(--bg-light);\r\n    padding: 10px 12px;\r\n    border-radius: var(--radius-sm);\r\n    margin-bottom: 8px;\r\n    font-size: 0.78rem;\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    align-items: center;\r\n    gap: 10px;\r\n    cursor: pointer;\r\n    transition: all 0.3s ease;\r\n    border-left: 3px solid var(--error-red);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.weak-question-item:hover {\r\n    background: #fef2f2;\r\n    transform: translateX(3px);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.weak-question-item .q-num {\r\n    font-weight: 700;\r\n    color: var(--error-red);\r\n    flex-shrink: 0;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.weak-question-item .q-text {\r\n    flex: 1;\r\n    color: var(--text-medium);\r\n    font-size: 0.72rem;\r\n    white-space: nowrap;\r\n    overflow: hidden;\r\n    text-overflow: ellipsis;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.weak-question-item .wrong-count {\r\n    background: var(--error-red);\r\n    color: white;\r\n    padding: 2px 6px;\r\n    border-radius: 20px;\r\n    font-size: 0.65rem;\r\n    font-weight: 600;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.practice-weak-btn {\r\n    width: 100%;\r\n    padding: 10px;\r\n    background: linear-gradient(135deg, var(--error-red) 0%, #dc2626 100%);\r\n    border: none;\r\n    border-radius: var(--radius-md);\r\n    color: white;\r\n    font-family: 'Poppins', sans-serif;\r\n    font-size: 0.8rem;\r\n    font-weight: 600;\r\n    cursor: pointer;\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    align-items: center;\r\n    justify-content: center;\r\n    gap: 6px;\r\n    margin-top: 10px;\r\n    transition: all 0.3s ease;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.practice-weak-btn:hover {\r\n    transform: translateY(-2px);\r\n    box-shadow: var(--shadow-md);\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* ========================================\r\n   QUESTION PANEL (CENTER)\r\n======================================== *\/\r\n.question-panel {\r\n    background: var(--bg-card);\r\n    border-radius: var(--radius-lg);\r\n    box-shadow: var(--shadow-md);\r\n    overflow: hidden;\r\n    align-self: start;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.question-header {\r\n    background: white;\r\n    padding: 12px 20px;\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    justify-content: space-between;\r\n    align-items: center;\r\n    border-bottom: 1px solid var(--border-color);\r\n    flex-wrap: wrap;\r\n    gap: 10px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.question-number {\r\n    font-family: 'Poppins', sans-serif;\r\n    font-size: 0.95rem;\r\n    font-weight: 600;\r\n    color: var(--primary-blue);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.question-meta {\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    gap: 8px;\r\n    align-items: center;\r\n    flex-wrap: wrap;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.meta-badge {\r\n    padding: 5px 10px;\r\n    border-radius: 20px;\r\n    font-size: 0.75rem;\r\n    font-weight: 600;\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    align-items: center;\r\n    gap: 4px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.meta-badge.chapter {\r\n    background: linear-gradient(135deg, var(--accent-orange) 0%, var(--accent-orange-dark) 100%);\r\n    color: white;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.meta-badge.weak {\r\n    background: linear-gradient(135deg, var(--error-red) 0%, #dc2626 100%);\r\n    color: white;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.meta-badge i { font-size: 0.65rem; }\r\n\r\n\/* ========================================\r\n   QUESTION BODY\r\n======================================== *\/\r\n.question-body {\r\n    padding: 18px 20px 16px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* Question Text \u2014 plain, no border\/box *\/\r\n.question-text {\r\n    font-size: 0.97rem;\r\n    font-weight: 700;\r\n    line-height: 1.65;\r\n    color: var(--text-dark);\r\n    margin-bottom: 14px;\r\n    padding: 0;\r\n    background: none;\r\n    border-left: none;\r\n    border-radius: 0;\r\n    white-space: pre-line;\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* \"Select an option to attempt\" label *\/\r\n.options-label {\r\n    display: block;\r\n    font-size: 0.78rem;\r\n    color: var(--primary-blue);\r\n    font-weight: 500;\r\n    margin-bottom: 8px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* ========================================\r\n   OPTIONS \u2014 Clean minimal cards\r\n======================================== *\/\r\n.options-list {\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    flex-direction: column;\r\n    gap: 7px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.option-item {\r\n    padding: 10px 14px;\r\n    border: 1.5px solid #D1D5DB;\r\n    border-radius: var(--radius-md);\r\n    cursor: pointer;\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    align-items: center;\r\n    gap: 12px;\r\n    transition: all 0.2s ease;\r\n    background: white;\r\n    box-shadow: none;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.option-item:hover:not(.disabled) {\r\n    border-color: #93C5FD;\r\n    background: #F8FAFF;\r\n    transform: none;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.option-item.selected {\r\n    border-color: var(--primary-blue);\r\n    background: #EFF6FF;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.option-item.correct {\r\n    border-color: var(--success-green);\r\n    background: var(--success-green-light);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.option-item.incorrect {\r\n    border-color: var(--error-red);\r\n    background: var(--error-red-light);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.option-item.disabled { cursor: default; }\r\n\r\n\/* Option Letter Circle \u2014 simple gray *\/\r\n.option-letter {\r\n    width: 28px;\r\n    height: 28px;\r\n    border-radius: 50%;\r\n    background: #F3F4F6;\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    align-items: center;\r\n    justify-content: center;\r\n    font-weight: 600;\r\n    font-size: 0.8rem;\r\n    color: #6B7280;\r\n    border: 1.5px solid #E5E7EB;\r\n    flex-shrink: 0;\r\n    transition: all 0.2s ease;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.option-item.selected .option-letter {\r\n    background: var(--primary-blue);\r\n    color: white;\r\n    border-color: var(--primary-blue);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.option-item.correct .option-letter {\r\n    background: var(--success-green);\r\n    color: white;\r\n    border-color: var(--success-green);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.option-item.incorrect .option-letter {\r\n    background: var(--error-red);\r\n    color: white;\r\n    border-color: var(--error-red);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.option-text {\r\n    font-size: 0.88rem;\r\n    color: var(--text-dark);\r\n    flex: 1;\r\n    font-weight: 400;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.option-icon {\r\n    font-size: 1rem;\r\n    display: none;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.option-item.correct .option-icon,\r\n.option-item.incorrect .option-icon { display: block; }\r\n.option-item.correct .option-icon { color: var(--success-green); }\r\n.option-item.incorrect .option-icon { color: var(--error-red); }\r\n\r\n\/* ========================================\r\n   EXPLANATION BOX\r\n======================================== *\/\r\n.explanation-box {\r\n    margin-top: 18px;\r\n    padding: 16px;\r\n    background: linear-gradient(135deg, #FFFBEB 0%, #FEF3C7 100%);\r\n    border-radius: var(--radius-md);\r\n    border-left: 4px solid var(--accent-orange);\r\n    display: none;\r\n    animation: slideDown 0.4s ease;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.explanation-box.show { display: block; }\r\n\r\n@keyframes slideDown {\r\n    from { opacity: 0; transform: translateY(-10px); }\r\n    to { opacity: 1; transform: translateY(0); }\r\n}\r\n\r\n.explanation-title {\r\n    font-family: 'Poppins', sans-serif;\r\n    font-size: 0.85rem;\r\n    font-weight: 600;\r\n    color: var(--accent-orange-dark);\r\n    margin-bottom: 8px;\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    align-items: center;\r\n    gap: 6px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.explanation-text {\r\n    font-size: 0.88rem;\r\n    line-height: 1.6;\r\n    color: var(--text-dark);\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* ========================================\r\n   MASTERY INDICATOR\r\n======================================== *\/\r\n.mastery-indicator {\r\n    margin-top: 14px;\r\n    padding: 10px 14px;\r\n    background: var(--bg-light);\r\n    border-radius: var(--radius-md);\r\n    display: none;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.mastery-indicator.show {\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    align-items: center;\r\n    justify-content: space-between;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.mastery-label {\r\n    font-size: 0.78rem;\r\n    color: var(--text-medium);\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    align-items: center;\r\n    gap: 5px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.mastery-stars { display: flex; gap: 2px; }\r\n.mastery-stars i { color: var(--border-color); font-size: 0.85rem; }\r\n.mastery-stars i.filled { color: var(--warning-yellow); }\r\n\r\n\/* ========================================\r\n   NAVIGATION BUTTONS\r\n======================================== *\/\r\n.question-nav {\r\n    margin-top: 14px;\r\n    padding: 12px 16px;\r\n    background: var(--bg-light);\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    justify-content: space-between;\r\n    align-items: center;\r\n    gap: 10px;\r\n    border-radius: var(--radius-md);\r\n    border: 1px solid var(--border-color);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.nav-btn {\r\n    padding: 11px 22px;\r\n    border: none;\r\n    border-radius: var(--radius-md);\r\n    font-family: 'Poppins', sans-serif;\r\n    font-size: 0.85rem;\r\n    font-weight: 600;\r\n    cursor: pointer;\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    align-items: center;\r\n    gap: 7px;\r\n    transition: all 0.3s ease;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.nav-btn.prev {\r\n    background: white;\r\n    color: var(--text-medium);\r\n    border: 2px solid var(--border-color);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.nav-btn.prev:hover:not(:disabled) {\r\n    border-color: var(--primary-blue);\r\n    color: var(--primary-blue);\r\n    transform: translateX(-3px);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.nav-btn.check {\r\n    background: linear-gradient(135deg, var(--accent-orange) 0%, var(--accent-orange-dark) 100%);\r\n    color: white;\r\n    flex: 1;\r\n    justify-content: center;\r\n    max-width: 220px;\r\n    box-shadow: var(--shadow-md);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.nav-btn.check:hover:not(:disabled) {\r\n    transform: translateY(-2px);\r\n    box-shadow: var(--shadow-lg);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.nav-btn.next {\r\n    background: linear-gradient(135deg, var(--primary-blue) 0%, var(--primary-blue-dark) 100%);\r\n    color: white;\r\n    box-shadow: var(--shadow-md);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.nav-btn.next:hover:not(:disabled) {\r\n    transform: translateX(3px);\r\n    box-shadow: var(--shadow-lg);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.nav-btn:disabled { opacity: 0.5; cursor: not-allowed; }\r\n\r\n\/* ========================================\r\n   RIGHT SIDEBAR\r\n======================================== *\/\r\n.dashboard-sidebar {\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    flex-direction: column;\r\n    gap: 16px;\r\n    align-self: start;\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* Progress Ring *\/\r\n.progress-ring-container {\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    justify-content: center;\r\n    margin-bottom: 12px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.progress-ring {\r\n    position: relative;\r\n    width: 100px;\r\n    height: 100px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.progress-ring svg { transform: rotate(-90deg); }\r\n\r\n.progress-ring-bg {\r\n    fill: none;\r\n    stroke: var(--border-color);\r\n    stroke-width: 8;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.progress-ring-fill {\r\n    fill: none;\r\n    stroke: var(--success-green);\r\n    stroke-width: 8;\r\n    stroke-linecap: round;\r\n    transition: stroke-dashoffset 0.5s ease;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.progress-ring-text {\r\n    position: absolute;\r\n    inset: 0;\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    flex-direction: column;\r\n    align-items: center;\r\n    justify-content: center;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.progress-ring-percentage {\r\n    font-family: 'Poppins', sans-serif;\r\n    font-size: 1.4rem;\r\n    font-weight: 700;\r\n    color: var(--text-dark);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.progress-ring-label {\r\n    font-size: 0.65rem;\r\n    color: var(--text-medium);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.progress-stats-mini {\r\n    display: grid;\r\n    grid-template-columns: 1fr 1fr;\r\n    gap: 8px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.progress-stat-mini {\r\n    background: var(--bg-light);\r\n    padding: 10px;\r\n    border-radius: var(--radius-sm);\r\n    text-align: center;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.progress-stat-mini .value {\r\n    font-family: 'Poppins', sans-serif;\r\n    font-size: 1.1rem;\r\n    font-weight: 700;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.progress-stat-mini .value.correct { color: var(--success-green); }\r\n.progress-stat-mini .value.incorrect { color: var(--error-red); }\r\n\r\n.progress-stat-mini .label {\r\n    font-size: 0.65rem;\r\n    color: var(--text-medium);\r\n    margin-top: 2px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* Question Grid *\/\r\n.question-grid {\r\n    display: grid;\r\n    grid-template-columns: repeat(5, 1fr);\r\n    gap: 6px;\r\n    max-height: 200px;\r\n    overflow-y: auto;\r\n    padding: 2px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.grid-item {\r\n    width: 100%;\r\n    aspect-ratio: 1;\r\n    border-radius: var(--radius-sm);\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    align-items: center;\r\n    justify-content: center;\r\n    font-weight: 600;\r\n    font-size: 0.75rem;\r\n    cursor: pointer;\r\n    transition: all 0.3s ease;\r\n    border: 2px solid transparent;\r\n    position: relative;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.grid-item.unattempted { background: var(--primary-blue); color: white; }\r\n.grid-item.current {\r\n    background: var(--accent-orange);\r\n    color: white;\r\n    transform: scale(1.1);\r\n    box-shadow: var(--shadow-md);\r\n    z-index: 1;\r\n}\r\n.grid-item.attempted { background: var(--accent-orange-light); color: var(--text-dark); }\r\n.grid-item.correct-answered { background: var(--success-green); color: white; }\r\n.grid-item.incorrect-answered { background: var(--error-red); color: white; }\r\n\r\n.grid-item.weak-marked::after {\r\n    content: '!';\r\n    position: absolute;\r\n    top: -3px;\r\n    right: -3px;\r\n    width: 12px;\r\n    height: 12px;\r\n    background: var(--error-red);\r\n    border-radius: 50%;\r\n    font-size: 0.55rem;\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    align-items: center;\r\n    justify-content: center;\r\n    color: white;\r\n    font-weight: 700;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.grid-item:hover:not(.current) { transform: scale(1.05); }\r\n\r\n\/* Legend *\/\r\n.legend {\r\n    padding-top: 12px;\r\n    border-top: 1px solid var(--border-color);\r\n    margin-top: 4px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.legend-title {\r\n    font-weight: 600;\r\n    font-size: 0.75rem;\r\n    color: var(--text-dark);\r\n    margin-bottom: 8px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.legend-items {\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    flex-wrap: wrap;\r\n    gap: 10px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.legend-item {\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    align-items: center;\r\n    gap: 5px;\r\n    font-size: 0.68rem;\r\n    color: var(--text-medium);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.legend-color {\r\n    width: 14px;\r\n    height: 14px;\r\n    border-radius: 3px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.legend-color.unattempted { background: var(--primary-blue); }\r\n.legend-color.attempted { background: var(--accent-orange-light); }\r\n.legend-color.correct { background: var(--success-green); }\r\n.legend-color.incorrect { background: var(--error-red); }\r\n\r\n\/* Stats Rows *\/\r\n.stat-row {\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    justify-content: space-between;\r\n    align-items: center;\r\n    padding: 8px 0;\r\n    border-bottom: 1px dashed var(--border-color);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.stat-row:last-child { border-bottom: none; }\r\n\r\n.stat-label {\r\n    color: var(--text-medium);\r\n    font-size: 0.82rem;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.stat-value {\r\n    font-weight: 700;\r\n    font-size: 0.95rem;\r\n    color: var(--text-dark);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.stat-value.correct { color: var(--success-green); }\r\n.stat-value.incorrect { color: var(--error-red); }\r\n\r\n\/* Action Buttons *\/\r\n.action-buttons {\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    flex-direction: column;\r\n    gap: 10px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.action-btn {\r\n    width: 100%;\r\n    padding: 12px;\r\n    border: none;\r\n    border-radius: var(--radius-md);\r\n    font-family: 'Poppins', sans-serif;\r\n    font-size: 0.85rem;\r\n    font-weight: 600;\r\n    cursor: pointer;\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    align-items: center;\r\n    justify-content: center;\r\n    gap: 7px;\r\n    transition: all 0.3s ease;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.action-btn.submit {\r\n    background: linear-gradient(135deg, var(--success-green) 0%, #059669 100%);\r\n    color: white;\r\n    box-shadow: var(--shadow-md);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.action-btn.submit:hover {\r\n    transform: translateY(-2px);\r\n    box-shadow: var(--shadow-lg);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.action-btn.reset {\r\n    background: var(--bg-light);\r\n    color: var(--text-medium);\r\n    border: 2px solid var(--border-color);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.action-btn.reset:hover {\r\n    border-color: var(--error-red);\r\n    color: var(--error-red);\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* ========================================\r\n   TOAST & MODAL\r\n======================================== *\/\r\n.warning-toast {\r\n    position: fixed;\r\n    bottom: 30px;\r\n    left: 50%;\r\n    transform: translateX(-50%);\r\n    background: var(--error-red);\r\n    color: white;\r\n    padding: 12px 24px;\r\n    border-radius: var(--radius-md);\r\n    font-weight: 600;\r\n    box-shadow: var(--shadow-xl);\r\n    z-index: 10000;\r\n    display: none;\r\n    animation: slideUp 0.3s ease;\r\n    font-size: 0.88rem;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.warning-toast.show { display: flex; align-items: center; gap: 8px; }\r\n.warning-toast.success { background: var(--success-green); }\r\n\r\n@keyframes slideUp {\r\n    from { opacity: 0; transform: translateX(-50%) translateY(20px); }\r\n    to { opacity: 1; transform: translateX(-50%) translateY(0); }\r\n}\r\n\r\n.result-modal {\r\n    position: fixed;\r\n    top: 0;\r\n    left: 0;\r\n    width: 100%;\r\n    height: 100%;\r\n    background: rgba(0, 0, 0, 0.7);\r\n    display: none;\r\n    justify-content: center;\r\n    align-items: center;\r\n    z-index: 10000;\r\n    padding: 20px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.result-modal.show { display: flex; }\r\n\r\n.result-content {\r\n    background: white;\r\n    padding: 32px;\r\n    border-radius: var(--radius-lg);\r\n    text-align: center;\r\n    max-width: 440px;\r\n    width: 100%;\r\n    box-shadow: var(--shadow-xl);\r\n    animation: modalSlideIn 0.3s ease;\r\n}\r\n\r\n@keyframes modalSlideIn {\r\n    from { opacity: 0; transform: scale(0.9); }\r\n    to { opacity: 1; transform: scale(1); }\r\n}\r\n\r\n.result-icon { font-size: 50px; margin-bottom: 16px; }\r\n\r\n.result-title {\r\n    font-family: 'Poppins', sans-serif;\r\n    font-size: 1.3rem;\r\n    font-weight: 700;\r\n    color: var(--text-dark);\r\n    margin-bottom: 8px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.result-message {\r\n    color: var(--text-medium);\r\n    margin-bottom: 20px;\r\n    font-size: 0.9rem;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.result-stats {\r\n    display: grid;\r\n    grid-template-columns: repeat(3, 1fr);\r\n    gap: 10px;\r\n    margin-bottom: 20px;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.result-stat {\r\n    background: var(--bg-light);\r\n    padding: 12px;\r\n    border-radius: var(--radius-md);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.result-stat-value {\r\n    font-family: 'Poppins', sans-serif;\r\n    font-size: 1.3rem;\r\n    font-weight: 700;\r\n    color: var(--primary-blue);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.result-stat-label {\r\n    font-size: 0.72rem;\r\n    color: var(--text-medium);\r\n}\r\n\r\n.result-buttons {\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    gap: 10px;\r\n    justify-content: center;\r\n    flex-wrap: wrap;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.result-btn {\r\n    padding: 10px 20px;\r\n    border: none;\r\n    border-radius: var(--radius-md);\r\n    font-family: 'Poppins', sans-serif;\r\n    font-weight: 600;\r\n    cursor: pointer;\r\n    transition: all 0.3s ease;\r\n    display: flex;\r\n    align-items: center;\r\n    gap: 6px;\r\n    font-size: 0.82rem;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.result-btn.primary {\r\n    background: linear-gradient(135deg, var(--primary-blue) 0%, var(--primary-blue-dark) 100%);\r\n    color: white;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.result-btn.secondary { background: var(--bg-light); color: var(--text-medium); }\r\n\r\n.result-btn.weak {\r\n    background: linear-gradient(135deg, var(--error-red) 0%, #dc2626 100%);\r\n    color: white;\r\n}\r\n\r\n.result-btn:hover { transform: translateY(-2px); }\r\n\r\n\/* ========================================\r\n   RESPONSIVE\r\n======================================== *\/\r\n@media (max-width: 1200px) {\r\n    .quiz-container {\r\n        grid-template-columns: 260px 1fr 290px;\r\n        gap: 14px;\r\n    }\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* ========================================\r\n   TABLET (960px and below)\r\n======================================== *\/\r\n@media (max-width: 960px) {\r\n    .quiz-container {\r\n        grid-template-columns: 1fr;\r\n        padding: 14px;\r\n        min-height: auto;\r\n        gap: 14px;\r\n    }\r\n\r\n    .left-sidebar {\r\n        order: 1;\r\n        display: grid;\r\n        grid-template-columns: repeat(auto-fit, minmax(220px, 1fr));\r\n        gap: 14px;\r\n        height: auto;\r\n    }\r\n\r\n    .left-sidebar .quiz-card { flex: none; }\r\n    .left-sidebar .filter-list { max-height: 180px; }\r\n\r\n    .question-panel { order: 2; }\r\n\r\n    .dashboard-sidebar {\r\n        order: 3;\r\n        display: grid;\r\n        grid-template-columns: repeat(auto-fit, minmax(220px, 1fr));\r\n        gap: 14px;\r\n        align-self: auto;\r\n    }\r\n\r\n    .header-stats { display: none; }\r\n    .mode-selector { flex-direction: column; align-items: stretch; }\r\n    .mode-tabs { justify-content: center; }\r\n    .session-info { justify-content: center; }\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* ========================================\r\n   MOBILE (600px and below) \u2014 Tab-based layout\r\n======================================== *\/\r\n@media (max-width: 600px) {\r\n\r\n    \/* Header *\/\r\n    .quiz-header { padding: 12px 14px; }\r\n    .topic-icon { width: 38px; height: 38px; font-size: 16px; }\r\n    .topic-info h1 { font-size: 1rem; }\r\n    .topic-info p { font-size: 0.72rem; }\r\n    .header-stats { display: none; }\r\n\r\n    \/* Mode tabs *\/\r\n    .mode-selector { padding: 10px 12px; }\r\n    .mode-tab { padding: 6px 10px; font-size: 0.72rem; }\r\n    .mode-tabs { gap: 6px; }\r\n\r\n    \/* Container becomes single column with tab switcher *\/\r\n    .quiz-container {\r\n        display: flex;\r\n        flex-direction: column;\r\n        padding: 10px;\r\n        gap: 0;\r\n        min-height: auto;\r\n    }\r\n\r\n    \/* Mobile Tab Bar *\/\r\n    .mobile-tab-bar {\r\n        display: flex !important;\r\n        background: white;\r\n        border-radius: var(--radius-lg) var(--radius-lg) 0 0;\r\n        border: 1px solid var(--border-color);\r\n        border-bottom: none;\r\n        overflow: hidden;\r\n    }\r\n\r\n    .mobile-tab-btn {\r\n        flex: 1;\r\n        padding: 10px 6px;\r\n        border: none;\r\n        background: var(--bg-light);\r\n        font-family: 'Poppins', sans-serif;\r\n        font-size: 0.7rem;\r\n        font-weight: 600;\r\n        color: var(--text-medium);\r\n        cursor: pointer;\r\n        display: flex;\r\n        flex-direction: column;\r\n        align-items: center;\r\n        gap: 4px;\r\n        border-right: 1px solid var(--border-color);\r\n        transition: all 0.2s ease;\r\n    }\r\n\r\n    .mobile-tab-btn:last-child { border-right: none; }\r\n\r\n    .mobile-tab-btn i { font-size: 0.95rem; }\r\n\r\n    .mobile-tab-btn.active {\r\n        background: var(--primary-blue);\r\n        color: white;\r\n    }\r\n\r\n    \/* Panel visibility on mobile *\/\r\n    .left-sidebar,\r\n    .question-panel,\r\n    .dashboard-sidebar {\r\n        display: none;\r\n        border-radius: 0 0 var(--radius-lg) var(--radius-lg);\r\n        border: 1px solid var(--border-color);\r\n        border-top: none;\r\n        margin-bottom: 10px;\r\n    }\r\n\r\n    .left-sidebar.mobile-active,\r\n    .question-panel.mobile-active,\r\n    .dashboard-sidebar.mobile-active {\r\n        display: flex !important;\r\n        flex-direction: column;\r\n        gap: 12px;\r\n    }\r\n\r\n    \/* Question panel adjustments *\/\r\n    .question-panel.mobile-active {\r\n        display: block !important;\r\n        border-radius: 0 0 var(--radius-lg) var(--radius-lg);\r\n    }\r\n\r\n    .question-header { padding: 10px 14px; }\r\n    .question-number { font-size: 0.85rem; }\r\n    .question-body { padding: 14px; }\r\n    .question-text { font-size: 0.9rem; line-height: 1.6; }\r\n\r\n    \/* Options *\/\r\n    .option-item { padding: 9px 12px; gap: 10px; }\r\n    .option-letter { width: 26px; height: 26px; font-size: 0.75rem; }\r\n    .option-text { font-size: 0.84rem; }\r\n    .options-list { gap: 6px; }\r\n\r\n    \/* Nav buttons *\/\r\n    .question-nav {\r\n        flex-wrap: wrap;\r\n        padding: 10px 12px;\r\n        gap: 8px;\r\n        margin-top: 12px;\r\n    }\r\n    .nav-btn { padding: 9px 14px; font-size: 0.78rem; }\r\n    .nav-btn.check {\r\n        order: -1;\r\n        width: 100%;\r\n        max-width: none;\r\n        margin-bottom: 4px;\r\n    }\r\n\r\n    \/* Left sidebar mobile *\/\r\n    .left-sidebar.mobile-active {\r\n        padding: 12px;\r\n        background: white;\r\n    }\r\n\r\n    .left-sidebar .filter-list { max-height: 220px; }\r\n\r\n    \/* Dashboard sidebar mobile *\/\r\n    .dashboard-sidebar.mobile-active {\r\n        padding: 12px;\r\n        background: white;\r\n        gap: 14px;\r\n    }\r\n\r\n    .question-grid {\r\n        grid-template-columns: repeat(7, 1fr);\r\n        max-height: none;\r\n    }\r\n\r\n    \/* Result modal *\/\r\n    .result-stats { grid-template-columns: 1fr 1fr; }\r\n    .result-buttons { flex-direction: column; }\r\n    .result-content { padding: 22px 18px; }\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/* Hide mobile tab bar on desktop *\/\r\n.mobile-tab-bar { display: none; }\r\n<\/style>\r\n<div class=\"ldce-quiz-wrapper\" id=\"quizWrapper\">\r\n    <!-- Warning Toast -->\r\n    <div class=\"warning-toast\" id=\"warningToast\">\r\n        <i class=\"fas fa-exclamation-triangle\"><\/i>\r\n        <span id=\"toastMessage\">Message<\/span>\r\n    <\/div>\r\n\r\n    <!-- Result Modal -->\r\n    <div class=\"result-modal\" id=\"resultModal\">\r\n        <div class=\"result-content\">\r\n            <div class=\"result-icon\" id=\"resultIcon\">\ud83c\udf89<\/div>\r\n            <h2 class=\"result-title\" id=\"resultTitle\">Great Job!<\/h2>\r\n            <p class=\"result-message\" id=\"resultMessage\">You have completed the quiz.<\/p>\r\n            <div class=\"result-stats\">\r\n                <div class=\"result-stat\">\r\n                    <div class=\"result-stat-value\" id=\"resultCorrect\">0<\/div>\r\n                    <div class=\"result-stat-label\">Correct<\/div>\r\n                <\/div>\r\n                <div class=\"result-stat\">\r\n                    <div class=\"result-stat-value\" id=\"resultIncorrect\">0<\/div>\r\n                    <div class=\"result-stat-label\">Incorrect<\/div>\r\n                <\/div>\r\n                <div class=\"result-stat\">\r\n                    <div class=\"result-stat-value\" id=\"resultScore\">0%<\/div>\r\n                    <div class=\"result-stat-label\">Score<\/div>\r\n                <\/div>\r\n            <\/div>\r\n            <div class=\"result-buttons\">\r\n                <button class=\"result-btn secondary\" id=\"reviewBtn\">\r\n                    <i class=\"fas fa-eye\"><\/i> Review\r\n                <\/button>\r\n                <button class=\"result-btn weak\" id=\"practiceWeakBtn\" style=\"display: none;\">\r\n                    <i class=\"fas fa-exclamation-circle\"><\/i> Practice Weak\r\n                <\/button>\r\n                <button class=\"result-btn primary\" id=\"retryBtn\">\r\n                    <i class=\"fas fa-redo\"><\/i> Try Again\r\n                <\/button>\r\n            <\/div>\r\n        <\/div>\r\n    <\/div>\r\n\r\n    <!-- Header -->\r\n    <header class=\"quiz-header\">\r\n        <div class=\"header-content\">\r\n            <div class=\"topic-title\">\r\n                <div class=\"topic-icon\">\r\n                    <i class=\"fas fa-file-invoice-dollar\" id=\"topicIcon\"><\/i>\r\n                <\/div>\r\n                <div class=\"topic-info\">\r\n                    <h1 id=\"topicName\">Manual of Procurement of Goods<\/h1>\r\n                    <p>Chapter-wise MCQs for comprehensive preparation<\/p>\r\n                <\/div>\r\n            <\/div>\r\n            <div class=\"header-stats\">\r\n                <div class=\"stat-badge progress-badge\">\r\n                    <i class=\"fas fa-chart-line\"><\/i>\r\n                    <span id=\"overallProgress\">0% Mastered<\/span>\r\n                <\/div>\r\n                <div class=\"stat-badge weak-badge\" id=\"weakBadgeHeader\" style=\"display: none;\">\r\n                    <i class=\"fas fa-exclamation-circle\"><\/i>\r\n                    <span id=\"weakCountHeader\">0 Weak Areas<\/span>\r\n                <\/div>\r\n            <\/div>\r\n        <\/div>\r\n    <\/header>\r\n\r\n    <!-- Mode Selector -->\r\n    <div class=\"mode-selector\">\r\n        <div class=\"mode-tabs\">\r\n            <button class=\"mode-tab active\" data-mode=\"all\" id=\"modeAll\">\r\n                <i class=\"fas fa-list\"><\/i>\r\n                All Questions\r\n                <span class=\"badge\" id=\"allCount\">0<\/span>\r\n            <\/button>\r\n            <button class=\"mode-tab\" data-mode=\"chapter\" id=\"modeChapter\">\r\n                <i class=\"fas fa-book\"><\/i>\r\n                By Chapter\r\n            <\/button>\r\n            <button class=\"mode-tab weak-mode\" data-mode=\"weak\" id=\"modeWeak\">\r\n                <i class=\"fas fa-exclamation-circle\"><\/i>\r\n                Weak Areas\r\n                <span class=\"badge\" id=\"weakModeCount\">0<\/span>\r\n            <\/button>\r\n        <\/div>\r\n        <div class=\"session-info\" id=\"sessionInfo\" style=\"display: none;\">\r\n            <i class=\"fas fa-history\"><\/i>\r\n            <span id=\"sessionText\">Last session: Q5<\/span>\r\n            <button class=\"resume-btn\" id=\"resumeBtn\">\r\n                <i class=\"fas fa-play\"><\/i>\r\n                Resume\r\n            <\/button>\r\n        <\/div>\r\n    <\/div>\r\n\r\n    <!-- Main Container -->\r\n    <div class=\"quiz-container\">\r\n       <div class=\"mobile-tab-bar\">\r\n  <button class=\"mobile-tab-btn\" onclick=\"switchMobileTab('chapters', this)\">\r\n    <i class=\"fas fa-list\"><\/i> Chapters\r\n  <\/button>\r\n  <button class=\"mobile-tab-btn active\" onclick=\"switchMobileTab('questions', this)\">\r\n    <i class=\"fas fa-question-circle\"><\/i> Questions\r\n  <\/button>\r\n  <button class=\"mobile-tab-btn\" onclick=\"switchMobileTab('navigator', this)\">\r\n    <i class=\"fas fa-th\"><\/i> Navigator\r\n  <\/button>\r\n<\/div>\r\n        <!-- Left Sidebar -->\r\n        <aside class=\"left-sidebar\">\r\n            <!-- Chapter Filter -->\r\n            <div class=\"quiz-card\" id=\"chapterFilterCard\">\r\n                <div class=\"quiz-card-header light\">\r\n                    <h3><i class=\"fas fa-book-open\"><\/i> Filter by Chapter<\/h3>\r\n                <\/div>\r\n                <div class=\"quiz-card-body\">\r\n                    <div class=\"filter-list\" id=\"chapterList\"><\/div>\r\n                <\/div>\r\n            <\/div>\r\n\r\n            <!-- Weak Areas Card -->\r\n            <div class=\"quiz-card weak-areas-card\" id=\"weakAreasCard\" style=\"display: none;\">\r\n                <div class=\"quiz-card-header\">\r\n                    <h3><i class=\"fas fa-exclamation-triangle\"><\/i> Weak Areas<\/h3>\r\n                <\/div>\r\n                <div class=\"quiz-card-body\">\r\n                    <div class=\"weak-question-list\" id=\"weakQuestionList\"><\/div>\r\n                    <button class=\"practice-weak-btn\" id=\"practiceWeakAreasBtn\">\r\n                        <i class=\"fas fa-redo\"><\/i>\r\n                        Practice All Weak Areas\r\n                    <\/button>\r\n                <\/div>\r\n            <\/div>\r\n             <!-- Action Buttons -->\r\n            <div class=\"action-buttons\">\r\n                \r\n                <button class=\"action-btn reset\" id=\"resetBtn\">\r\n                    <i class=\"fas fa-redo-alt\"><\/i>\r\n                    Reset Session\r\n                <\/button>\r\n            <\/div>\r\n        <\/aside>\r\n\r\n        <!-- Question Panel -->\r\n        <main class=\"question-panel\">\r\n            <div class=\"question-header\">\r\n                <span class=\"question-number\" id=\"questionNumber\">Question 1 of 20<\/span>\r\n                <div class=\"question-meta\">\r\n                    <div class=\"meta-badge chapter\">\r\n                        <i class=\"fas fa-book\"><\/i>\r\n                        <span id=\"currentQuestionChapter\">Chapter 1<\/span>\r\n                    <\/div>\r\n                    <div class=\"meta-badge weak\" id=\"weakBadge\" style=\"display: none;\">\r\n                        <i class=\"fas fa-exclamation-circle\"><\/i>\r\n                        <span>Weak<\/span>\r\n                    <\/div>\r\n                <\/div>\r\n            <\/div>\r\n            <div class=\"question-body\">\r\n                <div class=\"question-text\" id=\"questionText\">Loading question...<\/div>\r\n                <div class=\"options-list\" id=\"optionsList\"><\/div>\r\n                <div class=\"explanation-box\" id=\"explanationBox\">\r\n                    <div class=\"explanation-title\">\r\n                        <i class=\"fas fa-lightbulb\"><\/i>\r\n                        Explanation\r\n                    <\/div>\r\n                    <p class=\"explanation-text\" id=\"explanationText\"><\/p>\r\n                <\/div>\r\n                <div class=\"mastery-indicator\" id=\"masteryIndicator\">\r\n                    <span class=\"mastery-label\">\r\n                        <i class=\"fas fa-star\"><\/i>\r\n                        Mastery:\r\n                    <\/span>\r\n                    <div class=\"mastery-stars\" id=\"masteryStars\">\r\n                        <i class=\"fas fa-star\"><\/i>\r\n                        <i class=\"fas fa-star\"><\/i>\r\n                        <i class=\"fas fa-star\"><\/i>\r\n                        <i class=\"fas fa-star\"><\/i>\r\n                        <i class=\"fas fa-star\"><\/i>\r\n                    <\/div>\r\n                <\/div>\r\n                <!-- Navigation Buttons -->\r\n                <div class=\"question-nav\">\r\n                    <button class=\"nav-btn prev\" id=\"prevBtn\">\r\n                        <i class=\"fas fa-arrow-left\"><\/i>\r\n                        Previous\r\n                    <\/button>\r\n                    <button class=\"nav-btn check\" id=\"checkBtn\">\r\n                        <i class=\"fas fa-check-circle\"><\/i>\r\n                        Check Answer\r\n                    <\/button>\r\n                    <button class=\"nav-btn next\" id=\"nextBtn\">\r\n                        Next\r\n                        <i class=\"fas fa-arrow-right\"><\/i>\r\n                    <\/button>\r\n                <\/div>\r\n            <\/div>\r\n        <\/main>\r\n\r\n        <!-- Right Sidebar -->\r\n        <aside class=\"dashboard-sidebar\">\r\n            <!-- Question Navigator -->\r\n            <div class=\"quiz-card\">\r\n                <div class=\"quiz-card-header light\">\r\n                    <h3><i class=\"fas fa-th\"><\/i> Question Navigator<\/h3>\r\n                <\/div>\r\n                <div class=\"quiz-card-body\">\r\n                    <div class=\"question-grid\" id=\"questionGrid\"><\/div>\r\n                    <div class=\"legend\">\r\n                        <div class=\"legend-title\">Legend:<\/div>\r\n                        <div class=\"legend-items\">\r\n                            <div class=\"legend-item\">\r\n                                <div class=\"legend-color unattempted\"><\/div>\r\n                                <span>Unattempted<\/span>\r\n                            <\/div>\r\n                            <div class=\"legend-item\">\r\n                                <div class=\"legend-color attempted\"><\/div>\r\n                                <span>Attempted<\/span>\r\n                            <\/div>\r\n                            <div class=\"legend-item\">\r\n                                <div class=\"legend-color correct\"><\/div>\r\n                                <span>Correct<\/span>\r\n                            <\/div>\r\n                            <div class=\"legend-item\">\r\n                                <div class=\"legend-color incorrect\"><\/div>\r\n                                <span>Incorrect<\/span>\r\n                            <\/div>\r\n                        <\/div>\r\n                    <\/div>\r\n                <\/div>\r\n            <\/div>\r\n            \r\n            <!-- Your Progress -->\r\n            <div class=\"quiz-card\">\r\n                <div class=\"quiz-card-header\">\r\n                    <h3><i class=\"fas fa-trophy\"><\/i> Your Progress<\/h3>\r\n                <\/div>\r\n                <div class=\"quiz-card-body\">\r\n                    <div class=\"progress-ring-container\">\r\n                        <div class=\"progress-ring\">\r\n                            <svg width=\"100\" height=\"100\">\r\n                                <circle class=\"progress-ring-bg\" cx=\"50\" cy=\"50\" r=\"42\"><\/circle>\r\n                                <circle class=\"progress-ring-fill\" cx=\"50\" cy=\"50\" r=\"42\" \r\n                                        stroke-dasharray=\"264\" \r\n                                        stroke-dashoffset=\"264\"\r\n                                        id=\"progressRingFill\"><\/circle>\r\n                            <\/svg>\r\n                            <div class=\"progress-ring-text\">\r\n                                <span class=\"progress-ring-percentage\" id=\"progressPercentage\">0%<\/span>\r\n                                <span class=\"progress-ring-label\">Mastered<\/span>\r\n                            <\/div>\r\n                        <\/div>\r\n                    <\/div>\r\n                    <div class=\"progress-stats-mini\">\r\n                        <div class=\"progress-stat-mini\">\r\n                            <div class=\"value correct\" id=\"totalCorrectProgress\">0<\/div>\r\n                            <div class=\"label\">Correct<\/div>\r\n                        <\/div>\r\n                        <div class=\"progress-stat-mini\">\r\n                            <div class=\"value incorrect\" id=\"totalWeakProgress\">0<\/div>\r\n                            <div class=\"label\">Weak Areas<\/div>\r\n                        <\/div>\r\n                    <\/div>\r\n                <\/div>\r\n            <\/div>\r\n\r\n\r\n            <!-- Session Stats -->\r\n            <div class=\"quiz-card\">\r\n                <div class=\"quiz-card-header\">\r\n                    <h3><i class=\"fas fa-chart-pie\"><\/i> Session Stats<\/h3>\r\n                <\/div>\r\n                <div class=\"quiz-card-body\">\r\n                    <div class=\"stat-row\">\r\n                        <span class=\"stat-label\">Total Questions<\/span>\r\n                        <span class=\"stat-value\" id=\"totalQuestions\">0<\/span>\r\n                    <\/div>\r\n                    <div class=\"stat-row\">\r\n                        <span class=\"stat-label\">Attempted<\/span>\r\n                        <span class=\"stat-value\" id=\"attemptedCount\">0<\/span>\r\n                    <\/div>\r\n                    <div class=\"stat-row\">\r\n                        <span class=\"stat-label\">Correct<\/span>\r\n                        <span class=\"stat-value correct\" id=\"correctCount\">0<\/span>\r\n                    <\/div>\r\n                    <div class=\"stat-row\">\r\n                        <span class=\"stat-label\">Incorrect<\/span>\r\n                        <span class=\"stat-value incorrect\" id=\"incorrectCount\">0<\/span>\r\n                    <\/div>\r\n                <\/div>\r\n            <\/div>\r\n\r\n            <!-- Action Buttons -->\r\n            <div class=\"action-buttons\">\r\n                <button class=\"action-btn submit\" id=\"submitBtn\">\r\n                    <i class=\"fas fa-paper-plane\"><\/i>\r\n                    Submit & View Results\r\n                <\/button>\r\n                \r\n            <\/div>\r\n        <\/aside>\r\n    <\/div>\r\n<\/div>\r\n\r\n<script>\r\n\/\/ ==========================================\r\n\/\/ QUIZ CONFIGURATION\r\n\/\/ ==========================================\r\nconst quizConfig = {\r\n    quizId: 'commutationpension-chapterwise-quiz',\r\n    topic: 'Pension Commutation',\r\n    paper: 'Paper 2',\r\n    wpAjaxUrl: '\/wp-admin\/admin-ajax.php',\r\n    useWordPressSync: false,\r\n    masteryThreshold: 3,\r\n    weakThreshold: 1\r\n};\r\n\r\n\/\/ ==========================================\r\n\/\/ QUESTIONS DATA (Year removed)\r\n\/\/ ==========================================\r\nconst allQuestions = [\r\n\r\n  \/\/ ==================== CHAPTER 1: INTRODUCTION \u2014 PRINCIPLES AND POLICIES ====================\r\n  {\r\n    id: 1,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Which Article of the Constitution of India stipulates that contracts legally binding on the Government must be executed in writing by officers specifically authorised to do so?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Article 266\",\r\n      \"Article 299\",\r\n      \"Article 300\",\r\n      \"Article 149\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) Article 299<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.1:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"At the apex of the Statutory framework governing public Procurement is <b>Article 299 of the Constitution of India<\/b>, which stipulates that contracts legally binding on the Government must be <b>executed in writing by officers specifically authorised<\/b> to do so.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nThe Constitution also enshrines Fundamental Rights with implications for public procurement \u2014 in particular <b>Article 14 (Right to Equality before Law)<\/b> and <b>Article 19(1)(g) (Right to practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade, or business)<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 2,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the legal framework of public procurement in the Central Government:\\n1. There is a law exclusively governing public procurement in the Central Government.\\n2. Comprehensive Rules and Regulations are available in the General Financial Rules (GFR), 2017, especially Chapters 6 to 9.\\n3. The Indian Contract Act of 1872 and the Sale of Goods Act of 1930 are significant legislations governing contracts of sale\/purchase of goods.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 2 and 3 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 1 INCORRECT (Para 1.1):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"In the Central Government, there is <b>no law exclusively governing public procurement<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 2 CORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"However, comprehensive Rules and Regulations in this regard are available in the <b>General Financial Rules (GFR), 2017 (especially chapters 6 to 9)<\/b>; Delegation of Financial Powers Rules (DFPR); Government orders regarding purchase preference\/ restrictions...\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 CORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"...the <b>Indian Contract Act of 1872<\/b> and the <b>Sale of Goods Act of 1930<\/b> are significant legislations governing contracts of sale\/ purchase of goods in general.\"<\/i> Other mercantile laws that may be attracted include the Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996, Mediation Act 2023, Competition Act 2002 and IT Act 2000.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 3,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"In the Government of India, the nodal authority responsible for public procurement policy \u2014 including issue of procurement manuals and Model Tender Documents, their revision, interpretation and clarification \u2014 is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)\",\r\n      \"The Procurement Policy Division, Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance\",\r\n      \"The Comptroller and Auditor General of India\",\r\n      \"Directorate General of Supplies and Disposals\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) Procurement Policy Division, Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.2:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"The <b>Procurement Policy Division, Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance<\/b> would be the nodal authority for this Manual's <b>revision, interpretation, and clarification<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nThe PPD was created to encourage <b>uniformity and harmonisation<\/b> in public procurement by disseminating best practices, providing guidance, oversight and capacity building, and issuing procurement manuals and Model Tender Documents. However, <i>\"the <b>Centralisation of Procurement<\/b> or involvement in procurement processes is <b>not<\/b> the intended purpose of the creation of PPD\"<\/i> (Para 1.10.1).`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 4,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Which of the following enactments form part of the legal framework governing public procurement of goods in India?\\n1. The Indian Contract Act, 1872\\n2. The Sale of Goods Act, 1930\\n3. The Competition Act, 2002\\n4. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.1 (Legal Framework):<\/b> In the absence of an exclusive law governing public procurement, the framework comprises, inter alia:<br>\r\n\u2022 <b>The Constitution of India<\/b> \u2014 Articles 298-299 (contracts), Article 14 (equality\/legitimate expectation) and Article 19(1)(g);<br>\r\n\u2022 <b>The Indian Contract Act, 1872<\/b> and <b>the Sale of Goods Act, 1930<\/b> \u2014 the major legislations governing contracts of sale\/purchase;<br>\r\n\u2022 <b>The Competition Act, 2002<\/b> \u2014 against anti-competitive practices such as bid rigging and cartelisation;<br>\r\n\u2022 <b>The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996<\/b> (with the <b>Mediation Act, 2023<\/b>) \u2014 dispute resolution;<br>\r\nalong with the <b>Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988<\/b>, the <b>IT Act, 2000<\/b>, the <b>RTI Act, 2005<\/b>, the CVC Act 2003, and administrative frameworks \u2014 <b>GFR 2017, DFPR, Manuals and Government orders<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 5,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the applicability of the Manual for Procurement of Goods, 2024:\\n1. It applies to all Procuring Entities covered by Rule 1 of GFR, i.e., all Central Government Ministries\/Departments, attached and subordinate bodies.\\n2. It applies to autonomous bodies except to the extent that the bye-laws of an autonomous body provide separate Government-approved procurement guidelines.\\n3. For CPSEs, Public Sector Banks and Public Sector Insurance Companies, deviations from the Manual's guidelines may be approved by their competent authority, e.g., the Board of Directors.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.3:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"This Manual shall apply to all Procuring Entities covered by <b>Rule 1 of GFR<\/b>, i.e., all Central Government Ministries\/Departments, attached and subordinate bodies. These provisions shall also apply, as per the same rule, to <b>autonomous bodies<\/b> except to the extent that the bye-laws of an autonomous body provide <b>separate procurement guidelines that the Government has approved<\/b>... [and to] bodies substantially owned or controlled by or receiving substantial financial assistance from the Central Government (inter-alia, <b>CPSEs... PSBs... PSICs... FIs<\/b>...), except to the extent deviations that have been approved by their <b>competent authority (e.g., Board of Directors)<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nEven approved deviations must retain fundamental provisions relating to the Constitution, Preferential Procurement Policies, GTE and Land Border restrictions.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 6,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"For procurements done and used outside India in the host country's local currency, Indian Missions abroad may adopt the GFR financial limits\/thresholds by converting them using:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The RBI reference exchange rate on the date of procurement\",\r\n      \"The latest INR-PPP conversion rates for the local currency as published by the IMF\",\r\n      \"The SBI TT selling rate\",\r\n      \"The exchange rate notified by the Ministry of External Affairs annually\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) Latest INR-PPP conversion rates published by the IMF<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.3-4(a):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Indian Missions and CPSE units abroad may adopt General Financial Rules (GFRs) financial limits\/ thresholds of procurements... by using latest <b>INR-PPP conversion rates for the local currency as published by the IMF<\/b> (International Monetary Fund). For convenience, such converted limits\/ thresholds may be <b>reviewed annually<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nEven if procurement is in a currency other than the local currency, the thresholds shall be in terms of the <b>INR-PPP conversion rate for the local currency only<\/b>. If IMF does not publish the PPP rate for the local currency, conversion may be done to the most relevant currency in consultation with the Financial Advisor.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 7,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding projects financed by International Funding Agencies (IFAs):\\n1. The Government's procurement guidelines are not applicable to projects funded by the World Bank using the Investment Project Financing (IPF) instrument \u2014 the IFA's own procurement procedures apply instead.\\n2. IFA-specific procurement procedures for such projects are permitted under Rule 264 of GFR 2017.\\n3. For projects financed using Program-for-Results (PforR) of the World Bank and Results-Based Lending (RBL) of the Asian Development Bank, the Government's procurement guidelines apply as expressly agreed in the legal agreements.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.3-9:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"These guidelines would <b>not be applicable to projects funded by the World Bank using the Investment Project Financing (IPF) instrument<\/b> and similar instruments of other International Funding Agencies (IFA). IFA's specific procurement procedures shall be applicable as permitted under <b>Rules 264 of GFR 2017<\/b>. However, for the projects financed using instruments such as <b>Program-for-Results (PforR)<\/b> of the World Bank, and <b>Results-based lending (RBL)<\/b> of the Asian Development Bank... the application of these guidelines <b>as expressly agreed in the legal agreements<\/b> shall be followed.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 8,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"The procurement guidelines applicable to Central Government procuring entities do NOT apply to which one of the following?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Procurement outsourced to a procurement support agency\",\r\n      \"Procurement bundled with other contractual arrangements\",\r\n      \"Procurements by procuring entities for their own use from their subsidiary companies, including Joint Ventures where they have a controlling share\",\r\n      \"Procurement carried out on the GeM portal\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: C) Procurement from own subsidiaries\/JVs with controlling share<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.3-8 (Exemptions):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"These procurement guidelines would <b>not apply to procurements by procuring entities... for their own use from their subsidiary companies, including Joint Ventures, where they have a controlling share<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>By contrast (Para 1.3-6):<\/b> <i>\"These procurement guidelines <b>would continue to apply<\/b> if these procuring entities <b>outsource the procurement process, bundle the procurement<\/b> process with other contractual arrangements, or utilise the services of a procurement support agency or procurement agents.\"<\/i> Platforms like GeM\/GePNIC must also conform to the Procurement Guidelines.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 9,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"The main distinguishing factor between 'Goods' and 'Works' in public procurement is that:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Goods always cost less than Works\",\r\n      \"The manufacture of goods is done on the supplier's own premises, whereas Works is executed on the premises of the procuring entity\",\r\n      \"Goods have tangible outputs while Works have intangible outputs\",\r\n      \"Works require higher intellectual input than Goods\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) Goods manufactured on supplier's premises; Works executed on procuring entity's premises<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.4-2(a):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"While both goods and works lead to <b>tangible outputs<\/b>..., the main difference between goods and works is that the <b>manufacture of goods is done on the supplier's own premises<\/b> (other than installation\/ commissioning). In contrast, <b>'Works' is executed on the premises of the procuring entity<\/b> (other than pre-fabricated components).\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nThe distinguishing factor between Goods\/Works and <b>Services<\/b> is the <b>intangibility<\/b> of Services' outputs; between Consultancy and Non-consultancy services, it is the <b>level of intellectual input<\/b> (predominant in Consultancy) and the routine\/measurable nature of non-consultancy outputs.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 10,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"In case of doubt about categorisation of a procurement, which of the following courses of action are correctly stated?\\n1. In case of doubt between Goods and Works\/Services \u2014 it should generally be processed as Procurement of goods.\\n2. In case of doubt between Non-consultancy and Consultancy services \u2014 it should generally be processed as Procurement of consultancy services.\\n3. IT projects such as tailor-made software development and cloud-based services should usually be carried out as procurement of consultancy services.\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: C) 1 and 3 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 1 CORRECT (Para 1.4-3(a)):<\/b> In doubt between goods and works\/services\/consultancy \u2014 <i>\"it should generally be processed as <b>Procurement of goods<\/b>\"<\/i>. The guiding rule is that a <b>simpler procurement procedure<\/b> should be followed in grey areas.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 2 INCORRECT:<\/b> In doubt between Non-consultancy and Consultancy \u2014 <i>\"it should generally be processed as Procurement of <b>NON-consultancy services<\/b>\"<\/i> (the simpler procedure).<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 CORRECT (Para 1.4-3(b)):<\/b> <i>\"The Procurement of <b>IT projects<\/b> should usually be carried out as a procurement of <b>consultancy services<\/b>, as the outcomes\/deliverables vary from one service provider to another\"<\/i> \u2014 including tailor-made software, cloud-based services and composite IT system integration.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 11,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"An Annual Maintenance Contract (AMC) or installation\/commissioning of Machinery and Plant (i.e., non-consultancy services involving repair\/maintenance of mechanical, electrical or ICT assets) may be handled as:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Procurement of Works\",\r\n      \"Procurement of Goods\",\r\n      \"Procurement of Consultancy Services\",\r\n      \"Procurement of Non-consultancy Services only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) Procurement of Goods<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.4-3(c):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"If the Non-consultancy services involve construction, fabrication, repair, maintenance... of <b>Civil assets<\/b>, then it should be handled as Procurement of <b>Works<\/b>. In case of fabrication, repair, maintenance, overhaul, renovation, decoration, installation, erection and so on, of <b>mechanical, electrical or ICT assets<\/b> \u2013 e.g., <b>Annual Maintenance Contracts or installation\/ commissioning of Machinery and Plant<\/b> and so on, it may be handled as <b>Procurement of Goods<\/b> rather than Procurement of services.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nFor composite contracts, the <b>relationship of primacy of intention<\/b> between the goods element and works\/services element is examined \u2014 <b>irrespective of the relative values<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 12,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding consultation with Financial Advisers in procurement:\\n1. Under the Normal Procedure, concurrence of the Financial Adviser\/IFD is required on all procurement matters except where re-delegation has been done within permissible limits.\\n2. A Special Procedure with a different level of FA\/IFD involvement may be decided by the Secretary of the Department with the prior concurrence of the Secretary, Expenditure.\\n3. Payments under approved contracts shall always require IFD consultation.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1 and 2 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1 and 2 CORRECT (Para 1.5-2, Charter for FA, 2023):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"<b>Normal Procedure:<\/b> ...concurrence of the Financial Adviser\/ IFD shall be required on <b>all procurement matters<\/b>, except for matters where re-delegation has been done within the permissible limits... <b>Special Procedure:<\/b> With the <b>prior concurrence of Secretary Expenditure<\/b>, the Secretary of the Department may decide on a different level of involvement of the Financial Adviser\/IFD specific to the Department.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 INCORRECT (Para 1.5-3):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"In all procedures, <b>payments under approved contracts shall NOT require IFD consultation<\/b> except in cases where the payments are in <b>relaxation\/variation to approved contract conditions<\/b>.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 13,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Which of the following constitute the Five 'R's of Procurement?\\n1. Right Quality\\n2. Right Quantity\\n3. Right Price\\n4. Right Time and Place\\n5. Right Source\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 4 and 5 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3, 4 and 5 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3, 4 and 5\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) All five<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.6:<\/b> The Five R's of Procurement are: <b>Right Quality, Right Quantity, Right Price, Right Time and Place, and Right Source<\/b>.<br><br>\r\n<i>\"In every Procurement, public or private, the basic aim is to achieve just the <b>right balance between costs and requirements<\/b> concerning the following five parameters... The word 'right' is used in the sense of <b>'optimal balance'<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nNote: Under <b>Right Price<\/b>, it is NOT correct to aim at the cheapest materials \u2014 the price should be just right for the quality and quantity, and should not be abnormally low, which could lead to non-performance or failure of contract.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 14,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding Value for Money (VfM):\\n1. The concept of price has been refined into Total Cost of Ownership (TCO), Life Cycle Cost (LCC) or Whole-of-Life (WOL) costing.\\n2. VfM means the effective, efficient, and economical use of resources.\\n3. Price alone may not necessarily represent VfM.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.7:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"The concept of price or cost has been further refined into <b>Total Cost Of Ownership (TCO), Life Cycle Cost (LCC) or Whole-of-Life (WOL)<\/b> to consider not only the initial acquisition cost but also the cost of operation, maintenance, and disposal... <b>VfM means the effective, efficient, and economical use of resources<\/b>, which may involve the evaluation of relevant costs and benefits, along with an assessment of risks, non-price attributes... <b>Price alone may not necessarily represent VfM<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nVfM is achieved by attracting the <b>widest competition<\/b>: optimal description of need, value-engineered specifications, appropriate packaging\/slicing, and selection of appropriate mode of procurement and tendering system.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 15,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"The fundamental principles of public buying and allied obligations of procuring authorities are organised into five fundamental principles of public procurement. Which of the following is NOT one of these five principles?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Transparency Principle\",\r\n      \"Professionalism Principle\",\r\n      \"Centralisation Principle\",\r\n      \"Public Accountability Principle\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: C) Centralisation Principle<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.8 \u2014 the five fundamental principles of public procurement are:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>1. <b>Transparency Principle<\/b> \u2014 simultaneous, symmetric, unrestricted dissemination of information; consistency, predictability, clarity, openness, equal opportunities;<br>\r\n2. <b>Professionalism Principle<\/b> \u2014 economy, efficiency, effectiveness, integrity; avoiding wasteful, dilatory and improper practices;<br>\r\n3. <b>Broader Obligations Principle<\/b> \u2014 social policies, Make-in-India, MSE support, national security restrictions;<br>\r\n4. <b>Extended Legal Responsibilities Principle<\/b> \u2014 fundamental rights, judicial review, RTI Act, Prevention of Corruption Act;<br>\r\n5. <b>Public Accountability Principle<\/b> \u2014 accountability to Legislature, CVC, CAG, CBI; recording considerations at each stage (Rule 144(viii)).<\/i><br><br>\r\nThere is no 'Centralisation Principle' \u2014 indeed, centralisation is expressly NOT the purpose of even the PPD.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 16,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"The procedure for public procurement must conform to certain yardsticks. Which of the following are among these yardsticks?\\n1. Offers should be invited following a fair, transparent, and reasonable procedure.\\n2. The procuring authority should be satisfied that the selected offer adequately meets the requirement in all respects.\\n3. The procuring authority should satisfy itself that the price of the selected offer is reasonable and consistent with the quality required.\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.8.2-3 (Rule 144, GFR 2017):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"The procedure to be followed in making public Procurement must conform to the following yardsticks:<br>\r\na) offers should be invited following a <b>fair, transparent, and reasonable procedure<\/b>;<br>\r\nb) the procuring authority should be satisfied that the <b>selected offer adequately meets the requirement<\/b> in all respects;<br>\r\nc) the procuring authority should satisfy itself that the <b>price of the selected offer is reasonable and consistent with the quality<\/b> required.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 17,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements based on Rule 21 of GFR 2017 (Standards of Financial Propriety):\\n1. Every officer is expected to exercise the same vigilance in respect of expenditure from public moneys as a person of ordinary prudence would exercise in respect of expenditure of his own money.\\n2. The expenditure should not be prima facie more than the occasion demands.\\n3. No authority should exercise its powers of sanctioning expenditure to pass an order which will be directly or indirectly to its own advantage.\\n4. Expenditure from public moneys may be incurred for the benefit of a particular person if a claim for the amount could be enforced in a Court of Law.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.9 (Rule 21, GFR 2017) \u2014 all four are correct:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"i) Every officer is expected to exercise the <b>same vigilance... as a person of ordinary prudence<\/b> would exercise in respect of expenditure of his own money.<br>\r\nii) The expenditure should not be <b>prima facie more than the occasion demands<\/b>.<br>\r\niii) No authority should... pass an order which will be <b>directly or indirectly to its own advantage<\/b>.<br>\r\niv) Expenditure from public moneys should not be incurred for the benefit of a particular person or a section of the people, <b>unless<\/b> \u2014 a) a claim for the amount could be <b>enforced in a Court of Law<\/b>, or b) the expenditure is in pursuance of a <b>recognised policy or custom<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nStatement 4 states the exception (a), which makes such expenditure permissible \u2014 hence correct.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 18,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the Central Public Procurement Portal (CPPP):\\n1. It has been designed, developed and hosted by the National Informatics Centre in association with the Department of Expenditure.\\n2. It is mandatory for all Ministries\/Departments of the Central Government, CPSEs and Autonomous and Statutory Bodies to publish all their tender enquiries and information about resulting contracts on the CPPP.\\n3. The CPPP has e-publishing and e-procurement modules.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.10.2:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Central Public Procurement Portal (CPPP) has been designed, developed, and hosted by the <b>National Informatics Centre (NIC, Ministry of Electronics & IT) in association with Dept. of Expenditure<\/b>... The CPPP has <b>e-publishing and e-procurement modules<\/b>. It is <b>mandatory for all Ministries \/ Departments of the Central Government, Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) and Autonomous and Statutory Bodies<\/b> to publish on the CPPP all their tender enquiries and information about the resulting contracts.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nEnd-to-end e-procurement is also mandatory \u2014 either through CPPP or any other suitable <b>GCQE-compliant portal<\/b> (Guidelines for Compliance to Quality Requirements of eProcurement, July 2021, issued by STQC Directorate, MeitY).`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 19,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Under which Rule of GFR 2017 is procurement of common-use Goods and Services available on GeM mandatory for Ministries\/Departments?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Rule 144\",\r\n      \"Rule 149\",\r\n      \"Rule 153\",\r\n      \"Rule 161\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) Rule 149<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Paras 1.1-2 and 1.10.3:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Common use Goods and Services available on GeM are required to be <b>procured mandatorily through GeM as per Rule 149 of GFR, 2017<\/b>.\"<br><br>\r\n\"GeM (Government e-Marketplace) is the <b>'National Public Procurement Portal'<\/b>... The Procurement of Goods and Services available on GeM (as per Rule 149 of GFR, 2017) is <b>mandatory for Ministries\/ Departments (including attached\/ subordinate offices), CPSEs, autonomous bodies and local bodies<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nGeM is a <b>paperless, contactless, and cashless<\/b> platform.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 20,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India:\\n1. The CAG is established under Articles 149-151 of the Constitution of India.\\n2. The CAG is the Supreme Audit Institution of India (SAII).\\n3. The CAG can audit the accounts of any other body or authority only upon the request of the President\/Governor and not on its own initiative.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1 and 2 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1 and 2 CORRECT (Para 1.10.4):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India, established under <b>Articles 149-151 of the Constitution of India<\/b>, holds a pivotal role as the <b>Supreme Audit Institution of India (SAII)<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"The CAG can audit the accounts of any other body or authority <b>upon request of the President\/Governor OR on its own initiative<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nCAG conducts <b>Compliance, Financial, Performance, Thematic and IT audits<\/b>; performance audits cover procurement with the perspective of identifying wastage, malpractice and fraud.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 21,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the composition of the Lokpal:\\n1. The organisation consists of one Chairperson and a maximum of eight other members.\\n2. Out of the eight members, four are judicial members.\\n3. Fifty per cent of the Members shall be from Scheduled Castes\/Scheduled Tribes\/Other Backward Classes\/Minorities and women.\\n4. The age of the Chairperson or a member on the date of assuming office should not be under 45 years.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.10.5-5:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"The organisation consists of <b>one Chairperson and a maximum of eight other members<\/b>... Out of those eight members, <b>four members are judicial members<\/b> who are or have been judges of the Supreme Court or a Chief Justice of a High Court... The <b>age... should not be under 45 years<\/b>... <b>Fifty per cent of the Members shall be from Scheduled Castes \/ Scheduled Tribe \/ Other Backward Classes \/ Minorities and women<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nNon-judicial members require not less than <b>25 years'<\/b> expertise in anti-corruption policy, public administration, vigilance, finance (including insurance and banking), law and management.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 22,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"The Selection Committee for appointment of the Chairperson and Members of Lokpal consists of which of the following?\\n1. The Prime Minister\\n2. The Speaker of Lok Sabha\\n3. The Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha\\n4. The Chief Justice of India or a sitting Supreme Court judge nominated by the CJI\\n5. An eminent jurist nominated by the President of India\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3, 4 and 5 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 4 and 5 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3, 4 and 5\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) All five<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.10.5-6:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"The Chairperson and Lokpal members are selected through a selection committee consisting of the <b>PM, Speaker of Lok Sabha, leader of opposition in Lok Sabha, Chief Justice of India (CJI) or a sitting Supreme Court judge nominated by CJI<\/b>. Another <b>eminent jurist<\/b> is to be nominated to the selection committee <b>by the President of India<\/b> based on recommendations of the first four members of the selection committee 'through consensus'.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nOther testable points: NGOs receiving foreign (FCRA) donations above <b>Rs 10 lakh per year<\/b> are under Lokpal jurisdiction; inquiry into matters of international relations, security, public order, atomic energy and space requires approval of at least <b>two-thirds of Lokpal members<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 23,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC):\\n1. Under the CVC Act 2003, the CVC is a statutory body headed by the Central Vigilance Commissioner and comprising not more than two Commissioners.\\n2. There are two Chief Technical Examiners (CTE) who oversee public procurement.\\n3. The CVC has punitive powers to impose penalties on erring entities.\\n4. The recommendations of CVC are binding on the entities concerned.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1 and 2 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1 and 2 CORRECT (Para 1.10.6):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Under the Central Vigilance Commission Act 2003, the CVC is a <b>statutory body<\/b> headed by the Central Vigilance Commissioner and comprising <b>not more than two Commissioners<\/b>... There are <b>two Chief Technical Examiners (CTE)<\/b> who oversee public procurement.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 3 and 4 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"CVC only investigates and recommends punitive and follow-up actions to the concerned entity but has <b>no punitive powers by itself<\/b>. The recommendations are <b>not binding<\/b> on the entities, but CVC may report any deviations from recommendations to the parliament.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nCVC has powers of a <b>civil court<\/b> when conducting inquiries, but no police powers to arrest or seize properties \u2014 such cases go to the CBI.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 24,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Which of the following officials\/levels are covered under the jurisdiction of the Central Vigilance Commission?\\n1. Group 'A' officers of the Central Government\\n2. In Schedule 'A' and 'B' CPSEs \u2014 officers of level E-8 and above\\n3. In Public Sector Banks \u2014 officers of Scale V and above\\n4. In RBI, NABARD and SIDBI \u2014 officers in Grade 'D' and above\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.10.6-7 \u2014 CVC jurisdiction covers:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"a) Members of All India Services... and <b>Group 'A' officers<\/b> of the Central Government...<br>\r\nb) Schedule 'A' and 'B' PSUs \u2014 Chief Executives and Executives on the Board and other officers of <b>level E-8 and above<\/b><br>\r\nc) Schedule 'C' and 'D' PSUs \u2014 ...officers of <b>level E-7 and above<\/b><br>\r\nd) Public-Sector Banks \u2014 Officers of the rank of <b>Scale V and above<\/b><br>\r\ne) Reserve Bank of India, NABARD and SIDBI \u2014 Officers in <b>Grade 'D' and above<\/b><br>\r\nf) General Insurance Companies \u2014 <b>Managers and above<\/b><br>\r\ng) Life Insurance Corporation \u2014 <b>Senior Divisional Managers and above<\/b><br>\r\nh) Societies and local authorities owned or controlled by the Central Government \u2014 Officers drawing a salary of <b>Rs 8700\/- per month and above<\/b>.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 25,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI):\\n1. The CBI functions under the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.\\n2. It is the only oversight agency with police powers to arrest, seize properties, and enforce compliance from non-government agencies.\\n3. The Director of CBI is appointed on the recommendations of a committee headed by the Central Vigilance Commissioner and holds office for a period of not less than two years.\\n4. High Courts and the Supreme Court can order the CBI to investigate cases outside its normal jurisdiction without the consent of the State concerned.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.10.7:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Under the <b>Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946<\/b>, the CBI... is the <b>only oversight agency with police powers<\/b>. It investigates and prosecutes corruption cases... requiring <b>arrest, seizure of properties and enforcement of compliance<\/b>... The administration of DSPE vests in the <b>Director of the CBI, who is appointed on the recommendations of a committee headed by the Central Vigilance Commissioner<\/b>. He holds office for a period of <b>not less than two years<\/b>... <b>High Courts and the Supreme Court can also order the CBI to investigate<\/b> cases outside its normal jurisdiction for which <b>no consent is required from the state<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nAlso: prior approval of the Central Government is needed for inquiries against employees of <b>Joint Secretary level and above<\/b> \u2014 except for on-the-spot arrest while accepting illegal gratification.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 26,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Out of the total procurement of handloom-origin textiles required by Central Government departments throughout the year, what minimum percentage is mandatorily to be procured from KVIC and\/or Handloom Clusters?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"10 per cent\",\r\n      \"20 per cent\",\r\n      \"25 per cent\",\r\n      \"50 per cent\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 20 per cent<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.11.1-1:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Out of the total procurement of handloom origin textiles required by Central Government departments throughout the year, it shall be <b>mandatory to make procurement of at least 20%<\/b> from the <b>Khadi & Village Industries Commission (KVIC)<\/b> and\/ or <b>Handloom Clusters<\/b> such as Co-Operative Societies, Self Help Group (SHG) Federations, Joint Liability Group (JLG), Producer Companies (PC), Corporations etc. including Weavers having <b>Pehchan Card<\/b>.\"<\/i> (GFR Rule 153-(i))`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 27,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the Pharmaceuticals Purchase Policy for procurement from Pharma CPSEs:\\n1. The policy covers 103 medicines and has been extended till the final closure\/strategic disinvestment of the concerned Pharma PSEs.\\n2. The pricing of products is done by the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) using the cost-based formula of the Drugs Price Control Order, 1995, and a uniform discount of 16% is extended to all products.\\n3. Annual revision of prices is linked to the Wholesale Price Index as per the Drugs Prices Control Order, 2013.\\n4. If the pharma CPSEs fail to supply, the procuring entity is at liberty to purchase from other manufacturers.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.11.1-2 \u2014 all correct:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Pharmaceuticals Purchase Policy in respect of <b>103 medicines<\/b>... has now been renewed and extended <b>till the final closure\/ strategic disinvestment<\/b> of the Pharma PSEs... The pricing of the products would be done by the <b>NPPA using the cost-based formula, as mentioned in the Drugs Price Control Order, 1995<\/b>. A <b>uniform discount of 16%<\/b> would be extended to all products... <b>Annual revision of prices would be linked to the Wholesale Price Index<\/b> as per provisions contained in the Drugs Prices Control Order, 2013... In case pharma CPSEs and their subsidiaries <b>fail to supply<\/b>... the procuring entity would be <b>at liberty to make purchases from other manufacturers<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nThe policy covers CPSEs under the Department of Pharmaceuticals \u2014 <b>IDPL, HAL, BCPL, KAPL and RDPL<\/b> and their subsidiaries with GoI holding <b>51% or above<\/b>, subject to <b>GMP norms per Schedule 'M'<\/b> of the Drugs & Cosmetics Rules.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 28,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"How many items (including items of Handicrafts) are presently reserved for exclusive procurement from Micro and Small Enterprises?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"158 items including 8 items of Handicrafts\",\r\n      \"358 items including 8 items of Handicrafts\",\r\n      \"385 items including 10 items of Handicrafts\",\r\n      \"258 items including 6 items of Handicrafts\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 358 items including 8 items of Handicrafts<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.11.1-3:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"...the Central Government Ministries or Departments or Public Sector Undertakings shall continue to procure items reserved for procurement exclusively from MSE [presently <b>358 (three hundred and fifty-eight) items including eight items of Handicrafts<\/b>] from Micro and Small Enterprises.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nThe latest list is on the MSME Ministry's website; <b>NSIC<\/b> may be contacted to locate sources of reserved items. The Ministry of MSME has clarified that <b>laminated paper Gr. I, II and III are NOT covered<\/b> under the paper conversion product (Sl. No. 202).`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 29,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding eligibility under the Public Procurement Policy for MSEs, Order 2012:\\n1. MSEs registered under Udyam Registration are eligible to avail benefits under the policy.\\n2. Traders, distributors and sole agents are also covered under the policy.\\n3. In case of upward re-classification, an enterprise shall continue to avail all non-tax benefits of its earlier category for a period of three years from the date of such upward change.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: C) 1 and 3 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 1 CORRECT:<\/b> <i>\"MSEs registered under <b>Udyam Registration<\/b> are eligible to avail the benefits under the policy.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 2 INCORRECT:<\/b> <i>\"This Policy provides preferential procurement of goods produced and services rendered by MSEs. <b>Traders\/ distributors\/ sole agents\/ Works Contract are EXCLUDED<\/b> from the purview of the policy.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 CORRECT:<\/b> <i>\"In case of an upward change in terms of investment in plant and machinery or equipment or turnover or both, and consequent re-classification, an enterprise shall continue to avail of all <b>nontax benefits<\/b> of the category it was in before the re-classification, <b>for a period of three years<\/b> from the date of such upward change.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nThe policy is issued under <b>Section 11 of the MSMED Act, 2006<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 30,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"An MSE would be treated as owned by SC\/ST or Women entrepreneurs in the case of a partnership MSE or a Private Limited Company if the SC\/ST or Women partners\/promoters hold at least what percentage of shares?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"26 per cent\",\r\n      \"50 per cent\",\r\n      \"51 per cent\",\r\n      \"75 per cent\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: C) 51 per cent<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.11.2-2(b)(ii):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"MSEs would be treated as owned by SC\/ ST or Women entrepreneurs:<br>\r\n1) In the case of proprietary MSE, proprietor(s) are SC\/ST or Woman;<br>\r\n2) In the case of partnership MSE, the SC\/ST or Women partners hold <b>at least 51%<\/b> shares in the unit;<br>\r\n3) In the case of Private Limited Companies, SC\/ST or Women promoters hold <b>at least 51%<\/b> share.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 31,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding facilities to MSEs under the Public Procurement Policy for MSEs:\\n1. MSEs are provided tender documents free of cost.\\n2. MSEs are exempted from payment of earnest money deposits.\\n3. MSEs are exempted from payment of Performance Bank Guarantee\/Security Deposit.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1 and 2 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.11.2-4(a):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"To reduce the transaction cost of doing business, MSEs will be facilitated by providing them <b>tender documents free of cost<\/b>, exempting MSEs from payment of <b>earnest money deposits<\/b>, and adopting e-procurement... However, <b>exemption from paying Performance Bank Guarantee\/ Security Deposit is NOT covered under the policy<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nThis distinction \u2014 EMD exemption YES, PBG\/Security Deposit exemption NO \u2014 is a frequently tested point.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 32,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Under Chapter V of the MSMED Act, 2006, consider the following statements regarding timely payments to MSE suppliers:\\n1. The period agreed upon for payment must not exceed forty-five days from the deemed acceptance of the materials.\\n2. Any objection regarding discrepancies in supplies must be raised by the Procuring Entity within 15 days from the date of receipt of materials, failing which it will be taken as deemed acceptance.\\n3. For delays in payment, the buyer is liable to pay compound interest at three times the bank rate notified by the Reserve Bank.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.11.2-4(c):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"The period agreed upon for payment must <b>not exceed forty-five days<\/b> from the deemed acceptance of the materials supplied by the MSMEs; in case of any discrepancies in the supplies, then the Procuring Entity shall raise an objection to the MSME supplier <b>within 15 days<\/b> from the date of receipt of materials; if such objection is not raised, then it will be taken as <b>deemed acceptance<\/b>. For delays in payment, the buyer shall be liable to pay <b>compound interest... at three times the bank rate notified by the Reserve Bank<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nFor arbitration and conciliation regarding recovery of such payments, the <b>Micro and Small Enterprises Facilitation Council (MSEFC)<\/b> has been set up in various states.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 33,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Under the Public Procurement Policy for MSEs, Central Ministries\/Departments\/PSUs shall procure a minimum of 25% of their annual value of goods or services from MSEs. Within this target, what are the sub-targets earmarked for MSEs owned by SC\/ST entrepreneurs and Women entrepreneurs respectively?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"3 per cent and 4 per cent\",\r\n      \"4 per cent and 3 per cent\",\r\n      \"5 per cent and 3 per cent\",\r\n      \"4 per cent and 4 per cent\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 4 per cent (SC\/ST) and 3 per cent (Women)<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.11.2-5(c)(i):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Out of the target of 25% of annual procurement from MSEs (Not in the specific tender), the sub-target of <b>4% of annual procurement<\/b>... is earmarked for procurement from MSEs owned by <b>Scheduled Caste (SC)\/ Scheduled Tribe (ST)<\/b> entrepreneurs, and <b>3%<\/b>... for MSEs owned by <b>women entrepreneurs<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nIn the event of failure of such MSEs to participate or meet requirements, the sub-targets <b>will be met from other MSEs<\/b>. Note: the sub-targets apply to ANNUAL procurement, not to each specific tender.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 34,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"In a divisible tender, the L1 price is quoted by a non-MSE bidder. Consider the following statements regarding purchase preference to MSEs:\\n1. Participating MSEs quoting within a price band of L1+15 per cent shall be allowed to supply up to 25 per cent of the total tendered value by bringing down their price to the L1 price.\\n2. If more than one eligible MSE within the price band agrees to match the L1 price, the 25 per cent quantity is to be awarded entirely to the lowest among them.\\n3. If the tender item cannot be split, the MSE quoting within L1+15% may be awarded the full\/complete supply of total tendered value.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: C) 1 and 3 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 1 CORRECT (Para 1.11.2-5(c)):<\/b> MSEs within <b>L1+15%<\/b> may supply <b>up to 25%<\/b> of the total tendered value by matching L1.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 2 INCORRECT:<\/b> <i>\"If there is more than one eligible MSE within such price band who agree to match the L1 price, the 25 per cent quantity is to be <b>distributed proportionately<\/b> to them\"<\/i> \u2014 NOT awarded entirely to the lowest.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 CORRECT:<\/b> <i>\"In case the tender item cannot be split or divided, etc., the MSE quoting a price within the band L1+15% may be awarded for <b>full\/ complete supply of total tendered value<\/b>... considering the spirit of the Policy.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 35,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"In a tender, the L1 bidder is a non-MSE. The procuring entity negotiates with the L1 bidder and obtains a lower price. For the purpose of MSE purchase preference, the price band of L1+15% should be calculated based on:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The lower negotiated price, and eligible MSEs shall match the original L1 price\",\r\n      \"The original L1 price, and eligible MSEs shall be called to match the new negotiated L1 price\",\r\n      \"The lower negotiated price, and eligible MSEs shall match the negotiated price\",\r\n      \"The average of the original and negotiated prices\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) Band on ORIGINAL L1 price; MSEs match the NEGOTIATED price<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Note below Para 1.11.2-5(c):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"If the procuring entity negotiates with the non-MSE L1 bidder, the price band (L1+15%) should be <b>calculated based on the original L1 price, not the lower negotiated price<\/b>, and such eligible MSE bidders <b>shall be called to match the new negotiated L1 price<\/b> as per procedure mentioned above for placement of 25% quantity.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nThe same dual principle applies under the <b>MII Order<\/b> for Class-I local suppliers (band L1+20% on original L1; matching at negotiated price).`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 36,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding implementation and monitoring of the Public Procurement Policy for MSEs:\\n1. A Review Committee under the Chairmanship of the Secretary, Ministry of MSME monitors and reviews the policy, including the list of items reserved for exclusive purchase from MSEs.\\n2. The MSME 'Sambandh' Portal was launched on 8th December 2017 for uploading procurement details by CPSEs on a monthly and annual basis.\\n3. A Grievance cell named 'CHAMPION Portal' has been set up in the Ministry of MSME for redressal of MSE grievances related to non-compliance with the policy.\\n4. The National SC\/ST Hub (NSSH) scheme is coordinated\/implemented by the NSIC.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.11.2-7 \u2014 all four correct:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"A <b>Review Committee<\/b>... under the Chairmanship of the <b>Secretary, Ministry of MSME<\/b>... will, inter alia, review the list of 358 items reserved for exclusive purchase from MSEs on a continuous basis, consider requests... for exemption from 25 per cent target on a case-to-case basis and monitor achievements... the Ministry of MSME launched the MSME <b>'Sambandh' Portal on 8th December 2017<\/b>... a Grievance cell named <b>'CHAMPION Portal'<\/b> has been set up in the Ministry of MSME... A <b>National SC\/ST hub (NSSH)<\/b> scheme was launched in <b>October 2016<\/b>... being coordinated \/ implemented by the <b>NSIC<\/b>.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 37,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Under the Public Procurement (Preference to Make in India) Order 2017, 'Local Content' means:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The total value of the item procured including all taxes minus the value of imported content\",\r\n      \"The amount of value added in India \u2014 the total value of the item procured (excluding net domestic indirect taxes) minus the value of imported content in the item (including all customs duties), as a proportion of the total value, in per cent\",\r\n      \"The proportion of Indian employees engaged in manufacturing the item\",\r\n      \"The value of raw materials sourced from within India as a proportion of total raw material cost\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) Value added in India as defined<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.11.3-1(b):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"'Local Content' means the amount of <b>value added in India<\/b> which shall, unless otherwise prescribed by the Nodal Ministry, be the <b>total value of the item procured (excluding net domestic indirect taxes) minus the value of imported content in the item (including all customs duties)<\/b> as a proportion of the total value, in percent.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>Exclusions from local content:<\/b> imported items sourced locally from resellers\/distributors; license fees\/royalties\/technical charges paid out of India; and repackaged\/refurbished\/rebranded imported products. For multi-item contracts, a <b>weighted average<\/b> of all items is taken.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 38,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Under the PPP-MII Order 2017, what are the minimum local content requirements for a 'Class-I local supplier' and a 'Class-II local supplier' respectively (where the Nodal Ministry has not prescribed higher content)?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"50% and 20%\",\r\n      \"60% and 30%\",\r\n      \"50% and 25%\",\r\n      \"40% and 20%\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 50% and 20%<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.11.3-5:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"The 'local content' requirement to categorize a supplier as a <b>'Class-I local supplier' is a minimum of 50 per cent<\/b>. For <b>'Class-II local suppliers,' the 'local content' requirement is a minimum of 20 per cent<\/b>. Nodal Ministry\/ Department may prescribe <b>only a higher percentage<\/b> of the minimum local content requirement.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>Important:<\/b> <i>\"local content is <b>not related to the nationality of the firm<\/b> \u2013 a foreign-owned firm may also become a Class-I or Class-II local supplier by adding local value addition.\"<\/i> The <b>margin of purchase preference is 20%<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 39,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Under the MII Order, in a procurement of DIVISIBLE goods (not notified as having sufficient local capacity), the L1 bidder is not a Class-I local supplier. Which of the following correctly describes the purchase preference procedure?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The full quantity is awarded to the lowest Class-I local supplier at its quoted price\",\r\n      \"50% of the order quantity is awarded to L1; the lowest Class-I local supplier within L1+20% is invited to match the L1 price for the remaining 50%\",\r\n      \"The contract is cancelled and retendered among Class-I local suppliers only\",\r\n      \"25% of the quantity is awarded to the lowest Class-I local supplier at the L1 price\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 50% to L1; Class-I local supplier within L1+20% matches L1 for remaining 50%<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.11.3-3(b)(ii):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"If the L1 bid is not a 'Class-I local supplier', <b>50 per cent of the order quantity shall be awarded to L1<\/b>. Thereafter, the <b>lowest bidder among the 'Class-I local supplier' will be invited to match the L1 price for the remaining 50 per cent quantity<\/b> subject to the Class-I local supplier's quoted price falling <b>within the margin of purchase preference (L1+20%)<\/b>... In case the lowest eligible 'Class-I local supplier' fails to match the L1 price or accepts less than the offered quantity, the <b>next higher<\/b> 'Class-I local supplier' within the margin... shall be invited... In case some quantity out of the 50% is still left uncovered, then such <b>balance quantity may also be ordered on the L1 bidder<\/b>.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 40,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the MII Order 2017:\\n1. 'Class-II local supplier' will not get purchase preference in any procurement undertaken by procuring entities.\\n2. MII purchase preference would not be applicable where evaluation is based inter-alia on non-price criteria, e.g., QCBS.\\n3. In procurement of items notified by the Nodal Ministry as having sufficient local capacity and local competition, only a 'Class-I local supplier' shall be eligible to bid, irrespective of purchase value.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>All CORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\u2022 Para 1.11.3-3(b)(iii)(4): \"<b>'Class-II local supplier' will not get a preference<\/b> for any procurement undertaken by procuring entities\" \u2014 Class-II status only confers ELIGIBILITY (in non-GTE tenders), not preference.<br>\r\n\u2022 Note 2 below Para 1.11.3-3(b): \"Since... MII order is applicable 'where the bid is evaluated on price alone' \u2013 MII purchase preference would <b>not be applicable where evaluation is based inter-alia on non-price criteria, e.g., QCBS or FBS<\/b>.\"<br>\r\n\u2022 Para 1.11.3-2(a): \"In procurement of all goods, services, or works in respect to which the Nodal Ministry\/ Department has communicated that there is <b>sufficient local capacity and local competition, only a 'Class-I local supplier' shall be eligible to bid, irrespective of purchase value<\/b>.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 41,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding exemptions under the MII Order 2017:\\n1. Procurements where the estimated value is less than Rs. 5 lakhs are exempt from the Order.\\n2. Procurement of spare parts and consumables for closed systems from OEMs is exempted from the Order.\\n3. Procuring entities may split procurement to remain below the exemption threshold.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1 and 2 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.11.3-4:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Notwithstanding anything contained in para 2 above, procurements where the estimated value to be procured is <b>less than Rs. 5 lakhs<\/b> shall be exempt from the Order. However, it shall be ensured by procuring entities that <b>procurement is NOT split for the purpose of avoiding the provisions<\/b> of this Order. Procurement of <b>spare parts, consumables for closed systems and Maintenance\/ Service contracts with OEM\/ Original Equipment Supplier\/ Original Part Manufacturer<\/b> shall be exempted from this Order.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nStatement 3 is exactly what the Order prohibits.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 42,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Under the MII Order, for procurements of what value are suppliers required to provide a certificate from the statutory auditor or cost auditor (or practising cost\/chartered accountant) giving the percentage of local content, in addition to self-certification?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Value more than Rs. 5 crores\",\r\n      \"Value more than Rs. 10 crores\",\r\n      \"Value more than Rs. 50 crores\",\r\n      \"Value more than Rs. 200 crores\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) More than Rs. 10 crores<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.11.3-8(b):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"In cases of procurement for a <b>value more than Rs. 10 crores<\/b>, the 'Class-I local supplier'\/ 'Class-II local supplier' shall be required to provide a <b>certificate from the statutory auditor or cost auditor<\/b> of the company (in the case of companies) or from a <b>practising cost accountant or practising chartered accountant<\/b> (in respect of suppliers other than companies) giving the percentage of local content.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nAt the time of tendering, <b>self-certification<\/b> (with location(s) of value addition) suffices for all bidders; the auditor's certificate applies at execution for contracts above INR 10 Crore.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 43,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Under the MII Order, if at the time of execution the supplier does not meet the stipulated local content requirement and its category changes from Class-I to Class-II\/Non-local:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The contract shall be terminated forthwith\",\r\n      \"A penalty upto 10% of the contract value may be imposed, but the contract once awarded shall not be terminated on this account\",\r\n      \"The supplier shall be debarred for five years\",\r\n      \"The supplier shall refund the entire contract value\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) Penalty upto 10% of contract value; no termination on this account<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.11.3-8(c):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"In case the contractor\/ supplier does not meet the stipulated local content requirement and the category of the supplier changes from Class-I to Class-II\/ Non-local or from Class-II to Non-local, a <b>penalty upto 10% of the contract value may be imposed. However, contract once awarded shall NOT be terminated<\/b> on this account.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nSeparately, a <b>FALSE declaration<\/b> is a breach of the Code of Integrity under <b>Rule 175(1)(i)(h)<\/b> of GFR, for which a bidder or its successors can be <b>debarred for up to two years under Rule 151(iii)<\/b> of GFR.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 44,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the Standing Committee under the MII Order 2017:\\n1. It is chaired by the Secretary, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade.\\n2. It shall meet as often as necessary, but not less than once every six months.\\n3. It identifies Nodal Ministries and the allocation of items among them for issue of notifications on minimum local content.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Paras 1.11.3-16 and 17:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"A standing committee is hereby constituted with... <b>Secretary, Department for Promotion of Industry, and Internal Trade-Chairman<\/b>; Secretary, Commerce-Member; Secretary, Ministry of Electronics, and Information Technology-Member; Joint Secretary (Public Procurement), Department of Expenditure-Member; Joint Secretary (DPIIT)-Member-Convenor... The Standing Committee shall meet as often as necessary, but <b>not less than once every six months<\/b>... [It] shall <b>identify Nodal Ministries and the allocation of items among them<\/b> for the issue of notifications on minimum local content.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 45,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Under the MII Order, the power to reduce the minimum local content below the prescribed level, reduce the margin of purchase preference below 20%, or exempt any item from the Order vests with:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The Standing Committee under DPIIT\",\r\n      \"The Administrative Department undertaking the procurement, with the approval of their Minister-in-charge, by written order with reasons recorded in writing\",\r\n      \"The Secretary of the Department of Expenditure\",\r\n      \"The Nodal Ministry, with the approval of the Cabinet\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) Administrative Department with approval of Minister-in-charge<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.11.3-14:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"The Administrative Department undertaking the procurement..., <b>with the approval of their Minister-in-charge<\/b>, may, by written order, for reasons to be recorded in writing, i) <b>reduce the minimum local content<\/b> below the prescribed level or ii) <b>reduce the margin of purchase preference below 20 per cent<\/b> or iii) <b>exempt any item or supplying entities<\/b> from the operation of this Order or any part of the Order.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nA copy of every such order goes to the <b>Standing Committee and concerned Nodal Ministry<\/b>; the Department must certify that the item has not been notified by the Nodal Ministry as having sufficient local capacity.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 46,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the MII Order 2017:\\n1. All administrative Ministries\/Departments whose procurement exceeds Rs. 1000 Crore per annum shall notify their procurement projections for the next five years on their website.\\n2. Every procuring entity shall ensure that eligibility conditions regarding previous experience do not require proof of supply in other countries or proof of exports.\\n3. Specifying foreign certifications in the tender document can be done only after written approval of the Secretary of the Department concerned.\\n4. Where a Ministry has its own policy for preference to local content approved by the Cabinet after 1st January 2015, the MII Order will prevail over such policy.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1, 2 and 3 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1, 2 and 3 CORRECT (Paras 1.11.3-12(a), 9(a), 9(d)):<\/b> Ministries with procurement above <b>Rs. 1000 Crore per annum<\/b> notify <b>five-year<\/b> procurement projections; tenders shall NOT require <b>proof of exports\/supply in other countries<\/b>; foreign certification may be stipulated <b>only after written approval of the Secretary<\/b> of the Department (or designated authority).<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 4 INCORRECT (Para 1.11.3-19):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Where any Ministry or Department has its own policy for preference to local content <b>approved by the Cabinet after 1st January 2015, such policies will prevail over the provisions of the Order<\/b>.\"<\/i> \u2014 the Ministry's own Cabinet-approved policy prevails, not the MII Order.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 47,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Under the special treatment for items covered under the PLI Scheme in the MII Order, a manufacturer manufacturing an item under the PLI scheme (who has received incentive from the concerned PLI Ministry) shall be treated as:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Deemed Class-I local supplier for that item\",\r\n      \"Deemed Class-II local supplier for that item, unless it has minimum local content equal to or higher than that notified for Class-I\",\r\n      \"Non-local supplier\",\r\n      \"Exempt from the MII Order entirely\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) Deemed Class-II local supplier<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.11.3-1A:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"The manufacturers manufacturing an item under PLI scheme shall be treated as <b>deemed Class II local supplier<\/b> for that item unless they have minimum local content equal to or higher than that notified for Class-I local supplier for that item, <b>provided the manufacturer has received incentive from the concerned PLI Ministry<\/b> for the item. The above shall be applicable for the <b>specific time period only, as notified by concerned PLI Ministry<\/b>.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 48,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding restrictions on bidders from countries sharing a land border with India:\\n1. Such a bidder is eligible to bid in any procurement only if registered with the Competent Authority.\\n2. The Competent Authority for registration is the Registration Committee constituted by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).\\n3. Registration shall not be given unless political and security clearances have been received from the Ministry of External Affairs and the Ministry of Home Affairs respectively.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Paras 1.11.4-2(a) and 10:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Any bidder from a country that shares a land border with India will be eligible to bid in any procurement, whether of goods, services... or works... <b>only if the bidder is registered with the Competent Authority<\/b>... The Competent Authority... shall be the <b>Registration Committee constituted by DPIIT<\/b>... the Competent Authority shall first seek <b>political and security clearances from the Ministry of External Affairs and Ministry of Home Affairs<\/b>... Registration shall not be given unless political and security clearance have <b>both<\/b> been received.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nThe requirement applies to tenders issued after <b>23.07.2020<\/b> (and after <b>01.04.2023<\/b> for the ToT-arrangement cases). For national security reasons, the Competent Authority is <b>not required to give reasons<\/b> for rejection\/cancellation.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 49,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"The restrictions on public procurement from bidders of countries sharing a land border with India are NOT applicable to which of the following?\\n1. Procurements made by Indian missions and offices of government agencies located outside India\\n2. Bidders from countries to which the Government of India has extended lines of credit or in which it is engaged in development projects\\n3. Procurement of spare parts and AMC\/CMC, including consumables for closed systems, from OEMs or their authorised agents\\n4. Proprietary purchases\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1, 2 and 3 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1, 2 and 3 CORRECT (Para 1.11.4-3(f)):<\/b> The Order is not applicable to procurements by <b>Indian missions abroad<\/b>; to bidders from <b>lines-of-credit\/development-project countries<\/b> (lists on MEA website); and to <b>OEM spares\/AMC\/CMC including consumables for closed systems<\/b>. Also excluded: projects with international funding approved by <b>DEA<\/b>.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 4 INCORRECT (Para 1.11.4-12(a)):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"The <b>proprietary purchases are NOT excluded<\/b> from the provisions of Rule 144 (xi) of GFR, 2017.\"<\/i> Further, the rule applies to <b>all purchases irrespective of order value<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 50,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Under the Rule 144(xi) Order, for determining the 'beneficial owner' of a bidder company, 'Controlling ownership interest' means ownership of, or entitlement to, more than what percentage of shares\/capital\/profits of the company?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Ten per cent\",\r\n      \"Fifteen per cent\",\r\n      \"Twenty-five per cent\",\r\n      \"Fifty-one per cent\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: C) Twenty-five per cent<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.11.4-4(g):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"In the case of a <b>company or Limited Liability Partnership<\/b>, the beneficial owner is the natural person(s), who... has a controlling ownership interest... <b>'Controlling ownership interest' means ownership of, or entitlement to, more than twenty-five per cent of shares or capital or profits<\/b> of the company.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>Contrast:<\/b> For a <b>partnership firm<\/b> or an <b>unincorporated association<\/b>, the threshold is <b>more than fifteen per cent<\/b> of capital or profits. For trusts, beneficiaries with <b>15% or more<\/b> interest are identified. For nationality, the passport is considered; <b>Hong Kong and Macau are considered part of China<\/b> for the purpose of the Order.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 51,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Which of the following are Category-I sensitive sectors (Schedule-I) under the Rule 144(xi) restrictions relevant to Transfer of Technology arrangements?\\n1. Atomic Energy\\n2. Defence\\n3. Space\\n4. Railways\\n5. Telecommunications\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 5 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 4 and 5 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3, 4 and 5\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Schedule-I (Category-I Sensitive sectors):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>1. <b>Atomic Energy<\/b>; 2. <b>Broadcasting\/ Print and Digital Media<\/b>; 3. <b>Defence<\/b>; 4. <b>Space<\/b>; 5. <b>Telecommunications<\/b><\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>Railways is a Category-II sensitive sector (Schedule-II)<\/b>, along with Power and Energy; Banking and Finance including Insurance; Civil Aviation; Construction of ports and dams; Electronics and Microelectronics; Meteorology and Ocean Observation; Mining; Pharmaceuticals & Medical Devices; Agriculture; Health; and Urban Transportation.<br><br>\r\nFor <b>Category-I sectors<\/b>, ToT arrangement in ANY technology with a land-border-country entity requires registration; for <b>Category-II<\/b>, only ToT in the <b>sensitive technologies of Schedule-III<\/b> requires registration.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 52,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding registration under the Rule 144(xi) land-border Order:\\n1. With respect to tenders, registration should be valid at the time of submission of bids and at the time of acceptance of bids.\\n2. If the bidder was validly registered at the time of acceptance\/placement of order, registration should not be a relevant consideration during contract execution.\\n3. Registration granted by the Competent Authority of the Government of India is valid also for procurement by State Governments and their agencies.\\n4. Registration granted by a State Government is valid for procurement by the Government of India as well.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1, 2 and 3 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1-3 CORRECT (Paras 1.11.4-8 and 10(g)):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"With respect to tenders, registration should be <b>valid at the time of submission and acceptance of bids<\/b>... If the bidder was validly registered at the time of acceptance\/ placement of the order, registration <b>should not be a relevant consideration during contract execution<\/b>... Registration granted by the Competent Authority of the Government of India shall be valid not only for procurement by the Central Government... <b>but also for procurement by State Governments<\/b>... No fresh registration at the State level shall be required.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 4 INCORRECT (footnote):<\/b> <i>\"Registration granted by State Governments shall be valid <b>only for procurement by the State Government<\/b> and its agencies... and shall <b>not be valid<\/b> for procurement in other states or <b>by the Government of India<\/b>.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 53,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Under the Rule 144(xi) Order, consider the following statements:\\n1. A bidder who only procures raw material and components from an entity from a country sharing a land border with India, and then manufactures them into other goods, will not be treated as an Agent.\\n2. A person who procures and supplies finished goods from an entity from a country sharing a land border with India will be deemed to be an Agent, and such vendor will be required to be registered.\\n3. In works contracts, sub-contracting to a contractor from a country sharing a land border with India is not allowed unless such contractor is registered with the Competent Authority.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Paras 1.11.4-4(f) Note and 6:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"A person who procures and supplies <b>finished goods<\/b> from an entity from a country that shares a land border with India will, regardless of the nature of his legal or commercial relationship with the producer of the goods, be <b>deemed to be an Agent<\/b>... a bidder who only procures <b>raw material, components<\/b>, etc., ...and then manufactures or converts them into other goods will <b>NOT be treated as an Agent<\/b>... In works contracts, including turnkey contracts, contractors shall <b>not be allowed to sub-contract<\/b> works to any contractor from a country that shares a land border with India <b>unless such contractor is registered<\/b> with the Competent Authority.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nNote: <i>\"Procurement of raw material, components, etc. does <b>not constitute sub-contracting<\/b>.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 54,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the definition of a 'Start-up' as per DPIIT for procurement benefits:\\n1. The entity qualifies upto a period of ten years from the date of incorporation\/registration.\\n2. Turnover of the entity for any of the financial years since incorporation has not exceeded one hundred crore rupees.\\n3. An entity formed by splitting up or reconstructing an existing business shall also be considered a 'Start-up'.\\n4. To obtain benefits, a Startup shall be required to be recognized as a Startup by DPIIT.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 1, 2 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.11.5-1:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"An entity shall be considered as a 'Start-up': i) <b>Upto a period of ten years<\/b> from the date of incorporation\/ registration... ii) <b>Turnover... has not exceeded one hundred crore rupees<\/b>, iii) The entity works towards <b>innovation, development, or improvement<\/b> of products, processes, or services... <b>Provided that an entity formed by splitting up or reconstructing an existing business shall NOT be considered a 'Start-up.'<\/b> Provided further that in order to obtain benefits a Startup... shall be required to be <b>recognized as Startup by DPIIT<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nEligible forms: private limited company, registered partnership firm (S.59, Partnership Act 1932), or LLP.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 55,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding relaxation of prior turnover and prior experience for Start-ups:\\n1. The relaxation is subject to the Start-up meeting quality and technical specifications.\\n2. Such relaxation is purely optional for the Procuring Entity in all cases.\\n3. Exception to the relaxation exists for procurement of items related to public safety, health, critical security operations and equipment, where adequate justification exists.\\n4. Startups may be MSMEs or otherwise.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 1, 3 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.11.5-2(b):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"The Procuring Entity reserves its right to relax the condition of prior turnover and prior experience for start-up enterprises recognized by DPIIT, <b>subject to meeting quality & technical specifications<\/b>. <b>Startups may be MSMEs or otherwise<\/b>... It is further clarified that such relaxation is <b>NOT optional but normally has to be ensured<\/b>, except in case of procurement of items related to <b>public safety, health, critical security operations and equipment<\/b>, etc where adequate justification exists... The decision of the Procuring Entity in this regard shall be final.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nStatement 2 is the reverse of the actual position. Startups are also <b>exempted from payment of Earnest Money<\/b>. Relaxation can be <b>partial<\/b> \u2014 e.g., 25% relaxation over specified turnover\/experience.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 56,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the Domestically Manufactured Iron & Steel Products (DMI&SP) Policy:\\n1. The Policy applies to projects where the procurement value of iron and steel products exceeds Rs. 5 lakhs.\\n2. Purchase preference shall be provided to domestically manufactured capital goods (Appendix B) if their quoted price falls within 20% of the price quoted for corresponding imported capital goods.\\n3. Waivers are granted by the Ministry of Steel where specific grades of steel are not manufactured in the country or the required quantities cannot be met through domestic sources.\\n4. The Standing Committee under the Policy is chaired by the Secretary (Steel).\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.11.6 \u2014 all four correct:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"The Policy shall apply to projects where the procurement value of iron and steel products <b>exceeds Rs. 5 lakhs<\/b>... Purchase preference shall be provided to domestically manufactured capital goods listed in Appendix B if their quoted price falls <b>within 20%<\/b> of the price quoted for corresponding imported capital goods... <b>Waivers shall be granted by the Ministry of Steel<\/b>... a) Where specific grades of steel are not manufactured in the country or b) Where the quantities... cannot be met through domestic sources... A Standing Committee under the Ministry of Steel (MoS), to be <b>chaired by the Secretary (Steel)<\/b>, shall be constituted.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nAlso: <b>No GTE<\/b> for Appendix-A iron & steel products; domestic value addition \u2014 <b>20% to 50% (Appendix A, self-certification)<\/b> and <b>50% (Appendix B, statutory auditor certification with half-yearly certificates within 60 days)<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 57,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"The Public Procurement Cycle comprises which of the following stages in order?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Need Assessment \u2192 Bid Invitation Process \u2192 Bid Evaluation and Award of Contract \u2192 Contract Management \u2192 Disposal of Scrap\",\r\n      \"Bid Invitation Process \u2192 Need Assessment \u2192 Bid Evaluation \u2192 Contract Management \u2192 Disposal of Scrap\",\r\n      \"Need Assessment \u2192 Bid Evaluation \u2192 Bid Invitation Process \u2192 Contract Management \u2192 Payment\",\r\n      \"Procurement Planning \u2192 Bid Invitation \u2192 Negotiation \u2192 Award \u2192 Closure\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A)<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.13 \u2014 the Public Procurement Cycle:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"a) <b>Need Assessment<\/b>: Need assessment, formulation of Specifications and Procurement Planning (including market consultation, if required).<br>\r\nb) <b>Bid Invitation Process<\/b>: Preparing tender documents, publication, receipt and opening of bids;<br>\r\nc) <b>Bid Evaluation and Award of Contract<\/b>;<br>\r\nd) <b>Contract Management<\/b>: Contract management and closure.<br>\r\ne) <b>Disposal of Scrap<\/b>: Disposal of Scrap through various modes of disposal.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 58,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"In standardised public procurement nomenclature, the term 'Tender' is used for:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The bid submitted by the bidders\",\r\n      \"The Tender Document prepared and published by the Procuring Entity, or the Tender Process\",\r\n      \"Only the Notice Inviting Tenders\",\r\n      \"The comparative statement of bids\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) The Tender Document\/Tender Process<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.14:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"An attempt is made to standardise the term <b>'Tender' for 'Tender Document'<\/b> (document prepared and published by the Procuring Entity, instead of bid\/ bidding document) <b>or 'Tender Process'<\/b> and <b>Bid for the 'bid' submitted by the 'bidders'<\/b> and hence <b>'bidder' is used instead of the tenderer<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nThis standardisation is done without disturbing nomenclature (e.g., Pre-qualification Bidding) embedded in the CPPP or GeM portals.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 59,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Section 4(1)(b) of the RTI Act is relevant to public procurement because it:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Exempts procurement information from disclosure\",\r\n      \"Lays down the information to be disclosed by public authorities on a suo-motu or proactive basis, including procurement notices, tender enquiries, corrigenda and details of bid awards\",\r\n      \"Prescribes penalties for procurement officers\",\r\n      \"Mandates e-procurement for all purchases\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) Suo-motu\/proactive disclosure of procurement information<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.12:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Section 4(1)(b) of the RTI Act lays down the information to be disclosed by public authorities on a <b>suo-motu or proactive basis<\/b>... 'Information relating to procurement made by public authorities including publication of <b>notice\/tender enquiries, corrigenda thereon, and details of bid awards<\/b> detailing the name of the Vendor\/ Contractor... and the rate and total amount... should be disclosed.'\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nDoPT issued the \"Guidelines on suo motu disclosure under Section 4 of the RTI Act\" via OM dated <b>April 15, 2013<\/b>; proactive disclosure also reduces the need for filing individual RTI applications.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 60,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 1: Principles & Policies',\r\n    question: \"Under the Rule 144(xi) Order, in Category-II sensitive sectors, the requirement of registration for a particular item\/application (even if included in Schedule III) can be waived by:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The DPIIT with the concurrence of NSCS\",\r\n      \"The Secretary (or an officer not below the rank of Joint Secretary so authorized) of the concerned Ministry\/Department, who shall thereafter inform DPIIT and NSCS of the decision\",\r\n      \"The Registration Committee alone\",\r\n      \"The Cabinet Committee on Security only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) Secretary (or authorised JS) of the concerned Ministry, informing DPIIT and NSCS<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 1.11.4-5(d):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"In Category-ll sensitive sectors, the <b>Secretary (or an officer not below the rank of Joint Secretary to Government of India, so authorized by the Secretary)<\/b> of the Ministry\/ Department... is empowered, after due consideration, to <b>waive the requirement of registration<\/b> for a particular item\/ application or a class of items\/ applications..., even if included in Schedule III. The Ministry\/ Department concerned shall <b>inform the DPIIT and National Security Council Secretariat (NSCS)<\/b> of their decision... Ministries\/ Departments... are <b>not required to consult<\/b> the DPIIT\/ NSCS before deciding.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nIf DPIIT\/NSCS raises any point, it is considered in <b>future<\/b> procurements \u2014 ongoing procurement with the waiver need not be interrupted.`\r\n  },\r\n\r\n  \/\/ ==================== CHAPTER 2: NEED ASSESSMENT, SPECIFICATIONS & PLANNING ====================\r\n  {\r\n    id: 61,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 2: Need Assessment & Planning',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding need assessment:\\n1. Procurements should be initiated only based on an indent from the user Department.\\n2. Except in case of proprietary purchase from a selected single source, reference to trademark or brand names should be avoided as far as possible.\\n3. Where reference to a brand name is unavoidable, such item descriptions should always be followed by the words 'or substantially equivalent'.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 2.1:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Procurements should be initiated <b>only based on an indent<\/b> (Annexure 5) from the user Department... Except in the case of <b>proprietary purchase from a selected single source<\/b>, reference to trademark, brand\/ trade names, catalogue numbers, or other details that limit any materials or items to the specific manufacturer(s) <b>should be avoided<\/b> as far as possible. Where unavoidable, such item descriptions should always be followed by the words <b>'or substantially equivalent.'<\/b>\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 62,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 2: Need Assessment & Planning',\r\n    question: \"For transparency in determining the quantity of procurement, an item should be bought in units of its manufacture. Buying steel\/structurals in which unit works to the disadvantage of the buyer?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Units of weight\",\r\n      \"Units of length\",\r\n      \"Units of numbers\",\r\n      \"Wagon loads\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) Units of length<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 2.1-2(c)(iii):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"For the sake of transparency, it is important to buy an item in <b>units of manufacture<\/b>. For example, it is better to buy steel\/structural in <b>units of weight<\/b> since it has a tolerance in weight per unit of length; this usually <b>works to the disadvantage of the buyer if it is bought in units of length<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nAlso: quantities should be rounded off to the nearest wagon load\/truckload\/package to economise on transportation, and buying\/issuing units, though possibly different, should be standardised.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 63,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 2: Need Assessment & Planning',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding budgetary quotes as a method of cost estimation for custom-built equipment:\\n1. Ideally, there should be three budgetary quotes, with an indicated time of ten to twenty-one days if feasible.\\n2. In the event of receipt of less than three budgetary quotes, two extensions may be considered.\\n3. Where more than one budgetary quote is received, the estimate should be framed on the lowest of the quotes.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1 and 2 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1 and 2 CORRECT (Para 2.1-2(f)(iii)(5)):<\/b> <i>\"Ideally, there should be <b>three quotes<\/b>... a time (if feasible, <b>ten to twenty-one days<\/b>) should be indicated. In the event of receipt of less than three budgetary quotes, <b>two extensions<\/b> (if feasible, of five days each) may be considered.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 INCORRECT:<\/b> <i>\"...where more than one budgetary quote is received, the estimate should be framed on an <b>AVERAGE of the quotes<\/b> which will reduce variations and fluctuations.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nCaution: budgetary quotes are not exact \u2014 a bidder expecting to be shortlisted may quote high, and one not expecting to be shortlisted may quote abnormally low to queer the pitch.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 64,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 2: Need Assessment & Planning',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding formulation of Technical Specifications:\\n1. Specifications should set out characteristics to meet just the bare essential needs, without superfluous and non-essential features.\\n2. Preference should be given to procuring goods carrying the BIS mark.\\n3. An indenting authority may, for reasons to be recorded in writing, base the TS on equivalent international standards even in cases where BIS standards exist.\\n4. All dimensions in specifications shall be indicated in FPS units, with metric equivalents optional.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1, 2 and 3 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1, 2 and 3 CORRECT (Para 2.2.1):<\/b> TS should meet <i>\"just the <b>bare essential specific needs<\/b>... without including superfluous and non-essential features, which may result in unwarranted expenditure\"<\/i>; <i>\"Preference should be given to procure the goods which carry the <b>BIS mark<\/b>\"<\/i>; and <i>\"an indenting authority may, <b>for reasons to be recorded in writing<\/b>, base the TS on equivalent international standards even in cases where BIS standards exist.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 4 INCORRECT:<\/b> <i>\"All dimensions incorporated in the specifications shall be indicated in <b>METRIC units<\/b>. If, for some unavoidable reason, dimensions in FPS units are to be mentioned, the <b>corresponding equivalents in the metric system MUST also be indicated<\/b>.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 65,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 2: Need Assessment & Planning',\r\n    question: \"Under the BEE Standards & Labelling Programme, the threshold star ratings prescribed by the Ministry of Finance for procurement include which of the following?\\n1. Split Air Conditioners (normal usage above 1000 hrs annually) \u2014 5 Star\\n2. Split Air Conditioners with limited usage (e.g., conference rooms) \u2014 3 Star\\n3. Frost Free Refrigerators \u2014 4 Star\\n4. Ceiling Fans \u2014 5 Star\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 2.2.1-8(d)(iii) \u2014 threshold Star Ratings prescribed by the Ministry of Finance:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\u2022 Split Air conditioners: <b>5 Star<\/b> (normal conditions, annual usage more than 1000 Hrs); <b>3 Star<\/b> (limited usage, e.g., conference rooms)<br>\r\n\u2022 Frost Free Refrigerators: <b>4 Star<\/b><br>\r\n\u2022 Ceiling Fans: <b>5 Star<\/b><br>\r\n\u2022 Water Heaters: <b>5 Star<\/b><\/i><br><br>\r\nThe BEE was set up on <b>March 1, 2002<\/b> under the Energy Conservation Act, 2001. Labelling is <b>mandatory for 11<\/b> of the 34 covered appliances. Building BEE star rating into TS is per <b>Rule 173(xvii) of GFR 2017<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 66,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 2: Need Assessment & Planning',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding procurement involving samples:\\n1. Calling for a sample along with the tender and deciding based on evaluation of the sample should not be done.\\n2. Three copies of the purchaser's reference sample may be displayed for prospective bidders to illustrate indeterminable characteristics such as shade\/tone, feel, finish and workmanship.\\n3. If a demonstration of newly developed equipment is considered necessary, it may be planned only during the pre-bid stage, and evaluation of tenders should not be based on it.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 2.2.1-9:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Calling for a sample along with the tender or requiring a demonstration of equipment after bid opening and deciding based on evaluation of the sample\/ demonstration <b>should NOT be done<\/b>... If desired, <b>three copies of the purchaser's reference sample<\/b> with seal\/ label may be displayed for prospective bidders to illustrate the desired <b>indeterminable characteristics<\/b>... If a demonstration of equipment (say entirely newly developed equipment) is considered necessary, it may be planned <b>only during the pre-bid stage<\/b>, but the evaluation of tenders should not be based on this.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nOf the three reference samples, on contract placement: one goes to the <b>contractor<\/b>, one to the <b>consignee<\/b>, and one is kept <b>under lock and key<\/b> in the sample room.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 67,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 2: Need Assessment & Planning',\r\n    question: \"The procuring entity shall publish information regarding planned procurement activities for the forthcoming year(s) on GeM\/CPPP\/its own portal. Such publication:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Shall be construed as initiation of the procurement process\",\r\n      \"Shall confer a right on prospective bidders to receive the tender document\",\r\n      \"Shall not be construed as initiation of a procurement process and shall not cast any obligation to issue the tender document or confer any right on prospective bidders\",\r\n      \"Shall bind the procuring entity to complete the procurement within the year\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: C) No initiation, no obligation, no rights conferred<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 2.5.1-1 (Rule 144(x), GFR 2017):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"The procuring entity shall publish information regarding the planned procurement activities for the forthcoming year or years on the Government e-Marketplace (GeM), GeM-Central Public Procurement portal and website\/e-procurement portal... <b>with a caveat that such publication shall not be construed as an initiation of a procurement process and cast any obligation on the procuring entity to issue the tender document or confer any right on prospective bidders<\/b>.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 68,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 2: Need Assessment & Planning',\r\n    question: \"Within how many working days of receipt of the indent from the user Department should the procuring authorities critically review the description and Technical Specifications enclosed with the indent?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"7 working days\",\r\n      \"10 working days\",\r\n      \"15 working days\",\r\n      \"21 working days\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 10 working days<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 2.5.1-2(a):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Within <b>10 (Ten) working days<\/b> of receipt of the indent from the user Department, the procuring authorities should critically review the description and TS enclosed with the indent for <b>completeness\/approvals\/funding, VfM and possibility of the widest competition<\/b> and seek clarifications from the indenting officer, if needed, before initiating such procurement.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 69,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 2: Need Assessment & Planning',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding packaging\/slicing of requirements:\\n1. The procuring authority shall normally neither package nor divide its procurement to limit competition or to avoid the necessity of obtaining the sanction of a higher authority.\\n2. In the interest of efficiency, economy, timely completion, wider competition, or access to MSEs, procurement may be divided into appropriate packages for reasons recorded in writing.\\n3. An exceptionally large value package contract may restrict competition to big firms.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 2.5.1-2(b):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"The procuring authority shall normally <b>neither package nor divide its procurement<\/b>... to limit competition among bidders or to <b>avoid the necessity of obtaining the sanction of higher authority<\/b> required with reference to the estimated value of the total demand (Rule 157 of GFR 2017). Provided that in the interest of <b>efficiency, economy, timely completion or supply, wider competition, or access to MSEs<\/b>, a procuring authority may, <b>for reasons to be recorded in writing<\/b>, divide its procurement into appropriate packages or club requirements... An <b>exceptionally large value package contract may restrict competition to big firms<\/b>.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 70,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 2: Need Assessment & Planning',\r\n    question: \"Which of the following measures are suggested for mitigating cartel formation at the Need Assessment and Procurement Planning stage?\\n1. Encouraging new firms to register themselves for the subject goods\\n2. Reviewing tailor-made technical specifications to examine why a commercially available alternative cannot be used\\n3. Holding pre-bid conferences physically as often as possible to bring bidders together\\n4. Changing the mode of procurement (e.g., OTE instead of LTE) and varying the quantity\/pre-qualification criteria\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 1, 2 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1, 2 and 4 CORRECT (Para 2.5.1-2(i)):<\/b> New firms may be encouraged to register; tailor-made specifications may be reviewed for commercially available alternatives; and quantity\/conditions may be varied \u2014 change mode (OTE instead of LTE, GTE instead of OTE), package\/slice quantities, club items, and change pre-qualification criteria.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Processes, e.g., <b>pre-bid conferences (where a considerable number of competing bidders come together on a platform), may facilitate such cartel formation. This may be avoided as far as feasible or be held only VIRTUALLY<\/b>.\"<\/i> Pre-bid conferences are nonetheless advantageous (and must be done where necessary) for turnkey contracts, sophisticated\/costly equipment, large works and complex consultancy.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 71,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 2: Need Assessment & Planning',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements:\\n1. Delays in need assessment may lead to shortcut procurement procedures that dilute transparency and prevent achievement of value for money.\\n2. In urgent cases with shorter delivery schedules, an urgency certificate should be recorded and approved by the authority empowered to grant administrative approval for the indent.\\n3. Before granting administrative\/budgetary approval to an indent, it should be certified that funds are available in the budget and the liability is noted against the total available budget.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Paras 2.3 and 2.4:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Before granting such approvals, it should be certified that <b>funds in the budget are available and liability for this indent is noted against the total available budget<\/b>. In case the delivery schedule is urgent (or shorter than the usual lead time), an <b>urgency certificate<\/b> should be recorded to justify the urgency... In the case of urgent requirements, the urgency certificate should be <b>approved by an authority empowered to grant administrative approval for the indent<\/b>, recording justification \u2013 why the need could not be formulated earlier.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nIndentors monitor progress via registers in <b>Annexures 6 and 7<\/b>; the indent itself is a Purchase Requisition per <b>Annexure 5<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 72,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 2: Need Assessment & Planning',\r\n    question: \"As a mitigation against large packages restricting participation of MSEs, it is suggested that:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Large packages should be banned altogether\",\r\n      \"Bidders may be allowed to bid for slices of the package by depositing proportional EMD\",\r\n      \"MSEs should be given the entire package on nomination basis\",\r\n      \"EMD should be waived for all bidders in large packages\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) Bidding for slices with proportional EMD<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 2.5.2 (Risks and Mitigations):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Lay down a clear policy for packaging and bundling of requirements. In large packages, the <b>affordability of EMD and resultant restriction on competition<\/b> may be kept in view, and <b>bidders may be allowed to bid for slices of the package by depositing proportional EMD<\/b>.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 73,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 2: Need Assessment & Planning',\r\n    question: \"In strategizing large procurements, formal market research is recommended to reveal market parameters for designing optimal procurement strategies. Which of the following are among such market parameters?\\n1. Total production capacities and total demand for the item in the country and abroad\\n2. Level of competition and cartelization among suppliers\\n3. Supply chain constraints, raw materials bottlenecks and geopolitical issues\\n4. Seasonality of prices and appropriateness of timing of market entry\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 2.5.1-3 \u2014 market parameters for large procurements include:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"a) <b>Total Production Capacities and total demand<\/b>... b) <b>Volumes of procurement<\/b>: ...Would clubbing demands increase bargaining power?... c) <b>Level of competition<\/b> \u2013 location-wise number of suppliers, co-ordination\/ cartelization among them... d) <b>Supply chain constraints, Raw materials bottlenecks, logistics, geopolitical issues<\/b>. e) <b>Specifications and variations<\/b>: patents, manufacturing processes... f) <b>Pricing Trends: Seasonality of prices<\/b>, is it the appropriate time to enter the market?\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<i>\"Large procurements require the application of mind... where the <b>blind application of rules may not bring VfM<\/b>.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n\r\n  \/\/ ==================== CHAPTER 3: SUPPLIER RELATIONSHIP MANAGEMENT ====================\r\n  {\r\n    id: 74,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 3: Supplier Relationship Management',\r\n    question: \"Under the Code of Integrity for Public Procurement, any collusion, bid rigging or anti-competitive arrangement between two or more bidders, with or without the knowledge of the procuring entity, to establish bid prices at artificial non-competitive levels is termed as:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Corrupt practice\",\r\n      \"Fraudulent practice\",\r\n      \"Anti-competitive practice\",\r\n      \"Obstructive practice\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: C) Anti-competitive practice<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 3.2-1(a)(iii):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"'<b>Anti-competitive practice<\/b>': any collusion, bid rigging or anti-competitive arrangement, or any other practice coming under the purview of <b>The Competition Act, 2002<\/b>, between two or more bidders, with or without the knowledge of the procuring entity, that may impair the transparency, fairness, and the progress of the procurement process or to establish bid prices at <b>artificial, non-competitive levels<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nThe seven prohibited practices under CIPP: <b>Corrupt, Fraudulent, Anti-competitive, Coercive practices, Conflict of Interest, Undue Advantage and Obstructive practice<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 75,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 3: Supplier Relationship Management',\r\n    question: \"Under the CIPP, 'Undue Advantage' includes the situation where:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"A bidder offers a bribe to a procuring official\",\r\n      \"The bidder (or his allied firm) provided services for the need assessment\/procurement planning of the tender process in which he is participating\",\r\n      \"A bidder threatens another bidder to withdraw from the tender\",\r\n      \"A bidder submits a false declaration of local content\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) Bidder participated in need assessment\/procurement planning of the same tender<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 3.2-1(a)(vi):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"'<b>Undue Advantage<\/b>': improper use of information obtained by the bidder from the procuring entity with an intent to gain an unfair advantage... This also includes if the <b>bidder (or his allied firm) provided services for the need assessment\/ procurement planning<\/b> of the tender process in which he is participating\"<\/i> \u2014 i.e., preparation of feasibility\/cost estimates\/DPR, design\/technical specifications, ToR or the Tender Document itself.<br><br>\r\nOption A is 'Corrupt practice'; Option C is 'Coercive practice'; Option D is 'Fraudulent practice'.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 76,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 3: Supplier Relationship Management',\r\n    question: \"Under the CIPP, bidders must proactively disclose in a tender:\\n1. Any Conflict of Interest \u2014 pre-existing or as soon as it arises at any stage.\\n2. Any previous transgressions of the Code with any entity in any country during the last three years, or of being debarred by any other procuring entity.\\n3. Any commissions or fees paid or payable to agents\/representatives concerning the selection process or execution of the contract.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 3.2-1(b) \u2014 all three disclosures are mandatory:<\/b> COI (suo-moto, pre-existing or arising later); <i>\"any previous transgressions... with any entity in any country during the <b>last three years<\/b> or of being debarred by any other procuring entity\"<\/i>; and commissions\/fees to agents (name, address, amount, currency and purpose).<br><br>\r\n<b>Note:<\/b> To encourage voluntary disclosures, <i>\"such declarations would <b>not mean automatic disqualification<\/b>\"<\/i> \u2014 the declared COI may be evaluated and mitigated; voluntary reporting of past transgressions (barring debarment cases) may lead to an alert watch rather than exclusion.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 77,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 3: Supplier Relationship Management',\r\n    question: \"Under the punitive provisions of the CIPP, in case of anti-competitive practices, information for further processing may be filed with the Competition Commission of India under the signature of an officer of which level?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Under Secretary\",\r\n      \"Deputy Secretary\",\r\n      \"Joint Secretary\",\r\n      \"Secretary\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: C) Joint Secretary<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 3.2-2(b)(ii):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"In case of anti-competitive practices, information for further processing may be filed under a signature of the <b>Joint Secretary level officer<\/b> with the <b>Competition Commission of India<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nOther punitive measures include: forfeiture\/encashment of bid security; calling off pre-contract negotiations; rejection\/exclusion of the bidder; cancellation of contract and recovery of compensation; recovery of payments with interest; removal from registered list and\/or debarment for a period <b>not less than six months<\/b>; and disciplinary\/criminal proceedings.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 78,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 3: Supplier Relationship Management',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the Integrity Pact:\\n1. Ministries\/Departments should incorporate the Integrity Pact in procurements of a threshold value decided with the approval of the Minister in charge.\\n2. As guidance, the threshold should cover bulk (80-90% by value) of the annual procurement expenditure.\\n3. As per CVC, Public Sector Banks, Public Sector Insurance Companies and Public Sector Financial Institutions shall also adopt and implement the Integrity Pact.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 3.3:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Ministries\/ Departments and their attached\/ subordinate offices (including autonomous bodies) should incorporate the Integrity Pact in the procurements\/ contracts of the nature and of a threshold value, decided by the Ministries\/ Departments <b>with the approval of the Minister in charge<\/b>. As guidance, the threshold should cover <b>bulk (80-90% by value) of its annual procurement expenditure<\/b>... CVC... has further stated that in view of the increasing procurement activities of <b>Public Sector Banks (PSBs), Public Sector Insurance Companies (PSICs) and Public Sector Financial Institutions (FIs) shall also adopt and implement<\/b> the suggested format of Integrity Pact.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nThe Integrity Pact binds <b>both buyers and sellers<\/b> to ethical conduct, removing bidders' insecurity that competitors may win by unfair means. CVC also has a role in appointing <b>Independent External Monitors (IEMs)<\/b> under the Pact.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 79,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 3: Supplier Relationship Management',\r\n    question: \"Under the grievance redressal mechanism, an aggrieved supplier may make an application for review within what period from the date of the decision\/action of the Procuring Entity?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Three (3) days\",\r\n      \"Five (5) days\",\r\n      \"Seven (7) days\",\r\n      \"Fifteen (15) days\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) Five (5) days<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 3.4-2:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Any supplier, contractor, or consultant that claims to have suffered or is likely to suffer loss or injury as a result of a decision\/ action\/ omission of the Procurement Entity may make an application for its review <b>within a period of Five (5) days<\/b> from its date, to the <b>designated officer<\/b> named in the tender documents (or the Head of the Procuring Entity, if not so specified)... Unsuccessful Bidders may seek <b>de-briefing<\/b> regarding the rejection of their bid, in writing or electronically, <b>within Five (5) days<\/b> of the declaration of techno-commercial or financial evaluation results.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nPost-award grievances must be redressed and closed <b>within 30 days<\/b> of receipt.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 80,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 3: Supplier Relationship Management',\r\n    question: \"Which of the following decisions of the procuring entity are NOT subject to review under the grievance redressal mechanism?\\n1. Determination of the need for procurement\\n2. Selection of the mode of procurement or tendering system\\n3. The decision to enter into negotiations with the L1 bidder\\n4. Complaints against specifications on the premise that they are vague or too specific to limit competition\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1, 2 and 3 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 3.4-3(d) \u2014 decisions NOT subject to review include:<\/b> determination of the need; selection of mode of procurement\/tendering system; choice of selection procedure; provisions limiting participation per government policies; purchase preferences per policy; <b>decision to enter into negotiations with L1<\/b>; cancellation of procurement except where intended to re-tender; and post-signature ambiguity issues.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 4 is the EXCEPTION:<\/b> <i>\"Complaints against specifications <b>except under the premise that they are either vague or too specific to limit competition may be permissible<\/b>\"<\/i> \u2014 i.e., complaints that specifications are vague or restrictive ARE reviewable.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 81,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 3: Supplier Relationship Management',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding gifts and hospitality for public servants in procurement:\\n1. Cash, gift cheques or vouchers exchangeable for cash may be accepted if below the conduct rules limit.\\n2. Any gift received inadvertently in violation of norms must immediately either be returned or reported and deposited in Toshakhana\/Treasury.\\n3. Officials must never seek discounts on private purchases from suppliers having official dealings, particularly on items ordered officially on rate contracts.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 2 and 3 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 1 INCORRECT (Para 3.5-2):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"<b>Cash, gift cheques or any vouchers that may be exchanged for cash may NOT be accepted, regardless of the amount<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 2 and 3 CORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Any gift received inadvertently in violation of the above must immediately either be <b>returned or reported and deposited in Toshakhana\/ Treasury<\/b>... Officials involved in Public Procurement must never indulge in any non-official pecuniary transaction with the contractors, suppliers, or service providers with whom they have official dealings, including <b>seeking or accepting special facilities or discounts on private purchases<\/b> (particularly the same items that are being ordered officially on <b>rate contracts<\/b>).\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 82,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 3: Supplier Relationship Management',\r\n    question: \"A Conflict of Interest (actual, potential or perceived) can arise if a procurement official or his close family has substantial business interests in the bidding firm, illustratively quantified as shares of more than:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"0.1% of the market cap of the firm\",\r\n      \"1% of the market cap of the firm\",\r\n      \"5% of the paid-up capital of the firm\",\r\n      \"10% of the market cap of the firm\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 0.1% of market cap<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 3.5-5(b):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"COI (actual, potential, or perceived) can arise if such officers (or his close family) have: i) <b>Substantial business interests in the firm (e.g., shares more than 0.1% of market cap)<\/b>, taken a loan or other financial obligation... ii) Business relationships with the firm... iii) Familial relationship with the personnel of the firm. iv) close personal friendships or regular (say, <b>more than once in a quarter<\/b>) social interactions...\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>Resolution:<\/b> The official must declare COI to the Competent Authority\/next higher officer, who either determines the COI is insignificant (officer continues) or <b>nominates an alternative officer<\/b> for the function. 'Close family' = spouse, parents, children and their families.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 83,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 3: Supplier Relationship Management',\r\n    question: \"Match the following concepts relating to supplier lists:\\nA. Registration \u2014 1. To establish prima-facie capability for restricted tendering (e.g., limited tendering panels)\\nB. Empanelment \u2014 2. Shortlist of Qualified Bidders with extended validity through an open process (e.g., List of Approved Sources of Ministry of Railways)\\nC. Approved List\/Multi-use List \u2014 3. To establish genuine identification of the firm (e.g., for e-procurement portals)\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"A-3, B-1, C-2\",\r\n      \"A-1, B-3, C-2\",\r\n      \"A-3, B-2, C-1\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) A-3, B-1, C-2<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 3.6-1:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"a) <b>Registration<\/b> is to establish <b>genuine identification<\/b> of the firm (e.g., for e-procurement portals, preferential procurement...).<br>\r\nb) <b>Empanelment<\/b> is to establish <b>prima-facie capability for restricted tendering<\/b> (not open tendering, e.g., limited tendering panels).<br>\r\nc) <b>Pre-qualification & Approved List\/ Multi-use List<\/b>: ...prequalification may be done through an open process with an <b>extended validity of the Shortlist of Qualified Bidders<\/b> (called List of approved Sources, in some organisations, e.g., Ministry of Railways), for example, one year or longer.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nIn long-term multi-use lists, any competent bidder applying at any time should be examined per the original criteria. Normally, in open tendering, there should be <b>no restriction on prior registration<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 84,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 3: Supplier Relationship Management',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding registration of manufacturers as suppliers:\\n1. One of the main prerequisites for registration as a manufacturer is that the firm should possess its own in-house testing facilities.\\n2. MSE units need not have their own testing facilities but must have regular arrangements with other reputed agencies for product testing.\\n3. For firms with ISO 9001-2000 certification, the Procuring Entity may consider registration without carrying out a capacity assessment, and there is no need to verify the quality processes in place.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1 and 2 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1 and 2 CORRECT (Para 3.6-7):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"One of the main prerequisites for registration as a manufacturer is that the firm should possess its <b>own in-house testing facilities<\/b>. In the case of <b>MSE units<\/b>, the firm does not need its own testing facilities but <b>regular arrangements<\/b> with other reputed government or government-approved or private agencies in its area for product testing.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Even in the case of firms that have an established quality maintenance system with ISO 9001-2000 certification..., <b>it is necessary for the Procuring Entity to verify the quality processes<\/b> put in place\"<\/i> \u2014 capacity assessment may be skipped, but quality-process verification cannot.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 85,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 3: Supplier Relationship Management',\r\n    question: \"In the illustrative (non-mandatory) gradation of registered firms based on monetary limits, Grade-A corresponds to:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Rupees One lakh and up to Rupees five lakh\",\r\n      \"Rupees five lakh to Rupees twenty-five lakh\",\r\n      \"Rs. 25 lakh and above\",\r\n      \"Rs. 50 lakh and above\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: C) Rs. 25 lakh and above<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 3.6-8 \u2014 example of gradation:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"a) <b>Grade-A: Rs. 25 lakh and above<\/b>;<br>\r\nb) Grade B: Rupees five lakh to Rs. 25 lakh;<br>\r\nc) Grade C: Rupees One lakh and up to Rupees five lakh.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nRelated point (Para 3.6-9): Firms registered for supply of orders valued <b>above Rupees five lakh should invariably be manufacturers or their authorised agents<\/b>; wherever practical, manufacturers (not agents\/intermediaries) should be registered.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 86,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 3: Supplier Relationship Management',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the procedure for registration of suppliers:\\n1. Registered vendors who do not respond to at least three tenders in a year (out of at least six invitations) may be removed from the list of registered vendors.\\n2. Registration is valid for a specified period of one to three years.\\n3. Registration would initially be treated as provisional and treated as confirmed only after the firm has satisfactorily executed one order of the relevant category and value.\\n4. Suppliers should possess a valid Class III Digital Signature Certificate with the company name at the time of registration.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 3.6-10 \u2014 all four correct:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"In case they do not respond to at least <b>three (3) tenders in a year<\/b> on being invited to do so (if there were at least <b>6 invitations<\/b> to them), they may be removed... the registration is valid for a specified period <b>(one to three years)<\/b>... the registration would be initially treated as <b>provisional<\/b>, and it would be treated as <b>confirmed only after the firm has satisfactorily executed one order<\/b> of the relevant category and value... Suppliers should possess a valid <b>Digital Signature Certificate (DSCs) Class III<\/b> with the company name at the time of registration\/ renewal.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nRegistered suppliers are ordinarily <b>exempted from EMD<\/b> for items\/monetary limits for which they are registered (Rule 150 GFR).`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 87,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 3: Supplier Relationship Management',\r\n    question: \"A bidder convicted of an offence under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 shall be debarred from participating in procurement of any procuring entity for a period:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Not exceeding two years\",\r\n      \"Not exceeding three years\",\r\n      \"Not less than five years\",\r\n      \"Of exactly three years\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) Not exceeding three years<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 3.7.1 (Rule 151, GFR 2017):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"A bidder shall be debarred if he has been convicted of an offence \u2014 i) under the <b>Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988<\/b>, or ii) the IPC 1860 or any other law... for causing any <b>loss of life or property or causing a threat to public health<\/b> as part of the execution of a public procurement contract. A bidder debarred..., or any successor of the bidder, shall not be eligible... for a period <b>not exceeding three years<\/b> commencing from the date of debarment.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>Contrast:<\/b> Debarment by a procuring entity for <b>breach of the code of integrity<\/b> is for a period <b>not exceeding TWO years<\/b>. In both cases, the bidder must be given a <b>reasonable opportunity to represent<\/b> against debarment.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 88,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 3: Supplier Relationship Management',\r\n    question: \"Under the Debarment Guidelines (DoE OM dated 02.11.2021), where debarment is proposed to be extended beyond the jurisdiction of a single Ministry \u2014 covering all Central Ministries\/Departments \u2014 the requisite Orders shall be issued by:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The Ministry concerned with the approval of its Minister\",\r\n      \"The Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance\",\r\n      \"The Central Vigilance Commission\",\r\n      \"The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 3.7.2-2(a):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"i) In cases where debarment is proposed to be <b>limited to a single Ministry, the Ministry itself<\/b> can issue the appropriate Orders... ii) Where it is proposed to <b>extend the debarment beyond the jurisdiction of the Ministry<\/b>, i.e., covering all central Ministries\/ Departments, the requisite Orders shall be issued by the <b>Department of Expenditure (DoE), Ministry of Finance<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nDoE-wide debarment (up to <b>3 years<\/b>, for Rule 151(i) convictions) is displayed on the <b>GeM-CPPP<\/b> and binds all Ministries, attached\/subordinate offices, CPSEs and autonomous bodies. DoE shall complete the debarment process <b>within 12 weeks<\/b> of receiving the proposal and can also act <b>suo-moto<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 89,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 3: Supplier Relationship Management',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding debarment by a single Ministry\/Department:\\n1. The debarment order shall be circulated to all other Ministries\/Departments for parallel action.\\n2. The Secretary of the Ministry may nominate an officer of the rank of Joint Secretary\/Additional Secretary as the competent authority to debar firms.\\n3. Debarment is an executive function and should not be allocated to the Vigilance Department.\\n4. The suggested timeline for completing the debarment process is 12 weeks from the zero-day, after which the debarment period starts.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 2, 3 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 1 INCORRECT (Para 3.7.2-3(b)):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"The debarment order shall <b>NOT be circulated to other Ministries\/ Departments<\/b>. It will only be applicable to all the attached\/ subordinate offices, Autonomous bodies, CPSEs, etc. <b>of the Ministry\/ Department issuing<\/b> the debarment Order.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 2, 3, 4 CORRECT:<\/b> The Secretary may nominate a <b>JS\/AS-level competent authority<\/b>; <i>\"Debarment is an <b>executive function<\/b> and should not be allocated to the Vigilance Department\"<\/i>; and the suggested quasi-judicial timeline totals <b>12 weeks<\/b> (show-cause notice, submissions, oral hearing, final order with 2 weeks to appeal to the Secretary as appellate authority; appeal disposal \u2014 4 further weeks).`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 90,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 3: Supplier Relationship Management',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding common provisions applicable to debarments:\\n1. An order for debarment shall be deemed to have been automatically revoked on expiry of the period specified, without a specific formal order of revocation.\\n2. Bids are considered only from firms that are neither debarred on the date of opening of the tender nor on the date of contract.\\n3. If a debarred firm submits a bid and is L1, the tender must be cancelled and re-invited.\\n4. Debarment shall be automatically extended to all allied firms of the debarred firm.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 1, 2 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1, 2, 4 CORRECT (Para 3.7.2-6, 7):<\/b> Automatic revocation on expiry; bids considered only from firms not debarred on <b>date of opening of tender (first\/technical bid)<\/b> nor on <b>date of contract (LoA)<\/b>; debarment <b>automatically extends to all allied firms<\/b> (and to all partners of a debarred JV\/consortium, whose names must be specified in the Order).<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"If any debarred firm submits the bid, <b>it will be ignored. In case such firm is lowest (L-1), the NEXT lowest firm shall be considered as L-1<\/b>. Bid security submitted by such debarred firms shall be returned.\"<\/i> No re-tender is required. Also: contracts concluded <b>before<\/b> the debarment order are unaffected; even <b>risk purchase<\/b> orders cannot go to debarred firms; ordinarily debarment should not be <b>less than six months<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 91,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 3: Supplier Relationship Management',\r\n    question: \"Ministries\/Departments may, if they so require, enlist:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Foreign principals directly\",\r\n      \"Indian agents who desire to quote directly on behalf of their foreign principals\",\r\n      \"Only manufacturers of indigenous goods\",\r\n      \"Sub-contractors of registered suppliers\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) Indian agents quoting on behalf of foreign principals<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 3.8 (Rule 152 of GFR 2017):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Ministries\/ Departments, if they so require, may enlist <b>Indian agents who desire to quote directly on behalf of their foreign principals<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nNote also the registration categories under Para 3.6-6: (a) manufacturers of indigenous items; (b) agents\/distributors of such manufacturers; (c) foreign manufacturers with\/without accredited agents in India; (d) stockists of imported spares; (e) suppliers of imported goods having regular arrangements with foreign manufacturers.`\r\n  },\r\n\r\n  \/\/ ==================== CHAPTER 4: MODES OF PROCUREMENT & TENDERING SYSTEMS ====================\r\n  {\r\n    id: 92,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Match the following modes of procurement with their categories:\\nA. Electronic Reverse Auction (eRA) \u2014 1. Nomination Modes\\nB. Approved Vendor List (AVL) \u2014 2. Shopping Modes\\nC. Proprietary Article Certificate (PAC) \u2014 3. Advertised Modes\\nD. Direct Procurement by Purchase Committee \u2014 4. Pre-Qualification Modes\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2\",\r\n      \"A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2\",\r\n      \"A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1\",\r\n      \"A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 4.1-3 \u2014 the five categories of modes:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>a) <b>Advertised Modes<\/b> (Rule 161): OTE, GTE, Rate Contracts, <b>eRA<\/b>;<br>\r\nb) <b>Pre-Qualification Modes<\/b>: PQB and <b>AVL<\/b>;<br>\r\nc) <b>Restricted Modes<\/b> (Rule 162): LTE (up to Rs. 50 lakh) and SLTE (above Rs. 50 lakh in exceptional circumstances);<br>\r\nd) <b>Nomination Modes<\/b> (Rule 166): <b>PAC<\/b> and STE without PAC;<br>\r\ne) <b>Shopping Modes<\/b> (Rules 154, 155): Direct Procurement without Quotation and <b>Direct Procurement by Purchase Committee<\/b>.<\/i><br><br>\r\nThe mode of procurement addresses the <b>'Right Source'<\/b> of the 5Rs. Thresholds were revised upwards vide PPD OM No. F.1\/3\/2014-PPD dated <b>10.07.2024<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 93,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding Open Tender Enquiry (OTE):\\n1. OTE is the default mode of procurement for procurements exceeding the threshold of Rs. 50 lakhs.\\n2. Prior registration with the Procuring Entity should not be insisted upon for participation.\\n3. It is mandatory to issue advertisements in newspapers in addition to GeM and CPPP.\\n4. No cost of tender documents may be charged for documents downloaded by bidders.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 1, 2 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1, 2, 4 CORRECT (Paras 4.2, 4.2.1):<\/b> OTE is the <b>default mode<\/b> above <b>Rs. 50 lakh<\/b>; <i>\"especially <b>prior registration with the Procuring Entity should not be insisted upon<\/b>\"<\/i>; and <i>\"<b>no cost of tender documents may be charged<\/b> for the tender documents downloaded by the bidders.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"While it is <b>no longer mandatory to issue advertisements in newspapers<\/b>, there is no bar to issuing such advertisements if the procuring entities consider them necessary.\"<\/i> Mandatory publication is on <b>GeM and GeM-CPPP<\/b> (www.eprocure.gov.in), plus the organisation's own website.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 94,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"In an Open Tender Enquiry, ordinarily the due date fixed for opening of the tender shall be a minimum of how many days from the date of advertisement?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"14 days\",\r\n      \"21 days\",\r\n      \"28 days\",\r\n      \"30 days\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 21 days<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 4.2.2 (Mitigation):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Ordinarily, the due date fixed for the opening of the tender shall be a <b>minimum of 21 (twenty-one) days from the date of advertisement<\/b>, which may vary, considering the nature of the material called for and delivery requirements.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>Contrast:<\/b> In <b>GTE<\/b>, the minimum is <b>four weeks<\/b> from the date of advertisement. In <b>PQB<\/b>, minimum 3 weeks (4 weeks with foreign bidders), reducible to 10 days in approved urgency.<br><br>\r\nAlso note: <i>\"a limited or open tender that results in <b>only one effective offer<\/b> shall be treated as a <b>single tender enquiry<\/b> situation, with relevant powers of approval.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 95,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding currency and consortium provisions in domestic open tenders:\\n1. Bids can be submitted only in INR, and any bid in foreign currency should be summarily rejected.\\n2. A foreign bidder can be a consortium member in a domestic open tender for turnkey projects, subject to the consortium as a whole meeting the minimum local content criteria under the MII Order.\\n3. The leader of the consortium cannot be a foreign party.\\n4. No payment can be made in foreign currency to the foreign consortium member.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 1, 2 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Paras 4.2.1-6 and 7:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"In domestic tenders, bids can be submitted <b>only in INR<\/b>, and any bid in foreign currency should be <b>summarily rejected<\/b>. Foreign bidders can also participate if they submit a bid in INR... a foreign bidder can be a consortium member, subject to the condition that the <b>consortium as a whole meets the minimum local content criteria<\/b>, as per the Make in India Order, 2017. <b>The leader of the consortium CAN be a foreign party<\/b>, and the bids are to be solicited in Indian Rupee only, i.e., <b>no payment can be made in foreign currency<\/b> to the foreign consortium member.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nStatement 3 is the reverse of the actual provision.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 96,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding Global Tender Enquiry (GTE):\\n1. GTE tender documents must be in English.\\n2. In GTE, e-procurement may not be mandatorily insisted upon.\\n3. The due date for opening shall be a minimum of four weeks from the date of advertisement.\\n4. Indian bidders in a GTE may quote in freely convertible foreign currencies.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1, 2 and 3 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1-3 CORRECT (Para 4.3.1):<\/b> GTE documents <b>must be in English<\/b> with specifications per national requirements or international trade standards; <i>\"In Global Tender Enquiry, <b>e-procurement may not be mandatorily insisted upon<\/b>\"<\/i> (e-publishing remains mandatory); minimum <b>four weeks<\/b> for opening.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 4 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"<b>Indian bidders are required to quote in INR only<\/b>.\"<\/i> Foreign bidders may quote\/receive payment in INR or freely convertible currencies (USD, Euro, Pound Sterling, Yen etc.) \u2014 but <i>\"prices for goods, works, or services (including Agency Commission) <b>performed or sourced in India must be quoted and paid for in Indian Rupees<\/b>.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 97,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding Agency Commission in GTE procurements:\\n1. The Agency Commission payable to the Indian Agent should normally not exceed five per cent.\\n2. Agency commission shall be paid by the Procuring Entity in India in equivalent Indian Rupees on satisfactory completion of the Project or supplies.\\n3. A certified copy of the Agency agreement between the bidder and the Indian Agent should be submitted along with the financial bid.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 4.3.1-9:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"The amount of Agency Commission (<b>normally not exceeding five per cent<\/b>) payable to the Indian Agent... should not be more than what is specified in the Agency agreement (<b>a certified copy should be submitted along with the financial bid<\/b>)... Agency commission shall be paid by the Procuring Entity in India in <b>equivalent Indian Rupees on satisfactory completion<\/b> of the Project or supplies of Goods and Spares.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nThe Indian Agent must certify with the commission bill that the amount has been\/will be spent strictly to render services to the foreign Principal; misrepresentations make both the foreign Principal and Indian Agent liable to <b>debarment<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 98,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"All Public Procurement import contracts involving ocean freight of dry or liquid bulk cargoes are to be finalized only on which basis?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"CIF (Cost, Insurance & Freight) basis\",\r\n      \"FOB (Free on Board)\/FAS (Free Alongside Ship) basis\",\r\n      \"DDP (Delivery Duty Paid) basis\",\r\n      \"CFR (Cost & Freight) basis\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) FOB\/FAS basis<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 4.3.1-10:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"...all Public Procurement import contracts involving (Ocean freight of <b>dry or liquid bulk cargoes<\/b>) are to be finalized <b>only on a FOB (Free on Board)\/ FAS (Free Alongside Ship) basis<\/b> and in case of any departure there-from, <b>prior approval of the concerned administrative Ministry\/ Department<\/b> may be obtained. However, imports involving ocean freight of <b>general liner cargoes, project cargoes, heavy lift, container, break bulk cargoes<\/b>, etc., can now be made on <b>FOB\/ FAS\/ CFR\/ CIF\/ DDP<\/b> basis.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nDepartments can make their <b>own shipping arrangements<\/b> without routing through the Chartering Wing of the Ministry of Shipping; <b>airlifting of imported goods only through an Indian carrier<\/b>, wherever applicable.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 99,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding insurance of imported goods in GTE procurements:\\n1. Insurance for imported goods needs to be arranged only for cases where the value of individual shipments is expected to be more than Rupees five crore.\\n2. Procuring entities with substantial import contracts may arrange 'Open Cover (all Risk)' annual insurance for all imports during the year instead of insuring each import separately.\\n3. Where delivery is on FOB\/FAS basis, marine\/air insurance shall be the supplier's responsibility.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1 and 2 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1 and 2 CORRECT (Para 4.3.1-11):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Insurance for imported goods\/equipment would need to be arranged very carefully and only for cases where the <b>value of individual shipments is expected to be more than Rupees five crore<\/b>. Procuring entities with substantial import contracts may arrange <b>'Open Cover (all Risk)' annual insurance<\/b> for all imports during the year.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Where delivery of imported goods is required... on <b>CIF\/CIP\/DDP<\/b> basis, the <b>supplier<\/b> shall arrange and pay for marine\/air insurance, making the purchaser the beneficiary. Where delivery is on a <b>FOB\/FAS<\/b> basis, marine\/air insurance shall be the <b>PURCHASER'S responsibility<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nAlso: IGST and GST cess on imports apply on the <b>'Customs Assessable Value' plus the Basic Customs Duty<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 100,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding restrictions on Global Tender Enquiry:\\n1. No GTE shall be invited up to Rs. 200 crores or any limit prescribed by the Department of Expenditure, in accordance with Rule 161(iv) of GFR 2017.\\n2. Applications for relaxation must be submitted online through the GTE Portal under the e-Samiksha platform (developed by the Cabinet Secretariat) starting from 5th May 2022, and no physical application will be received.\\n3. A domestic open tender must have been floated after 15.05.2020 for the items proposed to be procured through GTE, failing which the proposal will not be entertained.\\n4. The proposal must contain details of deliberations with DPIIT\/relevant industrial bodies regarding identification of domestic manufacturers.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 4.3.2 \u2014 all four correct:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"No Global Tender Enquiry (GTE) shall be invited <b>up to Rs. 200 crores<\/b>... [applications] shall submit their applications and comments <b>online through the GTE Portal under the e-Samiksha platform<\/b>... starting from <b>5th May 2022<\/b> and <b>no physical application<\/b> will be received ['GTE portal'... was developed by <b>Cabinet Secretariat<\/b>]... <b>Domestic open tender must be floated<\/b> to identify the domestic manufacturers... If the Ministry\/ Department has not floated a domestic open tender <b>after 15.05.2020<\/b>..., such proposals will not be entertained... The proposal must contain details of <b>deliberations with DPIIT\/ relevant industrial bodies<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nThe GTE restriction applies even to GTE in <b>SLTE\/LTE\/STE mode<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 101,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Which of the following are exempted from the restriction on floating GTE up to Rs. 200 crores?\\n1. Procurement of specialised equipment required for research purposes for Educational and Research Institutes, with the approval of the Secretary of the Ministry\/Department\\n2. Procurement of spare parts and AMC from OEMs on nomination basis\\n3. 354 Medical Devices and 120 Drugs (Annexure 31), up to 31.03.2027\\n4. Bona-fide procurements done outside India for use outside India by CPSEs having international operations or by Indian Missions abroad\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 4.3.2-4 \u2014 exemptions from the GTE restriction include:<\/b> research equipment for Educational\/Research Institutes (<b>Secretary<\/b> is competent authority, subject to I-STEM\/market-assessment conditions); <b>ICT items<\/b> (Secretary concerned); <b>nomination-basis<\/b> procurements \u2014 OEM\/OES\/OPM spares (including consumables) and AMC\/add-on components; pre-<b>15.05.2020<\/b> contractual commitments\/collaboration agreements; <b>354 Medical Devices and 120 Drugs<\/b> per MoH&FW reference, exempted <b>up to 31.03.2027<\/b>; <b>MDB\/BFA-funded projects<\/b> (Secretary of the executing Ministry approves for ABs\/CPSEs); <b>semiconductor<\/b> equipment\/fab facilities up to 31.03.2025; and procurements <b>outside India for use outside India<\/b>.<br><br>\r\n<b>Important:<\/b> <i>\"these exemptions are <b>only from restrictions on GTE<\/b>, and the local content preferences and other features of MII policy would still be applicable.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 102,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Under the GTE exemption for research equipment, which of the following are correctly stated?\\n1. Information about procurement of equipment should be shared across institutes through the I-STEM portal.\\n2. The DEAN (R&D) or an appropriate authority within the institute will issue the prescribed certificates before inviting GTE.\\n3. The indigenous development programme for scientific equipment is coordinated by the Empowered Technology Group, constituted by the Cabinet and chaired by the Principal Scientific Advisor.\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Paras 4.3.2-5 and 6:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Sharing and updating information about the availability of research equipment across various Indian Institutes on a single portal (the <b>I-STEM portal<\/b> has been developed for this purpose)... <b>DEAN (R&D)<\/b> or an appropriate authority within the institute will issue certificates... before inviting GTE... This programme will be coordinated by the <b>Empowered Technology Group (constituted by Cabinet and chaired by the Principal Scientific Advisor (PSA))<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nCertificates required: (a) locally available alternatives with equivalent specifications are not suitable; (b) non-availability of such equipment with nearby institutes or within the institute; (c) requirement of proprietary items of foreign origin. Market assessment is certified by the <b>Head of the Institution<\/b>; half-yearly reports go to the Office of the PSA, DPIIT and the Administrative Ministry.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 103,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"As a mitigation against risks involving foreign bidder agents in GTE, it is provided that:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Agents may quote on behalf of multiple manufacturers in the same tender\",\r\n      \"Either the agent on behalf of the foreign principal or the foreign principal directly could bid in a tender, but not both\",\r\n      \"Both the agent and the foreign principal must bid to ensure competition\",\r\n      \"Agents are barred from participating in GTE altogether\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) Either the agent or the principal, but not both<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 4.3.3 (GTE Risks and Mitigations):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Procurements should preferably be made directly from the manufacturers. <b>Either the agent on behalf of the foreign principal or the foreign principal directly could bid in a tender, but not both<\/b>. Further, in cases where agents participate in a tender on behalf of one manufacturer, <b>they should not be allowed to quote on behalf of another manufacturer<\/b> along with the first manufacturer. Commissions and scope of services to\/by the agents should be explicit and transparent in the bids\/contracts.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 104,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding a Rate Contract (RC):\\n1. No quantity is mentioned, nor is any minimum drawable quantity guaranteed in the Rate Contract.\\n2. The Rate Contract is a standing offer from the supplier firm.\\n3. Once a supply order is placed in terms of the rate contract during its validity, that supply order becomes a valid and binding contract.\\n4. When used in works, services and consultancy, it is commonly known as a Framework Agreement (FA).\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 4.4-1:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"A Rate Contract... is an agreement between the purchaser and the Supplier for the supply of specified goods... at a set price and terms & conditions... <b>No quantity is mentioned, nor is any minimum drawable quantity guaranteed<\/b>... RC... can also be used mutatis mutandis in works, services, and consultancy \u2013 where it is commonly known as a <b>Framework Agreement (FA)<\/b>. The Rate Contract is a <b>standing offer<\/b> from the supplier firm. The firm and\/or the purchaser are entitled to withdraw\/cancel the Rate Contract by serving an appropriate notice (say <b>thirty days<\/b>)... once a supply order (also called <b>withdrawal order<\/b>) is placed... that supply order becomes a <b>valid and binding contract<\/b>.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 105,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Which of the following types of items are amenable to procurement through Rate Contracts?\\n1. Goods regularly required by more than one procuring entity, whose quantities cannot be accurately forecast\\n2. Items whose total aggregate requirements of all procuring entities are more than Rs 50 Lakhs per annum\\n3. Items that are scarce or perpetually in short supply\\n4. Items whose demand is seasonal\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1 and 2 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 4.4-2 \u2014 items amenable to RC:<\/b> regularly\/repetitively required by more than one entity; quantities not accurately forecastable; aggregate requirements <b>more than Rs 50 Lakhs per annum<\/b>; detailed specifications available; stable prices (or determinable via price variation clause); OEM spares for expensive equipment; research consumables.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 3 and 4 are CONTRA-indications:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Items are <b>NOT scarce\/critical\/'perpetually in short supply'<\/b> goods or services. Demand for the item is <b>NOT seasonal<\/b> since Rate contract holders may shy away from supplying the item during high seasonal demands and dump supplies during low demand season\"<\/i> (e.g., cement dumped in the rainy season and diverted to the private market in the working season).`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 106,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding conclusion and period of Rate Contracts:\\n1. No indents are required to enter a rate contract; only an estimate of the annual requirements of different ultimate users is needed.\\n2. Parallel rate contracts may be awarded to more than one (preferably at least three) supplier, and all such parallel rate contracts are to be issued simultaneously, as far as feasible.\\n3. A Rate Contract should typically be for one year for stable technology products; in exceptional cases, a longer period of not more than two years may be considered.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Paras 4.4.1-1 and 2:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"<b>No indents are required<\/b> to enter a rate contract; only an <b>estimate of the annual requirements<\/b> of different ultimate users is needed... parallel rate contracts may be awarded to more than one (<b>preferably at least three<\/b>) Supplier. For transparency and to avoid criticism, all such parallel rate contracts are to be <b>issued simultaneously<\/b>, as far as feasible... A Rate Contract should typically be for <b>one year<\/b> for stable technology products. However, in exceptional cases, a shorter or longer period of <b>not more than two years<\/b> may be considered.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nValidity should be fixed so that new budgetary levies do not frustrate the contract, and RC periods for different items should be <b>staggered<\/b> through the year.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 107,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the Fall Clause in Rate Contracts:\\n1. If the RC holder reduces its price or sells (or even offers to sell) the rate-contracted goods at a lower price to any organisation during the currency of the RC, the RC price will be automatically reduced with effect from that date for all subsequent supplies.\\n2. Other parallel rate contract holders are to be allowed to reduce their price, being given seven days to intimate their revised prices in a sealed cover.\\n3. The RC holder must furnish a certificate of no price reduction to the Paying Authority along with each bill.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 4.4.1-3(h) and (i):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"The fall clause provides that if the rate contract holder <b>reduces its price or sells or even offers to sell<\/b> the rate contracted goods... at a price lower than the rate contract price, to any person or Organisation during the currency of the rate contract, the rate contract price will be <b>automatically reduced with effect from that date<\/b> for all the subsequent supplies... Other parallel rate contract holders, if any, are also to be allowed to reduce their price by notifying the reduced price to them, giving <b>07 (seven) days<\/b> to intimate their revised prices... in a <b>sealed cover<\/b> to be opened in public... The Rate Contract holder shall furnish the... <b>certificate to the concerned Paying Authority along with each bill<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nBeware of parallel RC holders unethically announcing price reductions to grab more orders \u2014 severe action including deregistration\/debarment up to two years may follow poor performance.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 108,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"The provisions of the Fall Clause do NOT apply to which of the following?\\n1. Export\/Deemed Export by the Supplier\\n2. Sale of goods as original equipment at prices lower than the price charged for routine replacement\\n3. Sale of goods (such as drugs) which have expiry dates\\n4. Sale at lower prices under any previous contracts with Central or State Government Departments, including joint sector companies and private parties\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1, 2 and 3 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 4.4.1-3(h) \u2014 Fall Clause exceptions:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"i) <b>Export\/Deemed Export<\/b> by the Supplier; ii) Sale of goods or services as <b>original equipment<\/b> prices lower than the price charged for routine replacement; iii) Sale of goods (such as <b>drugs) which have expiry dates<\/b>; iv) Sale of goods or services at lower prices \u2013 1) on or after the <b>date of completion of placement of order<\/b>...; 2) under any <b>previous contracts entered with the Central or State Government Departments, including new undertakings (EXCLUDING joint sector companies and\/or private parties)<\/b> and bodies.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nStatement 4 is wrong because sales to <b>joint sector companies and private parties are specifically EXCLUDED<\/b> from this exception \u2014 i.e., lower prices to them WOULD trigger the fall clause.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 109,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"In supply orders issued against rate contracts, the Department may consider obtaining Performance Security at what rate of the value of the supply order?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"2% to 3%\",\r\n      \"3% to 5%\",\r\n      \"5% to 10%\",\r\n      \"10%\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 3% to 5%<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 4.4.1-4:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Depending on the anticipated overall drawable annual quantity against a rate contract and the anticipated number of parallel rate contracts to be issued for an item, the Department may consider obtaining <b>Performance Security (@ 3% to 5%)<\/b>... <b>of the value of supply order<\/b> in the supply orders issued against rate contracts on the rate contract holder.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nNote it is a percentage of each <b>supply order<\/b> value \u2014 not of the estimated annual drawal \u2014 since the RC itself guarantees no quantity.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 110,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding placement of supply orders against Rate Contracts:\\n1. Once a Rate Contract is available, all nominated Direct Demanding Officers (DDOs) must mandatorily procure the item only through supply orders on the RC holders.\\n2. In an emergency, a Procuring Entity may procure rate-contracted goods directly from suppliers up to Rs. one lakh at one time and not more than Rs. 5 lakhs annually, at prices not exceeding those in the rate contract.\\n3. All parallel RCs for an item, even at differential rates, are assumed to be at reasonable rates.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 4.4.1-5:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Once a Rate Contract is available, all nominated Procuring Entities (DDOs) <b>must mandatorily procure the item only through supply orders<\/b> on the rate contract holders... they may be permitted to procure a small value of their requirements directly (say <b>up to Rs. One Lakhs at one time and not more than Rs 5 lakhs annually<\/b>) following relevant procedures [with] prices... not [exceeding] those stipulated in the rate contract... <b>All parallel RCs for an item, even at differential rates, are assumed to be at reasonable rates<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nSelection among parallel RC holders follows transparent criteria: RC price, past performance, need for reputed brands for critical requirements, proximity, and committed delivery dates.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 111,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding delivery time and liquidated damages in Rate Contract supply orders:\\n1. If the time for delivery is not fixed by mutual agreement, it is not the essence of the contract, and no liquidated damages can be levied for delay.\\n2. Where there has been unreasonable delay, the DDO can give the contractor notice fixing a reasonable time for delivery, stipulating that delivery within the specified time shall be the essence of the contract.\\n3. If the delivery date in the supply order has been expressly agreed to by the supplier in writing before placing the order, liquidated damages can be recovered by the agency that entered into the Rate Contract.\\n4. A supply order not delivered in time can be cancelled by the DDO himself, since he is a party to the Rate Contract.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1, 2 and 3 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 4.4.1-5(e) and (f):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"In rate contracts, if the time for delivery is not fixed by mutual agreement, it is <b>not the essence of the contract<\/b>... Therefore, <b>no liquidated damages can be levied<\/b>... under section 46 of the Contract Act, the goods are only to be delivered within a reasonable time... the DDO has the right to give the Contractor notice, <b>fixing a reasonable time for delivery... [as] the essence of the contract<\/b>. If the goods are not delivered within this period, the supply order can be cancelled by <b>the Agency that finalised the Rate Contract (since he alone, NOT the DDO, is a party to the Rate Contract)<\/b>... where the delivery date... has been <b>expressly agreed to by the supplier in writing before placing<\/b> the relevant order, <b>liquidated damages can be recovered<\/b> (by the Agency that entered into rate Contract).\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nStatement 4 is wrong \u2014 the DDO is NOT a party to the RC. Hence it is advisable to obtain a delivery-period commitment before placing the supply order.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 112,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding renewal of Rate Contracts:\\n1. New rate contracts should be made operative right after expiry of the existing rate contracts without any gap.\\n2. Where new RCs cannot be concluded in time, existing RCs may be extended with the same terms and conditions with the consent of the RC holders.\\n3. While extending existing rate contracts, it shall be ensured that the price trend is not lower.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 4.4.1-6:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"It should be ensured that new rate contracts are made operative right after the expiry of the existing rate contracts <b>without any gap<\/b>... In case it is not possible to conclude new rate contracts for some special reasons, timely steps are to be taken to <b>extend the existing rate contracts with the same terms, conditions<\/b>, etc., for a suitable period, <b>with the consent of the rate contract holders<\/b>. Rate contracts of the firms who do not agree to such extension are to be left out. Also, while extending the existing rate contracts, it shall be ensured that the <b>price trend is not lower<\/b>.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 113,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"In an Electronic Reverse Auction (eRA), if a new lower bid is received within the last few minutes of closing time, the closing time gets automatically extended. Where not otherwise specified, the default last-minute bidding period, the auto-extension period, and the maximum number of auto-extensions respectively are:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Ten minutes, five minutes, and 25\",\r\n      \"Five minutes, ten minutes, and 50\",\r\n      \"Five minutes, fifteen minutes, and 100\",\r\n      \"Two minutes, five minutes, and 50\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) Five minutes, ten minutes, and 50<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Paras 4.5-1 and 4.5-4(b)(v):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"If a new lower bid is received within the last few minutes (pre-announced, say <b>five minutes<\/b>) of closing time, the closing time may get automatically extended by a few minutes (pre-announced, say <b>ten minutes<\/b>) for others to respond. A maximum number of such extensions may be pre-announced (say <b>50<\/b>).\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nRationale: the last-minute-bidding period should not be so small that unscrupulous bidders catch others off guard; the auto-extension period should allow bidders to consider their next move; too many extensions cause <b>bidder fatigue<\/b>. The initial period of the reverse auction is <b>two hours<\/b> if not specified; all times per <b>server time stamp<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 114,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"A reverse auction would be appropriate in which of the following situations?\\n1. Items are commodities or commercially-off-the-shelf items\\n2. There is a competitive market of more than five anticipated qualified bidders\\n3. The award criteria are quantifiable and can be expressed in monetary terms\\n4. Where the QCBS system of selection is used\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1, 2 and 3 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 4.5-3(a):<\/b> eRA is appropriate where items are <b>commodities\/COTS<\/b>; a detailed description is feasible; there is a competitive market (<b>say more than five<\/b>) of qualified bidders; and the criteria are <b>quantifiable and expressible in monetary terms<\/b>.<br><br>\r\n<b>eRA is NOT appropriate for (Para 4.5-3(c)):<\/b> low-value requirements; <b>strategic\/critical\/vital\/highly complex items or items in short supply<\/b>; where <b>QCBS<\/b> is used; where <b>FBS<\/b> is used; <b>engineered products<\/b> with design complexity; <b>EPC\/complex works<\/b> contracts; or items with only a few suppliers.<br><br>\r\n<b>Caution:<\/b> for repetitive items (future procurements may not repeat the price crash) and for parallel-order splitting \u2014 if quantity is split into N parts, at least <b>N+3 suppliers<\/b> should be available. eRA should not be a <b>default<\/b> mode.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 115,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"In the combined 'Tender cum e-Reverse Auction' procedure, consider the following statements:\\n1. The e-Reverse Auction is conducted after financial bid opening, taking the L1 landed price as the benchmark (upper limit).\\n2. If the number of valid bidders is less than the stipulated minimum (3 if not specified), the reverse auction shall not be conducted, and financial bids from the eProcurement process shall be evaluated and finalised.\\n3. In the case of 4 to 6 valid bidders, the lowest three shall be allowed to participate; with more than 6 valid bidders, only 50% (rounded up) shall be allowed.\\n4. MSE bidders or Class-I local suppliers whose financial bid prices are within the policy's margin of preference shall be allowed to participate over and above the shortlist.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 4.5-4(a)(iii)-(iv) \u2014 all four correct:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"...the e-Reverse Auction process is mandatorily conducted taking the <b>L1 price as the benchmark (upper limit)<\/b>, after the financial bid opening..., provided the number of valid bidders is not less than a stipulated number (<b>3 if not specified<\/b>)... If the number of valid bidders is less... a Reverse auction <b>shall not be conducted<\/b>, and the financial bids... shall be evaluated and finalised. In the case of <b>4 to 6 valid bidders, the lowest three (3)<\/b>... shall be allowed... In the case of <b>more than 6 valid bidders, only 50% of the bidders (rounded up to the next integer)<\/b> shall be allowed... if <b>MSE bidders or Class-I Local suppliers<\/b>... prices in financial bids are within the policy's margin of preference, they shall be allowed to participate... <b>over and above the shortlist<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nFor elimination: the <b>highest bidder(s)<\/b> are disallowed; a tie is resolved on <b>last in, first out<\/b> based on the portal's time log.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 116,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the e-Reverse Auction process:\\n1. There shall be no participation fees for the e-Reverse auction.\\n2. If not specified, the decrement value is 0.5% of the start bid price, with a minimum of Rs. 1.\\n3. During the auction, the item-wise L-1 price along with the names of the bidders shall be displayed.\\n4. There shall not be any negotiation after the e-reverse auction process is closed.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 1, 2 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1, 2 and 4 CORRECT (Para 4.5-4(b)):<\/b> <i>\"There shall be <b>no participation fees<\/b>... The Procuring Entity shall specify the decrement value... (or, if not specified, <b>0.5% of the start bid price<\/b> rounded off..., with a <b>minimum of Rs. 1<\/b>)... There shall <b>not be any negotiation after the e-reverse auction<\/b> process is closed.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Bidders must submit only the landed price in the reverse auction, and <b>only the item-wise L-1 price shall be displayed WITHOUT disclosing the number of bids and names of the bidders<\/b>.\"<\/i> The full bid history with bidder names is published only <b>after the auction's closing time<\/b>.<br><br>\r\nAlso: the successful L-1 bidder must upload the <b>breakup of landed prices within 2 working days<\/b>, failing which the financial-bid breakup is binding; a bidder who does not bid in the eRA is bound by the <b>lower of<\/b> its financial bid and eRA prices; service disruption \u2192 restart with the last recorded lowest price as start bid (binding if not restarted by <b>5:00 pm same day<\/b>).`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 117,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding Pre-qualification Bidding (PQB):\\n1. The Pre-qualification Criteria (PQC) covers past experience of similar contracts, performance capability and financial strength.\\n2. Although there is a separate phase of PQB bidding, it is not semantically counted as two-stage bidding.\\n3. No techno-commercial or financial details are asked for in the first PQB phase.\\n4. PQB should be the routine mode for procurement of Commercial Off The Shelf (COTS) requirements.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1, 2 and 3 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1-3 CORRECT (Para 4.6.1):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"...competent, qualified bidders are shortlisted by using a Pre-qualification Criterion (PQC covering - i) <b>past experience of similar contracts<\/b>, ii) <b>performance capability<\/b> and iii) <b>financial strength<\/b>). <b>No Techno-commercial or Financial details are asked for in the first phase<\/b>... Although there is a separate phase of PQB bidding, it's <b>not semantically counted as a two-stage bidding<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 4 INCORRECT:<\/b> PQB is contraindicated for LTE procurements, and <i>\"where the requirement is technically and commercially not complex... for example, <b>Commercial Off The Shelf (COTS)<\/b> requirements.\"<\/i> PQB <i>\"should be done <b>only as an exception<\/b>\"<\/i> with restricted powers at sufficiently high levels in the SoPP.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 118,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the PQB process:\\n1. A minimum period of 3 weeks (4 weeks where foreign bidders are involved) may be allowed for submission of PQBs, reducible to 10 days in case of duly approved urgency.\\n2. The pre-qualification shortlist shall be valid for multiple subsequent procurements over two years.\\n3. The time gap between the pre-qualification approval and the floating of the linked main procurement tender should normally be less than six months.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: C) 1 and 3 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1 and 3 CORRECT (Paras 4.6.1-5 and 7):<\/b> Minimum <b>3 weeks (4 weeks with foreign bidders)<\/b> for PQB submission, reducible to <b>10 days<\/b> in CA-approved urgency; and the gap between pre-qualification approval and the main tender should normally be <b>less than six months<\/b>.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 2 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"The pre-qualification shortlist shall be for a <b>SINGLE subsequent procurement<\/b>.\"<\/i> An extended-validity shortlist (2-5 years) is the separate <b>Approved Vendor List (AVL)<\/b> mechanism. In the subsequent tender, bids from non-shortlisted bidders are treated as <b>unsolicited offers<\/b> and normally rejected.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 119,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"In the Single-Stage Pre-qualification (three-envelope) alternative to PQB, which of the following is correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"It is strictly speaking a post-qualification of bidders, since techno-commercial and financial bids have already been received; the PQB envelope (containing EMD and eligibility documents) is opened first, and the remaining envelopes of unqualified bidders remain unopened\/encrypted\",\r\n      \"All three envelopes are opened simultaneously to save time\",\r\n      \"The financial bids of unqualified bidders are opened but not evaluated\",\r\n      \"The pre-qualification envelope is opened only after the financial bids\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A)<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 4.6.2:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Strictly speaking, this is <b>not a pre-qualification but a post-qualification<\/b> of bidders (i.e., after the techno-commercial and financial bids have been received). ...in the first instance on the pre-announced bid opening date, <b>only the PQB envelopes (also containing the EMD and other eligibility documents) are opened<\/b> and evaluated to shortlist the responsive bidders... In e-procurement, the other two envelopes of unqualified bidders would <b>remain encrypted and unopened<\/b>. In off-line tenders, the other two envelopes of unqualified bidders are <b>returned unopened<\/b>... by registered acknowledgement due\/reliable courier or any other mode with proof of delivery.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nThis route is used where the requirement is complex but bidder participation effort is not high \u2014 a bidder exercising due diligence faces only a remote risk of rejection on qualification grounds.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 120,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the Approved Vendor List (AVL):\\n1. AVL is meant for regular and continuous requirements of tailor-made items for which the procuring entity is the monopoly buyer and which are critical for safety and security of its operations, e.g., Railway signalling equipment.\\n2. The resultant shortlist of qualified vendors is kept valid for an extended period, say 2 to 5 years.\\n3. Only a part (say not more than 20%) of the total tendered quantity is distributed among Developmental Vendors, provided they quote lower than the regular Approved Vendors.\\n4. The AVL mode for an item should be approved at the highest level in the Procuring Organisation.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 4.7 \u2014 all four correct:<\/b> AVL is for <b>strategic, safety and security<\/b> requirements of <b>tailor-made items with a monopoly buyer<\/b>, needing heavy investment and long gestation (e.g., <b>Railway Signalling equipment, Locomotive assemblies, Track fittings<\/b> \u2014 \"a quality glitch in these would be disastrous\"); shortlist validity <b>2 to 5 years<\/b>; <b>Developmental Vendors<\/b> (Temporarily\/Provisionally Approved) get <b>not more than ~20%<\/b> of tendered quantity if quoting lower, and are upgraded to 'Approved Vendors' after demonstrating consistent quality over ~2 years; approval for AVL mode is at the <b>highest level<\/b>.<br><br>\r\nNew applicants meeting the original PQC may be added at any time; KPIs (on-time delivery, quality, responsiveness) drive periodic reviews and downgrading\/removal.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 121,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"As a mitigation against collusion risks in the AVL mode, it is recommended that personnel who inspect\/monitor vendor facilities:\\n1. Should be rotated frequently and not be allowed to remain in the same position for more than 3 years.\\n2. Should be the same personnel who created the AVL to ensure continuity.\\n3. A fresh PQB may be done every three years for new vendors.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: C) 1 and 3 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 4.7.1 (Risks & Mitigations):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"The personnel in such jobs may be <b>rotated frequently and should not be allowed to be in the same position for more than 3 years<\/b>. <b>If the same personnel who created the AVL are also given the task of monitoring it, it may create a conflict of interest. So, personnel for these two tasks should be DIFFERENT<\/b>. The KPIs and PQC should be objectively measurable. <b>Every three years a fresh PQB may be done for new vendors<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nStatement 2 is the exact opposite of the prescribed mitigation. Also flagged: too many vendors clearing AVL indicates the item is <b>not a fit case for AVL<\/b>; too few creates supply-chain risk \u2014 an upper limit on AVL suppliers may be indicated in the PQB document.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 122,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding Limited Tender Enquiry (LTE):\\n1. LTE should be the default mode of procurement when the estimated value of procurement is between Rs. 5 lakh to Rs. 50 lakhs.\\n2. The minimum number of bidders to whom LTE should be sent is more than three.\\n3. The Procuring Entity should mandatorily publish its limited tender enquiries on GeM as well as on GeM-CPPP.\\n4. Bid Security and Performance Security are normally taken in LTE.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1, 2 and 3 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1-3 CORRECT (Paras 4.8, 4.8.1):<\/b> LTE is the <b>default mode between Rs. 5 lakh and Rs. 50 lakh<\/b> (Rule 162 GFR); <i>\"The minimum number of bidders to whom LTE should be sent is <b>more than three<\/b>\"<\/i> (fewer available \u2192 CA approval with recorded reasons); and LTEs must be <b>mandatorily published on GeM and GeM-CPPP<\/b> plus the Ministry's website.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 4 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Since selected bidders are normally registered with the Procuring Entity, <b>Bid Security and Performance Security are normally NOT taken in LTE<\/b>.\"<\/i> (In SLTE, by contrast, they ARE taken as in OTE.)<br><br>\r\nOther LTE points: shortlist approved by CA <b>before floating<\/b>; rotation to a manageable number (say <b>8 to 12<\/b>) if the registered list is large; simplified tender form (Annexure 8); unsolicited bids not entertained.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 123,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding transparency safeguards in LTE:\\n1. The panel of vendors should not be changed after the LTE tender has been published.\\n2. All past successful vendors\/bidders should invariably be invited.\\n3. Exclusion of any registered vendor from the LTE shortlist requires detailed recorded reasons and approval of the Competent Authority before exclusion.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 4.8.2 (Risk 3 \u2014 Mitigation):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"The panel should <b>not be changed after the LTE tender has been published<\/b>. <b>All past successful vendors\/ bidders should invariably be invited<\/b>. In case it is proposed to exclude any registered\/ approved vendor\/ contractor from being shortlisted for inviting LTE, <b>detailed reasons, such as failure in supply, should be duly recorded, and approval of the CA should be taken before exclusion<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nMaintenance of a panel of registered suppliers (reviewed annually) is a <b>sine-qua-non<\/b> for LTE; passing over a duly shortlisted bidder at evaluation stage on grounds of poor past performance raises transparency questions. Suggested bid time: about <b>two weeks<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 124,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Special Limited Tender Enquiry (SLTE) for procurements above Rs. 50 lakh may be resorted to in which of the following situations?\\n1. The competent authority certifies existing or prospective urgency for operational or technical requirements, justifying additional expenditure of not procuring through advertised tender\\n2. There are sufficient reasons recorded in writing indicating that it will not be in public interest to procure through advertised tender enquiry\\n3. The sources of supply are definitely known, and the possibility of fresh sources beyond those being tapped is remote\\n4. Government policy designates procurement from specific agencies\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 4.9 \u2014 all four situations permit SLTE (Rule 162 GFR 2017):<\/b> certified <b>urgency<\/b> (with the nature of urgency and reasons why the procurement could not be anticipated placed on record); <b>public interest<\/b> reasons recorded in writing; <b>definitely known sources<\/b> with remote possibility of fresh sources; and <b>Government policy designation<\/b>.<br><br>\r\nSLTE features: tender process as in LTE but <b>tender documents are detailed as in OTE<\/b>; the <b>indentor signs the urgency certificate<\/b>; foreign currency bids summarily rejected; and \u2014 unlike LTE \u2014 <b>Bid Security and Performance Security ARE taken as in OTE<\/b>. Mitigation: severely restricted delegation for urgency certification and post-facto review of utilisation.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 125,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"A Proprietary Article Certificate (PAC) can be certified on which of the following grounds?\\n1. It is in the user department's knowledge that only a particular firm is the manufacturer of the required goods\\n2. Standardization of machinery\/spare parts to be compatible with existing machinery, on the advice of a competent technical expert\\n3. It is a condition of the manufacturer's warranty that only OEM spares are to be used during the warranty period\\n4. Advanced research institutes needing equipment\/spares\/consumables from the same original vendor to maintain consistency\/reproducibility of established methods\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 4.10 (Rule 166(i) and (iii) of GFR 2017) \u2014 all four grounds:<\/b> only-known-manufacturer situations; <b>standardization\/compatibility<\/b> (on advice of a competent technical expert); <b>warranty conditions requiring OEM spares<\/b>; and Advanced Educational\/Research\/Scientific Institutes maintaining <b>consistency\/reproducibility\/continuity of established methods\/protocols<\/b> (on expert advice, approved by the Project in-charge).<br><br>\r\nTerms: the PAC certificate (Annexure 9) is signed per DFPR\/SoPP <b>with the concurrence of associated finance<\/b>; once signed, procurement powers are the <b>same as in normal conditions<\/b>; purchase only from the nominated manufacturer or authorised dealer; <b>EMD\/SD may be waived<\/b> in unavoidable cases.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 126,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"As a mitigation against continued unjustified use of the PAC mode, it is prescribed that no item should be procured on a PAC basis for more than three years, after which:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The PAC may be renewed for another three years automatically\",\r\n      \"A mandatory OTE mode may be used to test the market\",\r\n      \"The item must be procured only through GeM\",\r\n      \"The requirement should be abandoned\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) Mandatory OTE to test the market<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 4.10.2 (Risks and Mitigations):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"<b>No item should be procured on a PAC basis for more than three years, after which a mandatory OTE mode may be used to test the market<\/b>. The procuring entity may also keep an eye on the GeM portal for other vendors who can supply such items.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nOther PAC mitigations: restricted delegation for signing PAC; <b>even in PAC procurements, the NIT and Award of Contract should be put on GeM-CPPP<\/b> and entity websites; the PAC firm should be asked to accept a <b>'fall clause'<\/b>; and if the price is not acceptable, negotiation per para 7.6.9 may be held.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 127,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding Single Tender Enquiry (STE) without a PAC:\\n1. It is a tender invitation to one firm only without a PAC certificate.\\n2. It is resorted to in case of an existing or prospective emergency relating to operational or technical requirements, certified by the indentor.\\n3. The powers of procurement in STE are the same as in PAC.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1 and 2 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1 and 2 CORRECT (Para 4.11, Rule 166(ii) GFR):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"A tender invitation to <b>one firm only without a PAC certificate<\/b> is called a single tender... In the case of an <b>existing or prospective emergency relating to operational or technical requirements to be certified by the indentor<\/b>, the required goods are necessary to be purchased from a particular source, subject to the reason for such decision being recorded and approval of the competent authority obtained.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Unlike in PAC, the powers of procurement of STE are <b>MORE RESTRICTED<\/b>.\"<\/i> Reasons and selection of the particular firm must be recorded and approved <b>prior<\/b> to single tendering; STE procurements should be from reputed firms after determining reasonableness of rates.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 128,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding Direct Procurement without Quotation:\\n1. It is used for procurements not exceeding Rs. 50,000 on each occasion.\\n2. For Scientific Ministries\/Departments, this limit has been enhanced to Rs. 1,00,000 for scientific equipment and computers on each occasion.\\n3. It can be used even when the required goods are available on GeM.\\n4. For procurement outside GeM, it is mandatory to generate a GeM Availability Report and Past Transaction Summary (GeMAR&PTS) with a unique ID.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 1, 2 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1, 2, 4 CORRECT (Para 4.12):<\/b> Threshold <b>Rs. 50,000 for each case<\/b>; enhanced to <b>Rs 1,00,000 for scientific equipment and computers<\/b> for Scientific Ministries\/Departments (OM dated 20.05.2024); and <b>GeMAR&PTS with unique ID is mandatory<\/b> for procurement outside GeM (OM dated 11.06.2021).<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 INCORRECT:<\/b> This mode applies <i>\"when the required goods... are <b>NOT available on GeM<\/b>\"<\/i> \u2014 GFR Rule 149 Note: <i>\"In case the item is available on GeM, it is <b>not permitted<\/b> to purchase the same under Rule 154.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nOther features: certificate per <b>Annexure 10<\/b>; an <b>imprest<\/b> for two months' estimated procurements, recouped monthly; diligent <b>market enquiry is the essence<\/b>; reputed malls and internet portals may be included in the survey.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 129,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Which of the following are suggested as mitigations for risks in Direct Procurement without Quotation?\\n1. An annual ceiling (say Rupees five lakh per office per year) may be fixed for this mode\\n2. Payments should be made by cheque or ECS, except that cash payment may be allowed up to Rs. 5,000\\n3. Staff involved with such procurements should be rotated frequently\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 4.12.2 (Risks and Mitigations):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"To keep better control, an <b>annual ceiling may be fixed for each office<\/b> for such a mode of procurement, say, <b>Rupees five Lakh for each office per year<\/b>... For the sake of transparency, payments should be made by <b>cheque or through Electronic Clearance Service<\/b>, except that <b>cash payment may be allowed up to Rs. 5,000<\/b>... Staff involved with such procurements should <b>not continue in the same role for long and should be rotated frequently<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nThe main risks: splitting of demand to avoid higher approvals\/modes; degeneration of market enquiry into mechanical quotation-collection; nexus\/crony suppliers; fake vouchers. Supervisors should cross-check a percentage of cases and ensure the same vendors are not repeatedly patronised.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 130,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding Direct Procurement by Purchase Committee:\\n1. The Local Purchase Committee consists of three members of an appropriate level constituted by the Head of Department.\\n2. It is used for procurements valued above Rs. 50,000 and up to Rs. 5,00,000 on each occasion (with enhanced limits for Scientific Ministries).\\n3. The essence of this mode is the selection of suitable products and suppliers by actual market survey, and obtaining quotations by email is an acceptable substitute for the survey.\\n4. Members of the committee jointly record a certificate before recommending placement of the purchase order.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 1, 2 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1, 2, 4 CORRECT (Para 4.13):<\/b> Committee of <b>three members<\/b> constituted by <b>HoD<\/b>; range <b>above Rs. 50,000 and upto Rs. 5,00,000<\/b> on each occasion (Scientific Ministries: above Rs 1 lakh and upto <b>Rs. Ten Lakhs<\/b>); joint certificate per <b>Annexure 11<\/b>.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"The selection of suitable products and suppliers by <b>actual market survey (not by calling tenders like a mini-LTE)<\/b> is the essence of this mode. Therefore, <b>there is no question of obtaining quotations by email or otherwise<\/b>.\"<\/i> The survey may include online portals and, for smaller towns, nearby bigger cities.<br><br>\r\nThis mode too requires the item to be <b>unavailable on GeM<\/b>, with a <b>GeMAR&PTS<\/b> generated; it is equally applicable in principle to contingency expenditure on small works\/services.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 131,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"In the Single Stage Single Envelope tendering system:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Techno-commercial bids are opened first and financial bids of compliant bidders later\",\r\n      \"Eligibility, technical\/commercial and financial details are submitted together; evaluation proceeds in the sequence of evaluated responsive prices from L1 onwards, checking their technical\/commercial compliance\",\r\n      \"Only financial details are submitted; technical compliance is presumed\",\r\n      \"Bids are invited in two stages with an EoI first\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B)<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 4.15.1:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"In a single-stage single-envelope system, eligibility, technical\/commercial details, and financial details are <b>submitted together in the same envelope<\/b>. Evaluation is in the <b>sequence of evaluated responsive prices (from L1 onwards)<\/b>, and their technical\/ commercial compliance is checked. The lowest priced bid that meets the eligibility\/qualification criteria, technical and commercial conditions... is declared as successful.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nIt suits <b>simple\/moderately complex<\/b> requirements where source capability is not too crucial and value is not too high \u2014 <i>\"This is the simplest and the quickest tendering system and should be the <b>DEFAULT system of tendering<\/b>.\"<\/i> Note: Tendering systems address the balance of <b>'Right Quality' and 'Right Price'<\/b>; selection should be based on professional judgement of complexity and value \u2014 a mere value threshold is discouraged.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 132,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the Single Stage Two Envelopes System:\\n1. The first envelope (techno-commercial bid) contains eligibility, technical quality and commercial terms, except price and relevant financial details.\\n2. The financial bids of all bidders, including technically non-compliant ones, are opened for the sake of transparency.\\n3. In e-procurement, financial bids of technically non-compliant offers remain encrypted and unopened.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: C) 1 and 3 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1 and 3 CORRECT (Para 4.15.2):<\/b> The techno-commercial envelope excludes price\/financial details; and <i>\"In e-procurement, financial bids of technically non-compliant offers would remain <b>encrypted and unopened<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 2 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"...in the second instance, the financial bids of <b>ONLY the techno-commercially compliant offers<\/b>... are to be opened on a pre-announced date and time.\"<\/i> In offline tenders, financial bids of non-compliant bidders are <b>returned unopened<\/b> by registered acknowledgement due\/courier with proof of delivery.<br><br>\r\nThis system suits <b>technically complex<\/b> requirements where source capability is still not critical and value is not high.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 133,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Expression of Interest (EoI) bids under Two-Stage Bidding may be invited in which of the following situations?\\n1. It is not feasible to formulate detailed specifications without receiving inputs regarding technical aspects from bidders\\n2. The subject matter is subject to rapid technological advances or market fluctuations or both\\n3. The entity seeks a contract for research, experiment, study or development (except where production quantities establish commercial viability or recover R&D costs)\\n4. The bidder is expected to carry out a detailed survey and comprehensive assessment of risks, costs and obligations\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 4.16-2 (Rule 164, GFR 2017) \u2014 all four situations.<\/b> Two-stage bidding suits <b>green-field\/blue-sky projects<\/b> where the procuring organisation lacks full knowledge of technical solutions or likely sources; in less complex cases, a market consultation through a <b>pre-NIT conference<\/b> may suffice.<br><br>\r\n<b>Procedure highlights:<\/b> the first-stage EoI is invited <b>without a bid price<\/b>; technical discussions\/presentations with shortlisted bidders give <b>equal opportunity<\/b> with proper records; revised terms must <b>not modify the fundamental nature<\/b> of the procurement; the second stage is a <b>two-envelope tender restricted to first-stage shortlisted bidders<\/b>; a bidder unable to supply due to modifications may <b>withdraw without forfeiting bid security<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 134,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding evaluation of EoI bids and 'Non-committal EoI':\\n1. In weighted evaluation of EoIs, all bidders securing the minimum required marks (normally 60 per cent) should be shortlisted, and the shortlist should normally comprise at least four firms.\\n2. In a 'Non-committal EoI', declared ab-initio, the second stage tendering is not restricted to shortlisted EoI bidders, and normal OTE\/GTE tendering is performed.\\n3. Instances of Non-committal EoI should be rare, and there should not be any bid-security requirement in such EoI.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Paras 4.16.1-7 and 4.16.3:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"All bidders who secure the minimum required marks (<b>normally 60 (sixty) per cent<\/b>) should be shortlisted... The shortlist should normally comprise <b>at least four firms<\/b>.\"<\/i> (Alternatively, a fail-pass criterion may be used.)<br><br>\r\n<i>\"...to avoid getting trapped into a legacy technology, the second stage tendering may not be restricted only to the shortlisted bidders of EoI stage, and <b>it may be so declared in the EoI document ab-initio<\/b>... Such a variant is called <b>'Non-committal' EoI<\/b>. Instances... <b>should be rare<\/b> since it may de-incentivise the participants from giving a diligent\/sincere EoI. There should <b>not be any bid-security requirement<\/b> in such non-committal EoI.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nEoI evaluation criteria (Table 1): past experience, financial strength (turnover + net profit for last three years), quality accreditations, manufacturing capability\/tie-ups, after-sales support and product support \u2014 with pre-declared weightages.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 135,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding e-Procurement:\\n1. It is mandatory for Ministries\/Departments to receive all bids through GCQE-compliant e-procurement portals for all procurements, except Direct Procurement without Quotation and Direct Procurement by Purchase Committee.\\n2. In individual cases where national security and strategic considerations demand confidentiality, exemption from e-procurement may be granted after approval of the concerned Secretary with the concurrence of the Financial Adviser.\\n3. In tenders floated by Indian Missions abroad, the Competent Authority for deciding the tender may exempt such cases from e-procurement.\\n4. It is a good practice to call both electronic and manual bids in the same tender.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1, 2 and 3 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1-3 CORRECT (Para 4.17.1):<\/b> GCQE-compliant e-procurement is mandatory except for <b>Rules 154\/155<\/b> procurements; national-security exemptions need <b>Secretary's approval + FA concurrence<\/b>; Missions abroad \u2014 exemption by the <b>tender-deciding Competent Authority<\/b>.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 4 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Normally, in e-procurement, no physical\/off-line tender documents are provided, nor are any manual bids accepted. <b>It is NOT a good practice to call both electronic and manual bids in the same tender<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nGCQE = Guidelines for Compliance to Quality Requirements of eProcurement, July 2021, issued by <b>STQC Directorate (MeitY)<\/b>. NIC's portal is <b>GePNIC<\/b>; MSTC and private GCQE-compliant providers may also be engaged. These instructions do not apply to procurements through <b>GeM<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 136,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Match the GeM purchase slabs with their procedures:\\nA. Up to Rs. 50,000 \u2014 1. Through the supplier having the lowest price after mandatorily obtaining bids using online bidding or reverse auction tool\\nB. Above Rs. 50,000 and up to Rs. 10,00,000 \u2014 2. Through any of the available suppliers on GeM meeting quality, specification and delivery period\\nC. Above Rs. 10,00,000 \u2014 3. Through the GeM seller having the lowest price amongst available sellers of at least three different manufacturers\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"A-2, B-3, C-1\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-3\",\r\n      \"A-3, B-2, C-1\",\r\n      \"A-1, B-3, C-2\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) A-2, B-3, C-1<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 4.17.2-6 (Rule 149, GFR 2017):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"a) <b>Up to Rs.50,000\/-<\/b> through any of the available suppliers on the GeM, meeting the requisite quality, specification, and delivery period [Note 1: In the case of <b>automobiles<\/b>, direct procurement under this sub-para is permitted <b>without any ceiling limit<\/b>];<br>\r\nb) <b>Above Rs.50,000\/- and up to Rs.10,00,000\/-<\/b> through the GeM Seller having the <b>lowest price amongst the available sellers, of at least three different manufacturers<\/b> [the online bidding\/reverse auction tools can be used even below Rs. 10 lakh];<br>\r\nc) <b>Above Rs. 10,00,000\/-<\/b> through the supplier having the lowest price... <b>after mandatorily obtaining bids, using online bidding or reverse auction tool<\/b> provided on GeM.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nThe monetary ceilings apply <b>only to purchases made through GeM<\/b>; if the item is on GeM, purchase under Rules 154\/155 is <b>not permitted<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 137,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding GeM procedures:\\n1. Ministries\/Departments shall project their Annual Procurement Plan of goods and services (OPEX or CAPEX model) on the GeM portal within 30 days of Budget approval.\\n2. Buyers may ascertain reasonableness of prices before ordering using the Business Analytics (BA) tools available on GeM, including the last purchase price.\\n3. Where an item is available on GeM but the Ministry wants to buy outside GeM due to compelling circumstances, approval of the Standing Committee of GeM (SCoGeM) and the Secretary concerned is required.\\n4. Supplier registration on GeM is online and automatic, based on PAN, Aadhaar, GST certification, bank account details, and Udyam registration for MSEs.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 4.17.2 \u2014 all four correct:<\/b> Annual Procurement Plan (<b>OPEX\/CAPEX<\/b>) on GeM <b>within 30 days of Budget approval<\/b>; <b>BA tools<\/b> for price reasonableness (last purchase price on GeM, department's own last purchase price); buying outside GeM when the item is available requires <b>SCoGeM + Secretary<\/b> approval (OM dated 05.02.2020); and supplier registration is <b>online and automatic<\/b> on PAN\/Aadhaar\/GST\/bank\/Udyam credentials, with GeM SPV certifying supplier credentials.<br><br>\r\nAlso: <b>demand aggregation<\/b> across departments with reverse auction gives the best prices; demand shall <b>not be split<\/b> to avoid L-1 buying\/bidding\/RA on GeM or higher-authority sanction; GeM is the <b>National Public Procurement Portal<\/b> (paperless, contactless, cashless).`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 138,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding Push Button Procurement (PBP) on GeM:\\n1. PBP is made only through bidding \u2014 PBP through Direct Purchase, L-1 or Custom-bid is not permitted.\\n2. The total procurement value permitted is up to Rupees five lakh, inclusive of all taxes.\\n3. This method can be used only if at least five bids are received; otherwise the procurement restarts using usual modes, though the buyer may extend the PBP date once by three days.\\n4. Once a bid is invited, the contract is placed directly by GeM without any human intervention, and GeM permits this method only for categories where at least ten sources are listed.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 4.17.2-13 (OMs dated 06.09.2022 and 11.01.2023) \u2014 all four correct:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"i) PBP will be made only on GeM <b>through bidding<\/b> (PBP through Direct Purchase, L-1, Custom-bid, etc. are not permitted). ii) The total procurement value... is permitted <b>upto Rupees Five (5) lakh, inclusive of all taxes<\/b>. iii) This will be an <b>additional method<\/b>... entities are free to use or not to use... iv) This method can be used only if <b>at least five bids<\/b> are received. In case fewer... the procurement is to <b>restart using the usual procurement modes<\/b>. However, buyers will have a choice to <b>extend the PBP date once by three (3) days<\/b>... v) <b>No splitting<\/b>... vi) ...the contract will be placed <b>directly by GeM without any human intervention<\/b>... vii) GeM will permit this method only for such categories where <b>at least ten sources are listed<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nRationale: automation of reasonableness-of-rates assessment for low-value procurements where such effort would be disproportionate.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 139,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 4: Modes of Procurement',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding procurement through Centralized Agencies:\\n1. Departments that have not built up their own procurement capability may engage procurement agents with the approval of the Competent Authority.\\n2. Procurements made by such centralized agencies are exempt from the Government's procurement guidelines.\\n3. The Financial Adviser of the Department may sign a declaration about availability and reserving of the required budgetary provisions.\\n4. Since the purchase is by a third party, the Indent must be detailed and self-sufficient covering all technical and commercial requirements.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 1, 3 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1, 3, 4 CORRECT (Para 4.17.3):<\/b> Procurement agents may be engaged <b>with CA approval<\/b>; <i>\"FA of the Department may sign a declaration about the <b>availability and reserving of the required budgetary provisions<\/b>\"<\/i>; and the risk-mitigation table notes the Indent must be <b>detailed and self-sufficient<\/b>, with vetting\/certificates from technical, finance and procurement wings.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 2 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"<b>Procurements by such agencies would have to CONFORM to these Procurement Guidelines<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nOther mitigations: liaison with the procuring agency for critical\/large procurements; direct small procurements to tide over urgencies in case of abnormal delays; and commercial clauses in the Indent to ensure supplier responsiveness to the Indentor.`\r\n  },\r\n\r\n  \/\/ ==================== CHAPTER 5: BID INVITATION PROCESS ====================\r\n  {\r\n    id: 140,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 5: Bid Invitation Process',\r\n    question: \"The Department of Expenditure has issued Model Tender Documents (MTD) for which of the following categories?\\n1. Procurement of Goods (October 2021)\\n2. Procurement of Non-Consultancy Services (October 2021)\\n3. Procurement of Consultancy Services (April 2023)\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 5.1.1:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Department of Expenditure (DoE), Ministry of Finance... has issued Model Tender Documents for <b>Procurement of Goods (October 2021)<\/b>, Procurement of <b>Non-Consultancy Services (October 2021)<\/b> and Procurement of <b>Consultancy Services (April 2023)<\/b>. Procuring Entities are urged to <b>customise<\/b> relevant MTD to prepare tender documents... Guidance notes annexed to the MTDs detail the process of customisation.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nThe tender document is the <b>fundamental document<\/b> of public procurement \u2014 after award of contract, it becomes <b>part of the contract agreement<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 141,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 5: Bid Invitation Process',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding essential provisions of tender documents:\\n1. The tender document should include a clause that if a firm quotes NIL charges\/consideration, the bid shall be treated as unresponsive and will not be considered.\\n2. Criteria that cannot be verified may be used for evaluation of tenders if approved by the competent authority.\\n3. The tender document should mention that the resultant contract will be interpreted under Indian laws.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: C) 1 and 3 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1 and 3 CORRECT (Para 5.1.2-2):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"The tender document should include a clause that 'if a firm quotes <b>NIL charges\/ consideration<\/b>, the bid shall be treated as <b>unresponsive<\/b> and will not be considered'... Essential terms of the procurement contract include a suitable clause mentioning that the resultant contract will be <b>interpreted under Indian laws<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 2 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"<b>No criteria shall be used for the evaluation of tenders that cannot be verified<\/b>\"<\/i> \u2014 this is absolute, with no CA-approval exception. Also note: any criteria <b>not specified in the tender cannot be used<\/b> for evaluation or qualification.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 142,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 5: Bid Invitation Process',\r\n    question: \"Three successive filters are applied to bids during evaluation. Arrange them in the correct sequence of application:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Evaluation criteria \u2192 Qualification criteria \u2192 Eligibility criteria\",\r\n      \"Eligibility criteria \u2192 Qualification criteria \u2192 Evaluation criteria\",\r\n      \"Qualification criteria \u2192 Eligibility criteria \u2192 Evaluation criteria\",\r\n      \"Eligibility criteria \u2192 Evaluation criteria \u2192 Qualification criteria\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) Eligibility \u2192 Qualification \u2192 Evaluation<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 5.1.2-4 to 6:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"<b>Eligibility criteria<\/b> specify the criteria that a bidder should meet to be considered a responsive bid to be evaluated further beyond the preliminary evaluation\/ screening... <b>Qualification Criteria<\/b> determine the capability of bidders (<b>who have passed the eligibility criteria<\/b>) to perform the contract. Only those bidders who meet the qualification criteria go to the next step... <b>Evaluation Criteria<\/b> are the <b>final filter<\/b> used to select the bidders (who have passed the qualification criteria) for the award of the contract.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nEvaluation criteria may include, besides price: quality, technical merit, aesthetic\/functional characteristics, environmental characteristics, running costs, cost-effectiveness, after-sales service, technical assistance and delivery period.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 143,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 5: Bid Invitation Process',\r\n    question: \"Match the sections of the Tender Document with their contents:\\nA. Instructions to Bidders (ITB) \u2014 1. Terms and conditions governing the resultant contract after announcement of award till closure and dispute resolution\\nB. General Conditions of Contract (GCC) \u2014 2. Guidance to prospective bidders on obtaining documents, preparing and submitting bids, evaluation and award (not post-award processes)\\nC. Schedule of Requirements \u2014 3. List of Goods, Quantities, Delivery Requirements, Destination and scope of supply\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-3\",\r\n      \"A-1, B-2, C-3\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-3, C-1\",\r\n      \"A-3, B-1, C-2\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) A-2, B-1, C-3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 5.1.3:<\/b> ITB guides bidders through the process up to award \u2014 <i>\"but should <b>not contain information on processes after the announcement of the award<\/b>, which should be covered in GCC, for example, the arbitration clause\"<\/i>; GCC <i>\"covers all information on aspects <b>after the announcement of the tender award till the closure<\/b> of the contract and dispute resolution. It should not cover any aspect up to the announcement of the award\"<\/i>; the Schedule of Requirements lists goods, quantities, delivery requirements, destination and scope of supply.<br><br>\r\n<b>Key design principle:<\/b> ITB and GCC are included <b>unchanged<\/b> in every tender; exceptional changes go into the <b>AITB and SCC<\/b> respectively (with prior CA approval), whose provisions <b>supersede<\/b> the corresponding ITB\/GCC provisions.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 144,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 5: Bid Invitation Process',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding mandatory e-publishing:\\n1. It is mandatory to publish online on GeM-CPPP all tender enquiries, corrigenda thereof and details of bid awards \u2014 whether advertised, issued to a limited number of parties, or to a single party.\\n2. These instructions also apply to purchase of goods without quotations and purchases by the purchase committee.\\n3. Exemption on grounds of national security requires approval of the Secretary of the Ministry with the concurrence of the concerned Financial Adviser.\\n4. Statistical information on exempted cases and contract values should be intimated on a quarterly basis to the Department of Expenditure.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 1, 3 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1, 3, 4 CORRECT (Para 5.1.4):<\/b> E-publishing covers <i>\"all Tender Enquiries, Requests for Proposals, Requests for Expressions of Interest, Notice for pre-qualification\/ Registration or any other notice... whether they are advertised, issued to a <b>limited number of parties or a single party<\/b>\"<\/i>; national-security exemption needs <b>Secretary + FA concurrence<\/b> (head of body + head of finance for autonomous\/statutory bodies); and <b>quarterly<\/b> statistical reporting to DoE, MoF.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 2 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"These instructions would <b>NOT apply to the purchase of goods without quotations or the Purchase of goods by the purchase committee<\/b>\"<\/i> (Rules 154\/155).`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 145,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 5: Bid Invitation Process',\r\n    question: \"When an amendment\/modification of tender documents changes the requirement significantly, or when there is not much time left for bidders to respond, the time and date of submission of tenders are to be extended by not less than:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"3 days\",\r\n      \"7 days\",\r\n      \"14 days\",\r\n      \"21 days\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 3 days<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Paras 5.1.5 and 5.1.6:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"When the amendment\/modification changes the requirement significantly and\/or when there is not much time left for the bidders to respond..., the time and date of submission of tenders are also to be suitably extended (<b>not less than 3 days<\/b>).\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nAmendments (corrigenda) may be issued <b>suo-moto or in response to clarifications<\/b> (Rule 173(iii)); they are uploaded on the e-publishing portal and the entity's website; in offline tenders, they are despatched free of cost to all purchasers of tender documents and attached to unsold sets. Extension also entails corresponding changes in bid validity and <b>EMD validity<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 146,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 5: Bid Invitation Process',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the auto-extension of bids facility in case of lack of response:\\n1. The e-Procurement portal\/GeM should not provide anybody, including the Procuring Entity, with the bid count before the tender opening time.\\n2. If bids received are fewer than the specified minimum, the system automatically extends the tender opening by the pre-specified number of days (not less than 7 days).\\n3. This automatic extension can be done repeatedly until the minimum number of bids is received.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1 and 2 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1 and 2 CORRECT (Para 5.1.6-2):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"The e-Procurement portal\/ GeM should <b>not provide anybody, including the Procuring Entity, with the bid count<\/b> before the tender opening time, even at their request... If bids received till the bid opening time are less than the specified minimum bids, the system should automatically extend... the tender opening by the specified number of days (<b>not less than 7 days<\/b>) <b>without seeking any input from or sharing any information with anyone<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"this automatic extension of bid opening shall be done <b>only once, not repeatedly<\/b>.\"<\/i> A Procuring Entity wanting to proceed even with low competition (e.g., urgency) may mention <b>'one'<\/b> as the minimum bid.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 147,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 5: Bid Invitation Process',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding conflict-of-interest-based eligibility in a tender:\\n1. A Principal can authorize only one agent, and an agent should not represent or quote on behalf of more than one Principal.\\n2. Participation by a bidder in more than one bid (including as partner\/JV member) results in disqualification of all bids in which he is a party.\\n3. An entity cannot participate as a sub-contractor in more than one bid, even if not bidding independently.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1 and 2 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1 and 2 CORRECT (Para 5.2.2-3):<\/b> One Principal \u2014 one agent, and one agent \u2014 one Principal (though multiple authorised distributors may quote OEM equipment in <b>PAC<\/b> procurements); participation in more than one bid disqualifies <b>all bids<\/b> in which the bidder is a party.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"However, this does <b>not limit the participation of an entity as a sub-contractor in more than one bid<\/b> if he is not bidding independently in his own name or as a member of a JV.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nAlso: except for <b>COTS items<\/b>, a bidder quoting another company's product must attach the <b>manufacturer's authorisation certificate<\/b> and the manufacturer's warranty confirmation; for large contracts\/capital equipment, the authorisation must be <b>tender-specific<\/b>, not a general dealership.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 148,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 5: Bid Invitation Process',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding Pre-NIT and Pre-bid conferences:\\n1. A Pre-NIT conference (market consultation) is held before finalising\/publishing the NIT in complex and innovative procurement cases.\\n2. A pre-bid conference provision shall be kept in tender documents for turnkey contracts, sophisticated and costly equipment, large works and complex consultancy assignments.\\n3. The date and time for the pre-bid conference should normally be after 15 to 21 days of the issue of the Tender Document.\\n4. Minutes of the pre-bid conference shall be published on the Procuring Entity's portal within seven days of the conference.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 5.2.3 \u2014 all four correct:<\/b> Pre-NIT conference for complex\/innovative cases (widely publicised; inputs minuted; in green-field projects, <b>two-stage EoI tendering<\/b> is more appropriate); pre-bid conference for <b>turnkey\/sophisticated costly equipment\/large works\/complex consultancy<\/b>; timing <b>15-21 days after issue<\/b> of the Tender Document; <b>minutes within 7 days<\/b>.<br><br>\r\nOther testable details: participation may be restricted to those who downloaded the tender document and is <b>not mandatory<\/b> \u2014 non-participants are assumed to have no issues; written queries must reach <b>7 days before the conference<\/b> (if not specified); delegates need <b>photo identity and an authorization letter<\/b>; the conference may be held <b>online<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 149,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 5: Bid Invitation Process',\r\n    question: \"A prospective bidder requiring clarification of tender documents may ask questions in writing before the clarification end date. If not mentioned in the tender, this deadline is ______ before the bid-submission deadline, and the response will be sent at least ______ prior to the date of opening:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"7 days; 5 days\",\r\n      \"5 days; 7 days\",\r\n      \"10 days; 3 days\",\r\n      \"15 days; 7 days\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 7 days; 5 days<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 5.2.4:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"...provided the questions are raised before the clarification end date mentioned therein (or if not mentioned, <b>before 7 days of the deadline for the bid submission<\/b>). This deadline shall not be extended in case of any intervening holidays. A response will be sent in writing\/ digitally... <b>at least 5 days prior to the date of opening<\/b> of the tenders. Only <b>material queries<\/b> and their responses shall be uploaded on the website <b>without revealing the identity of the bidder<\/b> making the query.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 150,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 5: Bid Invitation Process',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding withdrawal\/modification of bids by bidders:\\n1. A bidder may substitute or modify its bid up to the deadline of submission of bids, and only the last bid submitted shall be considered valid.\\n2. A bidder may withdraw his bid before the bid submission deadline, and such a bid shall not be opened.\\n3. Withdrawal or modification of a bid between the deadline for submission and the expiry of bid validity leads to forfeiture of bid security\/EMD.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 5.2.5:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"The bidder, after submitting its bid, is permitted to substitute\/ alter\/ modify it... <b>up to the deadline of submission of bids<\/b>. Resubmission of a bid shall require uploading all documents, including the financial bid, afresh. The system shall consider <b>only the last bid submitted as a valid bid<\/b>. The bidder may withdraw his bid before the bid submission deadline, and it shall be marked as withdrawn and <b>shall not be opened<\/b>... Withdrawal\/ amendment\/ modification... between the deadline for submission of bids and the expiration of the period of bid validity, his <b>bid security\/ EMD shall be forfeited<\/b> besides imposition of any other punitive remedy.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 151,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 5: Bid Invitation Process',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding uploading of bids in e-Procurement:\\n1. In case of conflict between the provisions of the e-procurement Portal and the Tender Document, the provisions of the Tender Document shall prevail.\\n2. The date and time of the e-Procurement server clock shall be used as the reference time for deciding the closing time of bid submission.\\n3. If the office happens to be closed on the deadline to submit the (online) bids, this deadline shall not be extended.\\n4. If the office is closed on the deadline for physical submission of originals of scanned documents, it shall stand extended to the next working day.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 2, 3 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 1 INCORRECT (Para 5.2.7-1(c)):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"In case of conflict between the provisions of the Portal and the Tender Document, <b>provisions of the PORTAL shall prevail<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 2-4 CORRECT:<\/b> Server clock is the reference (no complaints about server clock\/internet failure\/heavy traffic entertained); the <b>online<\/b> bid deadline is NOT extended for office closure; but the deadline for <b>physical submission of originals<\/b> extends to the next working day at the same time and venue.<br><br>\r\nOther points: only <b>one copy<\/b> of the bid can be uploaded, digitally signed (IT Act 2000); uploaded bids are <b>automatically encrypted<\/b>; the entity may call for <b>verification of originals<\/b> at any stage, especially from the successful bidder before LoA.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 152,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 5: Bid Invitation Process',\r\n    question: \"A bid shall remain valid for the period mentioned in the Tender Document. If not specified, the default bid validity is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"60 days\",\r\n      \"90 days\",\r\n      \"120 days\",\r\n      \"180 days\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 90 days<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 5.2.8:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"A bid shall remain valid for the period mentioned in the Tender Document (<b>90 days if not so specified<\/b>). A bid that is valid for a shorter period <b>shall be rejected as nonresponsive<\/b>. In case the day up to which the bids are to remain valid falls on or is subsequently declared a holiday\/ closed day..., the bid validity shall automatically be deemed to be <b>extended upto the next working day<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nThe validity period should not be unreasonably long \u2014 keeping tenders valid longer <b>entails the risk of getting higher prices<\/b> from bidders.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 153,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 5: Bid Invitation Process',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding receipt and opening of bids in offline tenders:\\n1. The Bid Opening Committee (BOC) shall comprise one officer each from the procuring entity and associated\/integrated finance.\\n2. The tender box shall have two locks \u2014 the key of one lock with the head of the office and the other with an official nominated by him.\\n3. Bids sent by telex, cable or facsimile are to be ignored and rejected.\\n4. Late bids may be opened and considered if the delay was due to postal reasons.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1, 2 and 3 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1-3 CORRECT (Paras 5.3-1, 5.2.7-2):<\/b> BOC = <b>one officer each<\/b> from the procuring entity and associated\/integrated finance; two-lock tender box with split custody; and bids by <b>telex, cable or facsimile are ignored and rejected<\/b>.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 4 INCORRECT (Rule 165 of GFR 2017):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"<b>Late bids<\/b> (that is, bids received after the specified date and time for receipt of bids) <b>should NOT be considered<\/b>\"<\/i> in advertised or limited tender enquiries \u2014 they are separately counted, kept aside and not opened.<br><br>\r\nIf the bid opening date is declared a holiday, bids are opened <b>at the appointed time on the next working day<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 154,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 5: Bid Invitation Process',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the conduct of bid opening by the Bid Opening Committee (BOC):\\n1. After opening, every tender shall be numbered serially (e.g., 3\/14 for the third bid out of 14), initialled and dated on the first page.\\n2. Prices, delivery period and discounts shall be circled and initialled with date; where quantities\/amounts are written only in figures, the BOC should write them in words.\\n3. In the absence of any alteration\/overwriting, the remark 'no corrections noted' should be written on the bid.\\n4. The BOC has the authority to reject a clearly non-compliant tender at the tender opening stage itself.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1, 2 and 3 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1-3 CORRECT (Para 5.3-3(d)(e)):<\/b> serial numbering (3\/14 style), initialling and dating; circling and initialling of prices\/delivery period\/discounts, writing figures in words; and explicit remarks \u2014 <i>\"no corrections noted\"<\/i> \/ <i>\"no discounts noted\"<\/i>. Blank pages are crossed out; alterations are numbered and their total marked on the first page.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 4 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Clarifications by the bidders shall not be allowed or recorded during the bid opening. <b>BOC has NO authority to reject any tender at the tender opening stage<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nThe BOC announces salient features (description, quoted price, delivery terms, discounts, EMD status); financial instruments are handed to the <b>Finance Section<\/b>; the bid opening report (Annexure 13) is signed with date and time.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 155,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 5: Bid Invitation Process',\r\n    question: \"Regarding transparency and protection of third-party rights of bidders:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Full technical and financial bids of all bidders must be made accessible to the public at large\",\r\n      \"A comparative summary of technical and financial bids should be accessible to participating bidders, but full technical\/financial bids should not be made accessible to the public at large\",\r\n      \"No information about bids may be shared with anyone including participating bidders\",\r\n      \"Only the L1 bidder can see other bids\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B)<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 5.4:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"As far as the bidders who have participated in a tender..., for transparency, a <b>comparative summary of Technical (compliance details) and of Financial bids<\/b> (including QCBS calculations...) should also be accessible to them, but not necessarily to the public at large... Bidders may have genuine concerns about <b>techno-commercial and operational trade secrets<\/b>... Technical\/ financial bids should <b>not be made accessible to the public at large<\/b>, and a call needs to be taken based on the sensitivity of details... The decision of procuring Entity to share or not share the full technical bids with other participating bidders should be <b>clearly brought out in the Tender Documents<\/b>.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n\r\n  \/\/ ==================== CHAPTER 6: SECURITIES, PRICES, PAYMENT TERMS & PRICE VARIATIONS ====================\r\n  {\r\n    id: 156,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 6: Securities, Prices & Payments',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding Bid Security\/EMD:\\n1. Bid Security is to be obtained in the case of advertised (OTE and GTE) tenders or Special Limited Tender Enquiry.\\n2. The amount of bid security should ordinarily range between two to five per cent of the estimated value of the goods to be procured.\\n3. Bid security may be obtained in the form of insurance surety bonds, account payee demand draft, banker's cheque or bank guarantee (including e-BG).\\n4. The bid security is normally to remain valid for a period of 45 days beyond the final bid validity period.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 6.1.1 \u2014 all four correct:<\/b> Bid Security applies to <b>OTE, GTE and SLTE<\/b>; amount <b>2% to 5%<\/b> of estimated value (rounded to the nearest thousand rupees, indicated in the tender documents); acceptable forms include <b>insurance surety bonds, DD, banker's cheque, bank guarantee (including e-BG)<\/b> or online payment; validity <b>45 days beyond the final bid validity period<\/b>.<br><br>\r\nNote: if the bid security exceeds a threshold (<b>Rupees five lakh<\/b>) and for foreign bidders in GTE, it may be required in the form of a <b>bank guarantee<\/b> (in equivalent foreign exchange for GTE) issued\/confirmed by a commercial bank in India.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 157,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 6: Securities, Prices & Payments',\r\n    question: \"In place of Bid Security, procuring entities (after CA approval) may ask bidders to submit a Bid Securing Declaration (BSD). If a bidder violates the BSD (e.g., withdraws its bid during validity), the consequence is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Forfeiture of an amount equal to 2% of the bid value\",\r\n      \"Suspension for the time period specified in the BSD from being eligible to submit bids for contracts with the procuring entity, as a violation of the Code of Integrity\",\r\n      \"Immediate debarment for three years across all Ministries\",\r\n      \"Criminal prosecution under the Prevention of Corruption Act\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) Suspension per the BSD as a Code of Integrity violation<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 6.1.1-2:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"...Procuring Entities, after seeking approval from the competent authority, may consider asking Bidders to submit a <b>Bid securing declaration (BSD)<\/b>, accepting that if they withdraw or modify their Bids during the period of validity or if they are awarded the contract and they fail to submit performance security, or to sign the contract..., it shall be considered as a <b>violation of Code on Integrity<\/b> and they shall be <b>suspended for the time period specified in the BSD<\/b> from being eligible to submit Bids\/Proposals for contracts with the procuring entity.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nSince there is no financial instrument, the sanction under a BSD is <b>suspension<\/b>, not forfeiture.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 158,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 6: Securities, Prices & Payments',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding return of Bid Securities:\\n1. Bid securities of unsuccessful bidders should be returned at the latest by the 30th day after the award of the contract.\\n2. Bid security should be refunded to the successful bidder upon receipt of performance security.\\n3. In two-packet or two-stage tendering, bid securities of bidders unsuccessful at the technical evaluation stage should be returned within 30 days of declaration of the result of the first stage.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 6.1.1-5:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Bid securities of the unsuccessful bidders should be returned... as soon as possible after the expiry of the final bid validity period and, <b>at the latest, by the 30th day after the award of the contract<\/b>. Bid security should be refunded to the successful bidder <b>upon receipt of performance security<\/b>. However, in the case of two-packet or two-stage tendering, Bid securities of unsuccessful bidders during the first stage, i.e., technical evaluation..., should be returned <b>within 30 days of declaration of the result of the first stage<\/b>.\"<\/i> (OM dated 01.04.2022)`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 159,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 6: Securities, Prices & Payments',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding exemption from Bid Security (EMD):\\n1. MSEs and DPIIT-recognised Startups are exempt from payment of EMD.\\n2. Bidders currently registered with the procuring entity (and remaining registered during bid validity) may be exempted.\\n3. For registered bidders other than MSEs, the exemption is valid for the trade group and monetary value of registration only.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 6.1.1-3:<\/b><br>\r\nBid security may be exempted with CA approval for: <b>indigenisation\/development tenders, limited tenders, procurements directly from manufacturers or authorised agents, and currently registered bidders<\/b> (who remain registered through bid validity). <i>\"<b>MSEs<\/b>... and registered <b>Startups as recognized by DPIIT<\/b>... are exempt from payment of EMD... <b>Except for MSEs, this exemption is valid for the trade group and monetary value of registration only<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nClaimants must furnish a certified copy of valid registration details.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 160,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 6: Securities, Prices & Payments',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding Performance Security in procurement of Goods:\\n1. Performance security should be for an amount of three to five per cent of the value of the contract (3 to 10% for Works).\\n2. In GTE tenders, the performance security should be in the same currency as the contract and must conform to the Uniform Rules for Demand Guarantees (URDG 758).\\n3. The concept of taking part of the Performance Guarantee as money retained from the first or progressive bills of the supplier is acceptable in procurement of goods.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1 and 2 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1 and 2 CORRECT (Para 6.1.2-1):<\/b> PS = <b>3% to 5%<\/b> of contract value for goods (<b>3-10% for Works<\/b>) per OM dated 01.01.2024; in GTE, PS in the <b>same currency as the contract<\/b>, conforming to <b>URDG 758<\/b> (International Chamber of Commerce rules for demand guarantees).<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Unlike the procurement of Works, in the procurement of Goods, the concept of taking part of the Performance Guarantee as <b>money retained from the first or progressive bills<\/b> of the supplier is <b>NOT acceptable<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nIllustrative ceilings: <b>Rs 75 lakh<\/b> for tenders up to Rs 50 crore; <b>Rs 3 crore<\/b> for tenders above Rs 50 crore but below Rs 300 crore; entities may set their own limits with CA approval and finance concurrence.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 161,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 6: Securities, Prices & Payments',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding Performance Security:\\n1. Submission of Performance Security is not necessary for a tender value upto Rs. 50 lakh.\\n2. Government Ministries, Departments, attached and subordinate offices and autonomous bodies may be exempted from submission of Performance Security.\\n3. The OEM in whose favour a PAC has been issued may be exempted in tenders issued against that PAC.\\n4. There is a bar on taking Performance Security from CPSEs.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1, 2 and 3 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1-3 CORRECT (Paras 6.1.2-2 and 3):<\/b> PS not necessary for tender value <b>upto Rs. 50 lakh<\/b> (as per revised thresholds); exemptible entities include <b>Govt Ministries\/Departments\/attached and subordinate offices\/autonomous bodies<\/b> and the <b>OEM in whose favour the PAC<\/b> was issued.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 4 INCORRECT:<\/b> The footnote clarifies \u2014 <i>\"There is <b>no bar from taking Performance Security from CPSEs<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nTiming: PS is furnished within <b>14 to 28 days after notification of award<\/b> and remains valid <b>60 days beyond completion of ALL contractual obligations including warranty<\/b>. For multi-year contracts (RCs etc.), PS may be <b>proportionately reduced<\/b> with the balance contract period.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 162,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 6: Securities, Prices & Payments',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding forfeiture and refund of Performance Security:\\n1. Performance security will be forfeited in the event of a breach of contract by the contractor.\\n2. If the contractor has partially executed the work, only a proportionate part of the performance security should be forfeited.\\n3. Performance security should be refunded without interest not later than 60 days of completion of all obligations including warranty.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: C) 1 and 3 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1 and 3 CORRECT (Para 6.1.2-6):<\/b> forfeiture on breach, credited to the procuring entity's account; refund <b>without interest<\/b>, not later than <b>60 days<\/b> of completion of all obligations including warranty.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 2 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"(<b>full performance security should be forfeited, even if the Contractor has partially executed the work<\/b>)\"<\/i> \u2014 there is no proportionate forfeiture.<br><br>\r\nSenior officers should monitor return of securities; monitoring should include a <b>monthly review of all bank guarantees expiring in the next three months<\/b>; a BG should <b>never be handed over to the supplier<\/b> for extension of validity.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 163,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 6: Securities, Prices & Payments',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the Insurance Surety Bond (ISB):\\n1. It is a three-party agreement among the principal, the beneficiary (Procuring Entity) and the surety insurer.\\n2. Unlike a Bank Guarantee, it is a premium-based insurance product and does not require deposit of a collateral amount by the principal.\\n3. If the principal does not pay within 14 days of default assessment, the surety insurer pays within 45 calendar days of receiving the necessary documentation.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 6.1.3:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"An Insurance Surety Bond (ISB) is a <b>three-party agreement<\/b>... [among] the beneficiary..., the surety or bonding company... [and] the principal... Unlike a Bank Guarantee, it is a type of <b>premium-based insurance product and does not require a deposit of a collateral amount<\/b> by the principal with the surety... If the principal defaults, the surety insurer assesses the extent of default and determines the amount payable under the bond. If the principal does not pay <b>within 14 days<\/b>, the surety insurer pays <b>within 45 calendar days<\/b> of receiving the necessary documentation.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nISBs were made an acceptable form of bid\/performance security vide DoE OM dated <b>02.02.2022<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 164,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 6: Securities, Prices & Payments',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding Electronic Bank Guarantee (e-BG):\\n1. e-BG is a dematerialised Bank Guarantee processed on National e-Governance Services Limited (NeSL), an Information Utility registered with the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India.\\n2. The facility is available 24\/7, including non-working days.\\n3. Verification of the e-BG stored in NeSL is sufficient, and verification with the issuing Bank is not required.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 6.1.4:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Electronic Bank Guarantee is a <b>dematerialised Bank Guarantee processed on National e-Governance Services Limited (NeSL)<\/b> (an Information Utility registered with the <b>Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India<\/b> under the aegis of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code). It handles <b>all lifecycle events<\/b> of e-BG... The facility is available <b>24\/7, including non-working days<\/b>... <b>Verification of the e-BG stored in NeSL is sufficient, and verification with the issuing Bank is not required<\/b>. This is a significant benefit for procuring entities.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nThe tender document should inform bidders of the beneficiary's <b>UIN and email ID<\/b>; invocation\/release is through digitally signed submission on the NeSL portal.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 165,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 6: Securities, Prices & Payments',\r\n    question: \"In the case of capital equipment with a warranty clause, the supplier may be allowed to have the Performance Guarantee valid up to 60 days beyond the delivery\/commissioning period, provided the contractor submits a fresh Warranty Bank Guarantee of what percentage of the value of goods, valid upto 60 days beyond the warranty period?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"5 per cent\",\r\n      \"10 per cent\",\r\n      \"15 per cent\",\r\n      \"25 per cent\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 10 per cent<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 6.1.5:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"It is normally permissible... to allow the Performance guarantee to be valid upto 60 (sixty) days beyond the delivery\/ commissioning period, and the contractor may be allowed to submit a fresh <b>Warranty Bank Guarantee of 10 (ten) per cent of the value of the goods<\/b> in the currency of the contract <b>valid upto 60 (sixty) days beyond the Warranty period<\/b>. In such cases, the performance guarantee is to be returned only after satisfactory delivery\/ commissioning <b>and receipt of such a warranty bank guarantee<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nFor goods other than capital equipment (and low-value capital goods up to <b>rupees one lakh<\/b>), a warranty clause is <b>not called for<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 166,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 6: Securities, Prices & Payments',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding verification of Bank Guarantees:\\n1. BGs submitted as EMD\/performance security need to be immediately verified from the issuing bank before acceptance.\\n2. Confirmation from the issuing branch should be obtained in writing through registered post\/speed post\/courier\/SFMS.\\n3. A Corporate Guarantee or Indemnity Bond may be accepted in lieu of Bank Guarantee for performance security in the case of reputed firms.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1 and 2 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1 and 2 CORRECT (Para 6.1.6):<\/b> immediate verification from the issuing bank before acceptance (no legal\/finance vetting needed if in the specified format); written confirmation via <b>registered post\/speed post\/courier\/SFMS<\/b> on the bank's official letterhead with the officer's name, designation and code number.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"<b>Corporate Guarantee or Indemnity Bond shall NOT be accepted<\/b> for Bid Security (EMD) or performance Security or in lieu of any other Bank Guarantee (e.g., for advance payment\/ warranty obligations).\"<\/i> There are no exceptions for reputed firms.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 167,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 6: Securities, Prices & Payments',\r\n    question: \"For a domestic goods contract requiring installation and commissioning by the supplier, with terms of delivery as FOR dispatching station, the generally suggested payment terms are:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"100% on proof of dispatch\",\r\n      \"60% on proof of dispatch, 30% on receipt of goods at site, and 10% on successful installation, commissioning and acceptance\",\r\n      \"90% on receipt and acceptance, 10% on installation\",\r\n      \"50% advance, 50% on installation\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 60% \/ 30% \/ 10%<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 6.3-4(a):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"For a contract with terms of delivery as FOR dispatching station -- <b>60 (sixty) per cent on proof of dispatch<\/b> along with other specified documents, <b>30 (thirty) per cent on receipt of the goods at the site<\/b> by the consignee and a balance of <b>10 (ten) per cent on successful installation and commissioning<\/b> and acceptance by the consignee.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>Contrast:<\/b> for FOR destination\/delivery-at-site with installation \u2014 <b>90% + 10%<\/b>; without installation, FOR destination \u2014 <b>100% on receipt and acceptance<\/b>; FOR dispatching station without installation \u2014 <b>60-90% on proof of dispatch<\/b>, balance on receipt. The Manual notes the <b>desirable<\/b> delivery term is <b>FOR destination<\/b>, so the supplier remains responsible for safe arrival.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 168,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 6: Securities, Prices & Payments',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding payment for imported goods:\\n1. Where installation is not the supplier's responsibility, 100 per cent of the net price is paid against production of stipulated documents.\\n2. Where installation, erection and commissioning are the supplier's responsibility, 80-90% is paid against documents and the balance within 21-30 days of successful installation and acceptance.\\n3. The entire 100% agency commission is paid in equivalent Indian Rupees after all other payments have been made to the supplier.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 6.4.1 \u2014 all three correct:<\/b> <b>100%<\/b> against documents where installation is not the supplier's responsibility; <b>80-90% + balance within 21-30 days<\/b> of successful installation\/commissioning and acceptance where it is; and agency commission \u2014 <i>\"the entire 100 (hundred) per cent agency commission is paid (<b>in equivalent non-convertible Indian Rupees based on BC selling rate of exchange<\/b>) <b>after all other payments<\/b> have been made to the supplier in terms of the contract.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nPayment for imports is usually through a <b>Letter of Credit<\/b>; imports must conform to <b>FEMA<\/b> and RBI directions.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 169,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 6: Securities, Prices & Payments',\r\n    question: \"In a Letter of Credit (LC) transaction, the bank that adds its own guarantee to ensure payment by the issuing bank (at the request of a supplier not comfortable with the issuing bank) is called the:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Advising bank\",\r\n      \"Confirming bank\",\r\n      \"Negotiating bank\",\r\n      \"Collecting bank\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) Confirming bank<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 6.4.5-1:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"The issuing bank arranges with a bank in the supplier's region (called <b>advising bank<\/b>) to notify the supplier... of the availability of the LC. Since the supplier may not be comfortable with the issuing bank, it may ask a bank he trusts (called <b>confirming bank<\/b>) to <b>add a guarantee to ensure payments by the issuing bank<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nThe issuing bank pays <b>based solely on the documents presented<\/b> without physically ascertaining shipment. LCs for import into India must adhere to <b>UCP 600<\/b> (Uniform Customs and Practices for Documentary Credits). Risks include commercial, global, documentary, bank risk and fraud.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 170,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 6: Securities, Prices & Payments',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding pricing in bids:\\n1. Save for special reasons stated in the bid, the price charged shall not be higher than the Maximum Retail Price (MRP).\\n2. Short-term contracts where the delivery period does not extend beyond 12 months should normally be concluded on a firm and fixed price basis.\\n3. In tenders with deliveries longer than 12 months, a Price Variation Clause may be provided, particularly for procurements of more than Rupees three crore.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 6.6:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"In any case, save for special reasons stated in the bid, if any, the price charged shall <b>not be higher than the Maximum Retail Price (MRP)<\/b>... Short-term contracts where the delivery period does not extend beyond <b>12 (twelve) months<\/b> should normally be concluded on a <b>firm and fixed price<\/b>... In tenders with deliveries longer than 12 (twelve) months, a <b>Price Variation Clause (PVC)<\/b> may be provided to protect the purchaser's interests, particularly for <b>high-value (more than Rupees three crore)<\/b> procurements.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nPVC may also be stipulated for shorter\/lower-value contracts with <b>volatile inputs<\/b>; it is best to <b>proactively provide the entity's own PVC formula and base dates<\/b> in the tender to keep bids comparable.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 171,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 6: Securities, Prices & Payments',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding essential elements of a Price Variation Clause (PVC):\\n1. The base date should be a few weeks\/months prior to the last date of submission of bids, when the last published price indices would be available.\\n2. The PVC must stipulate a minimum percentage of variation of the contract price (e.g., 2%) only above which price variation will be admissible.\\n3. The PVC should provide a ceiling (say 20%\/25% of the original price) beyond which price variation would be capped.\\n4. Where advance or stage payments are made, price variation will continue to be admissible on such portions even after the dates of such payments.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1, 2 and 3 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1-3 CORRECT (Para 6.6-5(d)):<\/b> <b>Base date & time lag<\/b> \u2014 linked to the month\/year of last published indices before bid submission; <b>ignorable variation<\/b> \u2014 e.g., increases below <b>2%<\/b> of contract price attract no adjustment; <b>inordinate variation<\/b> \u2014 ceiling (say <b>20%\/25%<\/b>), beyond which the supplier may invoke <b>'Frustration of Contract'<\/b> for short-closure (or the CA with finance concurrence may relax the cap).<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 4 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Where advance or stage payments are made, there should be a further stipulation that <b>NO price variations will be admissible on such portions of the price after the dates of such payment<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nAlso: LD is recoverable <b>on the price as varied<\/b> by PVC; <b>no upward variation beyond the original delivery date<\/b> for supplier defaults (downward variation availed per the denial clause); variations calculated <b>quarterly<\/b> using published indices.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 172,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 6: Securities, Prices & Payments',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the Exchange Rate Variation (ERV) clause:\\n1. It may be formulated for domestic tender contracts involving import content of more than 25% of the total price and delivery period exceeding one year.\\n2. No variation in price will be allowed if the variation in the exchange rate remains within plus\/minus 2.5 per cent (or another percentage fixed by the Procuring Entity).\\n3. If the delivery period is extended due to the supplier's default, ERV will not be admissible, but ERV benefits from downward trends should be passed on to the Procuring Entity.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 6.7:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"In case of domestic tender contracts involving substantial import content (say <b>>25% of the total price<\/b>) and having a long delivery period (<b>exceeding one year<\/b>...), an appropriate ERV clause may be formulated... No variation in price... will be allowed if the variation in the rate of exchange remains within the limit of <b>plus\/minus 2.5%<\/b>... In case the delivery period is revised\/extended, <b>ERV will not be admissible if this is due to the supplier's default; however, ERV benefits arising out of downward trends should be passed on<\/b> to the Procuring Entity.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nThe base date is the <b>bid-submission deadline (or 7 days prior)<\/b>; ERV applies only for components <b>imported after the contract date<\/b>; documents for the claim include the working sheet, banker's certificate\/debit advice, import order and supplier's invoice.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 173,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 6: Securities, Prices & Payments',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding GST provisions in tenders:\\n1. A bidder exempt from GST registration must submit a certificate from a practising CA\/Cost Accountant, and the applicable GST shall be deposited by the Procuring Entity under the Reverse Charge Mechanism, with the bidder's offer loaded with the payable GST under RCM.\\n2. The HSN code provided in the Tender Document is only indicative, and the bidder is responsible for quoting the correct HSN Code and corresponding GST rate.\\n3. If GST or other taxes are not specified or the column is left blank in the price schedule, it shall be presumed that no such tax is payable by the Procuring Entity, and no statutory variation in GST shall be paid.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 6.8.1 \u2014 all three correct:<\/b> An unregistered (exempt) bidder submits an undertaking plus a <b>CA\/Cost Accountant certificate with UDIN<\/b>; it shall not charge GST; the Procuring Entity deposits GST under <b>RCM<\/b>, and <i>\"the bidder should note that his offer would be <b>loaded with the payable GST under the RCM<\/b>\"<\/i>. The <b>HSN code is only indicative<\/b> \u2014 correctness is the bidder's responsibility. And an unfilled tax column means <b>no tax is payable by the entity and no statutory variation<\/b> is admissible.<br><br>\r\nAlso testable: composition-scheme bidders must declare the fact; suppliers receiving GST refunds must pass the purchaser's share back (contract should provide for this); bidders indicate their <b>GST Jurisdictional Assessing Officer<\/b>, to whom the LoA copy is forwarded.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 174,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 6: Securities, Prices & Payments',\r\n    question: \"Under the MOOWR (Manufacturing and Other Operations in a Warehouse Regulations) Scheme, 2019 introduced by CBIC, consider the following statements:\\n1. The scheme allows importers to bring raw materials and capital goods into the country without paying customs duties at the time of import (duty deferment).\\n2. If the imported materials are used for exports, the deferred duty is exempt.\\n3. The scheme is linked to export obligations, and benefits are unavailable to importers intending to sell in the domestic market.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1 and 2 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1 and 2 CORRECT (Para 6.8.2-4):<\/b> Import duty is <b>deferred<\/b> on import of raw materials\/capital goods for manufacturing in private bonded warehouses; if used for <b>exports, the deferred duty is exempt<\/b>.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Notably, the MOOWR Scheme is unique in that it is <b>DELINKED from export obligations<\/b>, extending benefits even to importers who intend to use goods for sale within the domestic market\"<\/i> \u2014 though duty must be <b>paid<\/b> on inputs\/capital goods cleared for the Domestic Tariff Area.<br><br>\r\nAlso: customs duty exemptions exist for scientific instruments of research institutes, Government hospital equipment and consumables of public-funded research institutions \u2014 against a <b>\"Customs Duty Exemption\" certificate and a \"Not Manufactured in India\" certificate<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 175,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 6: Securities, Prices & Payments',\r\n    question: \"Under Incoterms 2020, which of the following Incoterms apply ONLY to sea and inland waterway transport?\\n1. FAS (Free Alongside Ship)\\n2. FOB (Free On Board)\\n3. FCA (Free Carrier)\\n4. CFR (Cost and Freight)\\n5. CIF (Cost, Insurance and Freight)\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 4 and 5 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3, 4 and 5 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3, 4 and 5 only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 6.9:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Out of the <b>11 Incoterms<\/b> options [Incoterms last revised in <b>2020<\/b>, in use since 1936], <b>seven apply to all modes<\/b> of transportation, whereas <b>four apply only to sea and inland waterway<\/b> transportation.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nThe four sea\/inland-waterway rules: <b>FAS, FOB, CFR and CIF<\/b>. The seven any-mode rules: <b>EXW, FCA, CPT, CIP, DAP, DPU (earlier DAT) and DDP<\/b>.<br><br>\r\nNote: under <b>CIP and CIF<\/b>, the seller must insure the goods in transit for <b>110% of the contract value under Institute Cargo Clauses (A)<\/b>; under <b>DDP<\/b>, the seller additionally clears customs and pays import duties.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 176,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 6: Securities, Prices & Payments',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding time-barred claims against the Government:\\n1. Ordinarily, all claims against the Government are time-barred after a period of three years calculated from the date when the payment falls due, unless the claim has been under correspondence.\\n2. The limitation is saved if there is an admission of liability to pay, and a fresh period of limitation starts from the time such admission is made.\\n3. The paying authority is to ensure that no payment against a time-barred claim is made till a decision has been taken by the Competent Authority.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 6.11:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Ordinarily, all claims against the Government are <b>time-barred after a period of three years<\/b> calculated from the date when the payment falls due unless the payment claim has been under correspondence. However, the limitation is saved if there is an <b>admission of liability to pay<\/b>, and a <b>fresh period of limitation starts<\/b> from the time such admission is made... The paying authority is to ensure that <b>no payment against such a time-barred claim is made till a decision has been taken<\/b> in this regard by the CA.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nRelated (Para 6.10): where another Ministry requests withholding of a supplier's payment, that <b>requesting Ministry bears the responsibility of defending<\/b> any resulting legal proceedings and interest.`\r\n  },\r\n\r\n  \/\/ ==================== CHAPTER 7: BID EVALUATION & AWARD OF CONTRACT ====================\r\n  {\r\n    id: 177,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 7: Bid Evaluation & Award',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the Tender Committee (TC):\\n1. For all cases having financial implications of more than Rs. 50 lakhs, a TC should normally comprise three members, including a finance member nominated by the Financial Advisor and a representative of the user.\\n2. The representative of the Procuring Entity works as the convenor (Member Secretary) of the TC.\\n3. Tender committees may be constituted with the approval of one level higher than the competent authority.\\n4. Separate committees for technical evaluation and preliminary evaluation must also be constituted in addition to the TC.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1, 2 and 3 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1-3 CORRECT (Para 7.1-2):<\/b> TC for procurements <b>above Rs. 50 lakh<\/b> \u2014 normally <b>three members<\/b> including a <b>finance member (nominated by the FA)<\/b> and a <b>user representative<\/b>; the Procuring Entity's representative is the <b>convenor (Member Secretary)<\/b>; constitution with approval of <b>one level higher than the CA<\/b>.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 4 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"<b>There is no need to constitute any other committee<\/b> for technical evaluation, preliminary evaluation, etc.\"<\/i> \u2014 though suitable domain\/technical experts may be included in the TC itself. It is advantageous to have <b>pre-nominated (by designation)<\/b> TCs in the SoPP for various categories\/value-slabs.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 178,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 7: Bid Evaluation & Award',\r\n    question: \"In case the estimated value of a procurement exceeds Rs. 50 lakhs, which of the following applies to the constitution of the tender committee?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"All members of the tender committee must be of the same rank\",\r\n      \"No member of the tender committee should be reporting directly to any other member of such committee\",\r\n      \"The tender committee must include an external expert\",\r\n      \"The tender committee must be chaired by the Secretary\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) No member reporting directly to another member<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 7.1-2(b):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"As per Rule 173 (xxii) of GFR 2017, <b>no member of the tender committee should be reporting directly to any other member<\/b> of such committee in case the estimated value of the procurement exceeds Rs. 50 lakhs. This provision should be ensured in the constitution of <b>all purchase committees, irrespective of the value<\/b> of procurement.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nFurther: <i>\"an authority holding powers for recommending the bids by virtue of his position as a member of the Tender Committee <b>shall not also be the accepting authority<\/b> for such tenders.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 179,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 7: Bid Evaluation & Award',\r\n    question: \"Which of the following would render a bid unresponsive, liable to be ignored during evaluation?\\n1. The bid is unsigned or not signed as per the stipulations of the tender document\\n2. The bidder has quoted for goods manufactured by a different firm without the required authority letter from the manufacturer\\n3. Against a schedule requiring supply, installation, commissioning and training, the bidder has quoted only for supply of the equipment\\n4. The bidder has quoted conditional bids or alternative bids not explicitly permitted in the Tender Document\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 7.3.1 \u2014 all four are grounds of unresponsiveness<\/b>, along with: EMD not provided (or exemption claimed without acceptable proof); ineligibility (including COI\/CIPP violations); departure from essential requirements (e.g., not agreeing to performance security); bid validity <b>shorter<\/b> than required (though in <b>STE\/PAC<\/b>, shorter validity may be accepted); and non-submission\/illegible scans of stipulated documents.<br><br>\r\n<i>\"A substantively responsive bid is complete and conforms to the Tender Document's essential terms, conditions, and requirements <b>without substantive deviation, reservation, or omission<\/b>. Only substantively responsive bids shall be considered for further evaluation.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 180,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 7: Bid Evaluation & Award',\r\n    question: \"During preliminary examination of bids, non-conformities between figures and words are resolved in a prescribed manner. Which of the following are correctly stated?\\n1. If there is a discrepancy between the unit price and the total price, the total price shall prevail, and the unit price shall be corrected.\\n2. If there is an error in a total corresponding to addition\/subtraction of sub-totals, the sub-totals shall prevail.\\n3. If there is a discrepancy between words and figures, the amount in words shall prevail.\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 2 and 3 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 1 INCORRECT (Para 7.3.2):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"If... there is a discrepancy between the unit price and total price..., the <b>UNIT price shall prevail, and the total price corrected<\/b> accordingly\"<\/i> \u2014 the reverse of the statement.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 2 and 3 CORRECT:<\/b> <b>sub-totals prevail<\/b> over an erroneous total; the <b>amount in words prevails<\/b> over figures.<br><br>\r\nThe discrepancy is conveyed to the bidder with a target date; if the bidder does not agree with the observation, <b>the bid is liable to be rejected<\/b>. Similarly, where scanned\/additional copies differ from originals, the <b>original copy's text prevails<\/b>, and any substantive discrepancy is a Code of Integrity violation.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 181,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 7: Bid Evaluation & Award',\r\n    question: \"A deviation\/reservation\/omission shall be considered a SUBSTANTIVE deviation if it:\\n1. Affects in any substantive way the scope, quality, or performance of the product\\n2. Limits in any substantive way the Procuring Entity's rights or the Bidder's obligations under the contract\\n3. Is such that its rectification would unfairly affect the competitive position of other bidders presenting substantively responsive bids\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 7.3.4-2 \u2014 all three tests define a substantive deviation.<\/b> Bids with substantive deviations are <b>rejected as nonresponsive<\/b>; however, in <b>STE\/PAC<\/b> procurement, deviations may be accepted with the approval of the Competent Financial Authority, with reasons recorded.<br><br>\r\n<b>Definitions (Para 7.3.4-1):<\/b> <i>'Deviation' \u2014 departure from Tender Document requirements; 'Reservation' \u2014 setting limiting conditions or withholding complete acceptance; 'Omission' \u2014 failure to submit required information\/documentation.<\/i><br><br>\r\nAlso: offered benefits <b>above<\/b> the tendered scope shall <b>not influence evaluation<\/b>, but if the bid succeeds, the entity avails them as part of the contract. <b>Minor<\/b> deviations (no fiscal impact, no effect on ranking, no undue advantage) may be accepted \u2014 courts have held, e.g., submission of the amendment BG while omitting the main document to be a <b>minor irregularity<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 182,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 7: Bid Evaluation & Award',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding clarification of bids and shortfall documents:\\n1. No change in prices or substance of the bid, which may grant undue advantage to the bidder, shall be sought, offered or permitted.\\n2. Post-bid clarification at the initiative of the bidder may be entertained if it is beneficial to the procuring entity.\\n3. Shortfall information\/documents may be sought only for historical documents that pre-existed at the time of bid opening and have not undergone change since then.\\n4. Shortfall documents may be taken from bidders only once after the technical bid opening.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 1, 3 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1, 3, 4 CORRECT (Para 7.3.5):<\/b> no change in prices\/substance; shortfall documents only for <b>historical, pre-existing and unchanged<\/b> documents that grant no undue advantage (e.g., PAN, GST registration); and <b>only once<\/b> after technical bid opening.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 2 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"<b>No post-bid clarification at the initiative of the bidder shall be entertained<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nIllustration: if a supply order was submitted without its completion\/performance certificate, the certificate may be sought \u2014 but <b>no NEW supply order<\/b> may be asked for to qualify the bidder. Also, any bidder effort to influence the entity during evaluation is a <b>Code of Integrity violation<\/b> making the bid liable to rejection.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 183,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 7: Bid Evaluation & Award',\r\n    question: \"If deviations from critical provisions are deemed material, and the tender document does not explicitly identify the critical provisions, which of the following are taken to be the critical provisions?\\n1. Governing laws and Jurisdiction\\n2. Performance Bond\/Security\\n3. Force Majeure\\n4. Taxes & Duties and Code of Integrity\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 7.4.2-4:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Deviations from or objections or reservations to critical provisions identified in the Tender Documents will be deemed to be a <b>material deviation<\/b>. If critical provisions are not explicitly stated in the Tender document then these shall be taken to be <b>Governing laws and Jurisdiction, Contractor's Obligations and Restrictions of its Rights, Performance Bond\/ Security, Force Majeure, Taxes & Duties, and Code of Integrity<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nOnly minor deviations may be allowed, provided they are not substantive per para 7.3.4-2.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 184,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 7: Bid Evaluation & Award',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding evaluation of techno-commercial bids in a multiple-envelope tender:\\n1. The technical evaluation report is a confidential document, and its contents shall not be disclosed.\\n2. The CA may ask the TC to explain the report and may also request that the evaluation be changed.\\n3. After approval of the CA, the results of the techno-commercial evaluation are announced, including informing the failed bidders.\\n4. The date for opening financial bids should be two to five days after the announcement of technical evaluation results.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 1, 3 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1, 3, 4 CORRECT (Para 7.4.2-5):<\/b> the technical evaluation report is <b>confidential<\/b> (records retained till project completion and audit); results are announced after CA approval, informing failed bidders; and financial bid opening is <b>two to five days<\/b> after the announcement.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 2 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"The CA may ask the TC to explain the report <b>but should NOT request that evaluation be changed<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nAlso: evaluation of technical suitability is done by the TC (particularly its technical member) and <b>nobody outside the TC<\/b>; alternative offers\/makes\/models are considered <b>only if expressly allowed<\/b> in the tender document.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 185,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 7: Bid Evaluation & Award',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding evaluation of financial bids:\\n1. Comparison of responsive bids shall be on the total outgo from the Procuring Entity's pocket, including all taxes, duties, levies, freight and insurance.\\n2. For a CPSE availing Input Tax Credit, the price for evaluation shall be 'Net of GST'.\\n3. Suo-motu discounts offered after opening of tenders shall be considered for ranking the offers.\\n4. If a price bid is ambiguous such that it may lead to two equally valid total price amounts, the bid should be treated as unresponsive.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 1, 2 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1, 2, 4 CORRECT (Para 7.5):<\/b> ranking on <b>total outgo<\/b> (normally CIF\/FOR destination basis, duly delivered\/commissioned); CPSEs availing ITC evaluate <b>\"Net of GST\"<\/b>; ambiguous price bids with two valid totals \u2192 <b>unresponsive<\/b>.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 INCORRECT (Para 7.5-9):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Sometimes, certain bidders offer <b>suo motu discounts\/ rebates after the opening<\/b> of the tender... Such discounts\/ rebates should <b>NOT be considered for ranking<\/b> the offer, but if such a firm does become L1 at its original offer, such suo motu discounts\/ rebates <b>must be incorporated in the contracts<\/b>.\"<\/i> The same applies to conditional rebates (e.g., for faster payments).<br><br>\r\nAlso: bids on a variable-price basis are evaluated as prevailing on the <b>bid-submission deadline<\/b>; a firm-price quote against a variable-price requirement is acceptable, taking variation as <b>nil<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 186,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 7: Bid Evaluation & Award',\r\n    question: \"In case of a tie at the L1 position (not being a case of cartel formation), the order of decision is:\\n1. If one of the L1 bidders is an MSE owned by SC\/ST or a Women Entrepreneur \u2014 the 25% quantity reserved for MSEs is placed on it\\n2. If one of the L1 bidders is any other MSE \u2014 the order is placed on such MSE\\n3. In other scenarios \u2014 the order is placed on the L1 bidder having a higher turnover in the previous financial year\\n4. Between startup bidders with no past turnover \u2014 the order goes to the startup registered earlier with DPIIT\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 7.5-7 \u2014 the complete tie-breaking hierarchy:<\/b> first check for <b>cartel\/anti-competitive practices<\/b> (dealt with per para 7.6.8); if not a cartel \u2014 (i) <b>MSE owned by SC\/ST\/Women<\/b> gets the 25% MSE-reserved quantity; (ii) any other <b>MSE<\/b> gets the order; (iii) otherwise, the L1 bidder with the <b>higher turnover in the previous financial year<\/b>; and among turnover-less startups, the one <b>registered earlier with DPIIT<\/b>.<br><br>\r\nFor tenders on the GeM Portal, the <b>tie-breaker methodology available on GeM<\/b> is followed.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 187,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 7: Bid Evaluation & Award',\r\n    question: \"In evaluation of GTE tenders where FAS\/FOB offers are received, which of the following are added to the CIF cost to arrive at the DDP\/FOR destination cost?\\n1. One per cent as port handling charges\\n2. Customs duty and surcharges as applicable on the date of opening of the bid\\n3. Clearing agency charges and inland freight\\n4. Likely LC charges for bids with Letter of Credit payment\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 7.5.2-2(b):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"To arrive at the DDP\/ FOR\/ (FOT) destination cost, the following is to be added over and above CIF: <b>one per cent as port handling charges; customs duty, countervailing duty, and surcharges, as applicable on the date of opening of the bid; clearing agency charges; inland freight and GST<\/b>, as assessed. For bids with Letter of Credit (LC) payment, the likely <b>LC charges<\/b>... should also be loaded.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nAll offers are converted to INR at the <b>\"Bill currency selling\" exchange rate on the bid-submission deadline<\/b>. Where both Indian and foreign bidders quote, comparison is on <b>DDP\/FOR\/FOT destination<\/b> (total outgo); if there are <b>no domestic bidders<\/b>, comparison can be on <b>CIF\/landed cost<\/b> since the remaining costs are the same for all.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 188,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 7: Bid Evaluation & Award',\r\n    question: \"The indicative time schedule for finalising contracts (from date of issue of tender to issue of contract) provides timelines. The timelines for Open tender (indigenous), Limited tender (indigenous) and Proprietary\/nomination basis (indigenous) respectively are:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"60 days, 45 days and 30 days\",\r\n      \"45 days, 30 days and 21 days\",\r\n      \"90 days, 60 days and 30 days\",\r\n      \"30 days, 21 days and 14 days\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 45 days, 30 days and 21 days<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 7.6.1, Table 2 (Rule 174(i) GFR 2017) \u2014 indicative time schedule:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\u2022 Open tender\/(e-tendering): <b>45 days<\/b> indigenous \/ <b>60 days<\/b> imported<br>\r\n\u2022 Procurement through registered vendors\/(Special) limited tenders: <b>30 days<\/b> indigenous \/ <b>45 days<\/b> imported<br>\r\n\u2022 Proprietary basis\/nomination basis: <b>21 days<\/b> indigenous \/ <b>30 days<\/b> imported<\/i><br><br>\r\nA complete time schedule for finalising the tender should be <b>published in the tender documents<\/b>; every official in the chain is accountable for the schedule; deviations are monitored through Management Reporting.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 189,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 7: Bid Evaluation & Award',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding extension of the bid validity period:\\n1. The evaluation and notification of award must normally be completed within the original bid validity period.\\n2. A bidder who does not agree to a request for extension of bid validity shall have its Bid Security forfeited.\\n3. Bidders who agree to extend validity must do so without changing any terms and conditions of their original bids.\\n4. If a bidder who refused extension turns out to be L1 in the financial evaluation, the tender must be re-tendered, and such L1 price shall not be taken as precedence for determining price reasonableness.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 1, 3 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1, 3, 4 CORRECT (Para 7.6.2):<\/b> evaluation within original validity (Rule 174(iii)); extension without change in terms; and if a withdrawn\/refusing bid emerges as L1 \u2014 <i>\"the tender must be <b>re-tendered<\/b>. However, such L1 price of the withdrawn bids shall <b>not be taken as precedence<\/b> for determining price estimates or reasonableness.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 2 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"A bidder may not agree to such a request, and <b>this will NOT entail forfeiture of its Bid Security<\/b>.\"<\/i> (Forfeiture applies to withdrawal\/modification within the validity period \u2014 not to declining an extension.) The request should be made <b>preferably before expiry<\/b> of the original validity, with corresponding extension of the Bid Security.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 190,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 7: Bid Evaluation & Award',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding variation of quantities at the time of award and the Option Clause:\\n1. If so provided in the tender document, the tendered quantity can be increased or decreased at the time of award by the specified percentage \u2014 15% if not specified.\\n2. For regular recurrent raw materials\/consumables in tenders above Rs. 50 lakh, a plus\/minus option clause (normally 25%) may be incorporated, exercisable up to the final\/extended delivery date even if the initially ordered quantity has been supplied in full.\\n3. An option clause should invariably be included in development orders.\\n4. The quantum of the option clause will be excluded from the value of tenders for determining the level of the Competent Authority.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 1, 2 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1, 2, 4 CORRECT (Paras 7.6.3, 7.6.4):<\/b> quantity variation at award per the tender-specified percentage (<b>15% if not specified<\/b> \u2014 larger variations raise transparency issues); option clause <b>\u00b125%<\/b> for recurrent items in tenders <b>above Rs. 50 lakh<\/b>, exercisable by reasonable notice <b>till the final (or extended) delivery date even after full supply<\/b>; and the option quantum is <b>excluded<\/b> in reckoning the CA level for the original tender.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"There should be <b>NO option clause in development orders<\/b>.\"<\/i> Also, higher option limits increase bidders' price-hedging, so the limit should be carefully justified.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 191,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 7: Bid Evaluation & Award',\r\n    question: \"In pre-declared splitting of contract quantity among suppliers (parallel contracts), the suggested ratios for splitting between two and three sources respectively are:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"60:40 and 40:30:30\",\r\n      \"70:30 and 50:30:20\",\r\n      \"80:20 and 60:20:20\",\r\n      \"50:50 and 40:40:20\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 70:30 and 50:30:20<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 7.6.5-3:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"In the case of splitting in two and three, the ratio of <b>70:30 and 50:30:20<\/b>, respectively, may be used \u2013 a different ratio may also be justified.\"<\/i> Quantities may be varied marginally for capacity, past performance, packing\/transport unit loads, ranking, delivery period, etc.<br><br>\r\n<b>Safeguard against cartels:<\/b> since pre-defined splitting can encourage cartel formation, the tender may stipulate that bidders quote for at least a <b>minimum percentage<\/b> (the lowest distribution ratio \u2014 i.e., 30% or 20%) of the tender quantity to be responsive. <b>L1 gets at least its ratio<\/b> (or quoted quantity\/spare capacity, whichever is lower); the L1 rate is <b>counter-offered<\/b> to L2 (which does NOT amount to negotiation); if quantity remains uncovered even after increasing percentages and adding bidders in ranking order, the balance must be <b>re-tendered<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 192,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 7: Bid Evaluation & Award',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding use of the Last Purchase Price (LPP) for judging reasonableness of rates:\\n1. The comparison should be made on the basic price, with taxes, duties, transportation and P&F charges indicated separately.\\n2. Where the firm holding the LPP contract has defaulted, the price paid against the latest completed contract prior to the defaulting contract should be used.\\n3. In the case of wholly imported stores, the comparison should be made with the net CIF value at the current foreign exchange rate.\\n4. Prices paid in emergencies or offered in a distress sale are accurate guidelines for future use.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1, 2 and 3 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1-3 CORRECT (Para 7.6.6-3):<\/b> comparison on <b>basic price<\/b>; defaulted LPP replaced by the prior completed contract's price; imported stores compared at <b>net CIF value at current exchange rates<\/b>. Also: LPP with delivery not yet due is used with caution; LPP subject to variation or more than <b>a year old<\/b> should be updated per PVC-type computation.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 4 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Prices paid in <b>emergencies<\/b> or prices offered in a <b>distress sale are NOT accurate guidelines<\/b> for future use. Such purchase orders and TC proceedings should indicate that 'these prices are not valid LPP for comparison in future procurement.'\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nIn every TC recommendation, it must be <b>declared that the rates recommended are reasonable<\/b>; in large tenders, blind reliance on the cost estimate is not recommended \u2014 <b>triangulate<\/b> using more than one estimation method.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 193,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 7: Bid Evaluation & Award',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding Abnormally Low Bids (ALB):\\n1. The procuring entity may seek written clarifications, including detailed price analyses, from the bidder.\\n2. If the bidder fails to demonstrate its capability to deliver at the offered price, the bid may be rejected, and the next higher bidder evaluated at its own quoted rate (not at the counter-offered rate of the ALB).\\n3. It is advisable to fix a normative percentage below the estimated cost, below which a bid would automatically be considered abnormally low.\\n4. No provisions should be kept in Tender Documents regarding Additional Security Deposit\/BG in case of ALBs; where compelling, such additional security should be taken only with the approval of the next higher authority or the Secretary, whichever is lower.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 1, 2 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1, 2, 4 CORRECT (Para 7.6.7):<\/b> written clarification with detailed price analyses; rejection and evaluation of the next higher bidder <b>at his own quoted rate<\/b> (if reasonable); and no ALB additional-security provisions in tenders \u2014 where compelling, only with approval of the <b>next higher authority competent to finalise the tender or the Secretary, whichever is LOWER<\/b> (OM dated 12.11.2020).<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"it would <b>NOT be advisable to fix a normative percentage<\/b> below the estimated cost, which would automatically be considered an abnormally low bid.\"<\/i> The same considerations may be applied to <b>predatory pricing<\/b> cases.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 194,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 7: Bid Evaluation & Award',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding indicators and handling of cartel formation\/pool rates:\\n1. Bids from the same IP address by itself is conclusive evidence of a cartel.\\n2. The Competition Commission of India relies on circumstantial evidence, both economic and conduct-based, to conclude the existence of a cartel agreement.\\n3. To discourage cartels, the tender may specify that bidders must bid for at least a minimum percentage (say 25%) of the tendered quantity.\\n4. Where cartel formation is suspected among all approved-vendor-list sources, the Procuring Entity may place orders on bidders who are not on the approved vendor list.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 2, 3 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 1 INCORRECT (Para 7.6.8-2(e)):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Bids from the same IP address <b>raise suspicion, but by itself may not be a strong indicator<\/b> of a cartel\"<\/i> \u2014 other factors (equal rates despite different cost structures, quoted quantities much less than tendered quantity, uncanny similarities like identical typographical errors) must be assessed.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 2-4 CORRECT:<\/b> CCI relies on <b>circumstantial evidence<\/b>; the minimum-quantity clause (say <b>25%<\/b>) deters splitting-focused cartels; and against an all-AVL cartel, orders may go to <b>non-AVL bidders<\/b>. Other options: reject all suspected-cartel bids; order on one or more cartel firms selected on transparent logistics parameters; punitive actions including debarment and <b>reporting to the Competition Commission and trade associations (FICCI, ASSOCHAM, NSIC)<\/b>. Bid rigging is an offence under the <b>Competition Act, 2002<\/b> (AAEC).`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 195,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 7: Bid Evaluation & Award',\r\n    question: \"Price negotiations after bid opening are severely discouraged, but may be considered in exceptional circumstances. Which of the following are among such circumstances?\\n1. Where the L1 price is not reasonable and procurement is done on a nomination basis\\n2. Where the L1 price is not reasonable and procurement is from single or limited sources\\n3. Where requirements are urgent and delay in re-tendering would jeopardise essential operations \u2014 negotiations with L1 for the bare minimum quantum of immediate requirement, with the balance procured through re-tender\\n4. Where there is suspicion of cartel formation, which should be recorded\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 7.6.9-3 \u2014 all four are the exceptional circumstances.<\/b> Negotiation is held <b>only with L1<\/b> (techno-commercially responsive for bulk quantity, on whom the contract would have been placed). In the urgency case, negotiation covers only the <b>bare minimum immediate quantum<\/b>; the balance bulk goes through <b>re-tender<\/b>.<br><br>\r\n<b>Absolute bar:<\/b> <i>\"In no case, including where cartel rates are suspected, should negotiations be extended to those who had <b>either not tendered originally or whose bid was rejected<\/b> because of unresponsiveness, unsatisfactory credentials, inadequacy of capacity or unworkable rates.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nA counter-offer to L1 = negotiation; but a counter-offer <b>at L1's rate to L2\/L3<\/b> in splitting\/parallel RCs is NOT negotiation; nor are dynamic bids in a Reverse Auction.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 196,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 7: Bid Evaluation & Award',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the procedure for negotiations:\\n1. The validity of the original offer must be extended, wherever necessary, before negotiations.\\n2. A negotiation meeting should be started only after obtaining a signed declaration from the negotiating supplier that its originally quoted rates shall remain open for acceptance in the event of failure of the negotiation.\\n3. During negotiations, the bidder may be permitted to change other conditions of his bid in addition to lowering the price.\\n4. If the bidder does not submit a revised bid, the decision shall be taken based on its original bid.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 1, 2 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1, 2, 4 CORRECT (Para 7.6.9-6):<\/b> validity extension before negotiations (else the original offer lapses); signed declaration per <b>Annexure 15<\/b> before starting the meeting; and absent a revised bid, the <b>original bid<\/b> governs.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"The bidder should <b>not be permitted to change any other condition of his bid other than lowering the price<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nRevised bids are obtained <b>in writing (Annexure 16)<\/b> and read out to those present; the decision to negotiate or re-tender rests with the tender accepting authority on TC recommendations, with convincing reasons recorded and a definite timeframe indicated.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 197,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 7: Bid Evaluation & Award',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding a 'Single Offer' situation in advertised\/limited tenders:\\n1. A situation of 'Single Offer' is to be treated as a Single Tender.\\n2. Open tenders resulting in single bids are automatically unacceptable, and re-tendering is the mandatory safe course of action.\\n3. Even a single-bid process may be considered valid if the procurement was satisfactorily advertised with sufficient time, the qualification criteria were not unduly restrictive, and prices are reasonable in comparison to market rates.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: C) 1 and 3 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1 and 3 CORRECT (Para 7.6.10):<\/b> 'Single Offer' = Single Tender per <b>Rule 21 of DFPR<\/b> (the competent authority is as in single tender mode); a single-bid process is valid if <b>(a) satisfactorily advertised with sufficient time, (b) qualification criteria not unduly restrictive, and (c) reasonable prices<\/b>.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 2 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"It has become a practice among some procuring entities to routinely assume that open tenders that result in single bids are not acceptable and to go for re-tender as a 'safe' course of action. <b>This is NOT correct<\/b>. Re-tendering has costs: the actual costs of retendering; the costs of delay...; and the possibility that the re-bid may result in a <b>higher<\/b> bid.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nFewer than <b>three independent bids<\/b> may indicate lack of competition; the TC must record a paragraph on adequacy of competition.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 198,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 7: Bid Evaluation & Award',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding cancellation of the procurement process and re-tendering:\\n1. Once a tender is re-tendered, bids in the old tender cannot be revived and reconsidered, as per the Indian Contract Act, even if prices in the new tender turn out higher.\\n2. The decision to cancel shall be immediately communicated to all bidders, and unopened bids shall be returned unopened.\\n3. Lack of competition shall be determined solely based on the number of bidders.\\n4. In case a procurement is rebid more than once, approval of one level above the CA may be taken.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 1, 2 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1, 2, 4 CORRECT:<\/b> <i>\"once a Tender is retendered, the <b>bids in the old tender cannot be revived and reconsidered, as per the Indian Contract Act<\/b>, even if prices received in the new tender turn out to be higher\"<\/i> (Para 7.6.11-2); immediate communication to all bidders with unopened bids returned unopened, and prompt refund of EMD\/document cost (Para 7.6.11-3); and repeat re-bids need approval <b>one level above the CA<\/b> (Para 7.8, Risk 3 mitigation).<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 INCORRECT (Para 7.6.11-1(d)):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"lack of competition shall <b>NOT be determined solely based on the number of Bidders<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nGrounds for cancellation include: substantial change in requirement\/un-rectifiable infirmity; no substantively responsive bid; no technically qualifying proposal; lack of effective competition; prices substantially above updated estimates\/budget; and the L1 bidder failing to sign\/furnish PS (\u2192 re-tender).`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 199,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 7: Bid Evaluation & Award',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding handling of dissent in the Tender Committee:\\n1. TC members may co-opt or nominate subordinates to attend deliberations on their behalf.\\n2. Where differences persist, the reasons for a member's dissent should be recorded along with the majority's views, and final recommendations should be based on the majority view.\\n3. The Competent Authority can overrule dissent notes after clearly recording reasons.\\n4. If the CA does not agree with the TC's recommendations, he should record his views and, if possible, first send it back to the TC for reconsideration.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 2, 3 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 1 INCORRECT (Para 7.6.12-1):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Tender Committee duties are to be <b>discharged personally<\/b>... <b>TC members cannot co-opt or nominate others<\/b> to attend deliberations on their behalf. TC deliberations are best held <b>across the table<\/b> and not through the circulation of notes.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 2-4 CORRECT:<\/b> dissent recorded in a balanced manner with majority views; final recommendation on <b>majority view<\/b>; CA can overrule dissent with recorded reasons (his decision final); and on disagreement with TC, the CA first <b>sends it back for reconsideration<\/b> \u2014 if the TC sticks to its view, the CA may finally decide, recording detailed reasons and bearing responsibility.<br><br>\r\nAll evaluators sign: <i>\"I declare that I have <b>no conflict of interest<\/b> with any of the bidders in this tender.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 200,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 7: Bid Evaluation & Award',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the Letter of Award (LoA):\\n1. Legal communication of acceptance of the offer is considered complete as soon as it is submitted to postal authorities.\\n2. The LoA constitutes the legal formation of the contract if it is not conditional on submission of Performance Security.\\n3. On the successful bidder's request, the contract may be placed on its subsidiary or an authorised dealer.\\n4. It is mandatory for the successful bidder to register on GeM and obtain a unique GeM Seller ID before placement of the LoA or contract.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 1, 2 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1, 2, 4 CORRECT (Para 7.7.1):<\/b> legal acceptance is complete on <b>submission to postal authorities<\/b>; the LoA forms the contract <b>if not conditional on Performance Security<\/b> (as in tenders below Rs 50 lakh) \u2014 where PS is stipulated, the contract arises <b>only after furnishing PS<\/b>; and <b>GeM registration with a unique GeM Seller ID<\/b> is mandatory before LoA\/contract placement, with the ID incorporated in the contract.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"This is <b>legally not acceptable<\/b> as the Contract can only be placed on the <b>bidder in whose name the bid has been submitted<\/b>, not on any third party.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nThe entity may also, at its discretion, <b>skip the LoA<\/b> and directly issue the contract subject to PS; before LoA, originals of scanned documents may be verified \u2014 substantive discrepancies violate the Code of Integrity.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 201,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 7: Bid Evaluation & Award',\r\n    question: \"Regarding publication of the Award of Contract, dispensation from publishing may be obtained for commercially sensitive CPSE procurements meant for commercial resale. In such cases, contract award details shall be shared on GeM\/CPPP after what period of finalization of procurement?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Three months\",\r\n      \"Six months\",\r\n      \"Twelve months\",\r\n      \"They are never published\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) Six months<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 7.7.2-2:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Open, transparent declaration of price, sources, and delivery schedule of CPSEs suppliers... adversely impacts the ability of CPSEs to compete... At the time of tender formulation, commercial organisations like CPSEs will disclose whether the subject of procurement is for <b>commercial resale<\/b>. Contract Award details of such cases may be shared on electronic Procurement Portals such as GeM, CPPP, etc., <b>after six (06) months of finalization<\/b> of procurement.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nOtherwise, publication of award details and the successful bidder's name on <b>CPPP\/GeM and the entity's website is mandatory<\/b> (Rule 173(xviii)); general sensitivity-based dispensation needs the <b>Secretary's sanction with finance concurrence<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 202,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 7: Bid Evaluation & Award',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding execution and framing of the contract:\\n1. The supplier should sign and return the agreement within 14 days from issue of the contract in case of OTE and 28 days in case of GTE.\\n2. Contracts are signed 'for and on behalf of the President of India' by authorities empowered under Article 299(1) of the Constitution.\\n3. When a contract is likely to endure for more than two years, it should, wherever feasible, include a provision for unconditional revocation\/cancellation by the Procuring Entity at any time on the expiry of six months' notice.\\n4. Copies of all contracts of the value of Rs. 50 lakh and above should be sent to the Accountant General.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Paras 7.7.4 and 7.7.5 \u2014 all four correct:<\/b> acknowledgement within <b>14 days (OTE)\/28 days (GTE)<\/b> \u2014 not required for contracts below <b>Rs 2.5 lakh<\/b> or where the offer is accepted in its entirety; execution under <b>Article 299(1)<\/b> with the words <i>\"for and on behalf of the President of India\"<\/i>; the <b>six months' notice revocation clause<\/b> for contracts enduring beyond two years (Rule 225); and copies of contracts of <b>Rs. 50 lakh and above<\/b> (and all rate\/running contracts) to the <b>Accountant General<\/b>.<br><br>\r\nAlso (Rule 225): purchases up to <b>Rs 2.5 lakh<\/b> may be by purchase orders with basic terms; for <b>Rs 1-10 lakh<\/b>, where tender documents include GCC\/SCC and Schedule of Requirements, the <b>LoA itself results in a binding contract<\/b> (if no PS is due), with delivery counted from the LoA date; and the LoA copy goes to the bidder's <b>GST Jurisdictional Assessing Officer<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n\r\n  \/\/ ==================== CHAPTER 8: PROCUREMENTS WITH UNIQUE FEATURES ====================\r\n  {\r\n    id: 203,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 8: Unique Features',\r\n    question: \"For handling procurement in operational emergencies\/urgencies, fast-track modes are to be used in a particular order of speed. Arrange the following in that order (fastest first):\\n1. Direct Procurement by Purchase Committee\\n2. Procurement through the GeM portal\\n3. SLTE\/Limited\/Single Tender Enquiry with reduced bid time\\n4. Direct Procurement Without Quotation\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"2, 4, 1, 3\",\r\n      \"4, 2, 1, 3\",\r\n      \"2, 1, 4, 3\",\r\n      \"4, 1, 2, 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 2, 4, 1, 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 8.1.1:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"The following modes of procurements may be utilised <b>in order of speed<\/b>:<br>\r\na) <b>Procurement through the GeM portal<\/b>;<br>\r\nb) <b>Direct Procurement Without Quotation<\/b>;<br>\r\nc) <b>Direct Procurement by Purchase Committee<\/b>;<br>\r\nd) <b>SLTE\/ Limited\/ Single Tender Enquiry, with reduced time for submission of Bids<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nEnhanced delegations of procurement powers may be incorporated in the SoPP for such situations. The same order of speed applies in crisis situations (disaster\/pandemic), where <b>advance cash<\/b> may also be drawn for direct procurement modes with accounts\/vouchers submitted after purchase.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 204,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 8: Unique Features',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding dispensations permissible in crisis situations (disaster management\/pandemic):\\n1. An order may be issued by the competent authority declaring the crisis and promulgating the start of crisis procurement procedures, with an estimated validity period.\\n2. All procurement may be done using single-stage, single-envelope tendering; even where pre-qualification is felt necessary, self-declaration in a single envelope may be called for.\\n3. Complex methods such as reverse auction should be preferred for maximum savings.\\n4. Pre-bid conferences may be replaced by informal market research.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 1, 2 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1, 2, 4 CORRECT (Para 8.1.2):<\/b> a formal <b>crisis-declaration order with validity period<\/b>; <b>single-stage single-envelope<\/b> tendering with <b>self-declaration replacing time-consuming PQB<\/b>; and <b>informal market research replacing pre-bid conferences<\/b>.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"This is <b>NOT the time for complex methods, e.g., reverse auction<\/b>, etc.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nOther crisis dispensations: centralised need lists preserved for future; <b>rate contracts for endemic disasters<\/b> (floods\/cyclones); quantity-enhancement\/repeat-order clauses; enhanced SoPP delegations with <b>Secretary's approval<\/b>; higher prices acceptable for express deliveries; <b>MTDs\/GCC NOT applicable<\/b>; bid time shortened to <b>1-3 days<\/b>, bids by phone\/email\/in-person; <b>even a single offer accepted without retendering<\/b>; EMD\/SD\/LD\/negotiations\/registration fees dispensed with; self-declared eligibility with penalties for false declaration; and vendors' <b>self-declaration of quality<\/b> instead of physical inspections.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 205,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 8: Unique Features',\r\n    question: \"In urgent\/emergent and Disaster Management situations, in case of procurement below Rs. 50,000, if deliveries are not suitable on GeM, procurement may be done locally even if the items are available on GeM, as an exception to the rule, subject to:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Prior or post facto sanction from the Secretary of the Department\",\r\n      \"Approval of the GeM CEO\",\r\n      \"Concurrence of the Department of Expenditure\",\r\n      \"No approval, since it is below Rs. 50,000\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) Prior or post facto sanction of the Secretary<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 8.1.2-14:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Putting GeM at the centre of all such emergency procurement would help in transparency and price monitoring. However, in urgent\/ emergent and Disaster Management situations, in case of <b>procurement below Rs. 50,000<\/b>, if deliveries are not suitable on GeM, procurement may be done <b>locally<\/b>..., <b>even if the items are available on GeM, as an exception to the rule. Prior or post facto sanction may be taken from the Secretary of the Department<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nPost-crisis accountability: a <b>separate record-keeping team<\/b>; a formal <b>end-of-crisis order<\/b>; <b>special time-bound internal and external audits with large sampling<\/b> (public\/private agencies may assist); review of undelivered contracts for cancellation and unutilised stocks for gainful use; and formalising the system for future disasters.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 206,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 8: Unique Features',\r\n    question: \"In a Buy Back Offer, while replacing an old item with a new one, the bidder should be asked to quote:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Only the price of the new item after adjusting the rebate for the old item\",\r\n      \"Prices for the new item both with a rebate for the old item and also without any rebate, giving the department the option either to trade or not to trade the old item\",\r\n      \"Only the buyback value of the old item\",\r\n      \"The price of the new item, with the old item to be disposed of separately through auction only\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) Both with rebate and without rebate<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 8.2 (Rule 176 of GFR 2017):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"...the Department may trade the existing old item while purchasing the new one by issuing suitable tender documents... the bidder should be asked to quote the prices for the item (to be offered by them) <b>with a rebate for the old item and also without any rebate<\/b> (in case they do not want to lift the old item). This will provide an <b>option for the department to either trade or not trade the old item<\/b> while purchasing the new one.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nThe condition of the old item, its location, and the mode of handing it over to the successful bidder are also incorporated in the tender document.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 207,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 8: Unique Features',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding procurement of Capital Goods (M&P\/IT Systems):\\n1. Unlike consumable items, Capital Goods are procured after an item-specific budgetary provision is included in the budget, making the acquisition also an investment decision.\\n2. Alternatives to outright purchase, such as hiring, hire-purchase, leasing or acquiring the functionality as a service, may be considered \u2014 especially for equipment that undergoes quick obsolescence like IT equipment.\\n3. Clauses for including essential initial spares for two years' maintenance to be supplied along with equipment may be provided.\\n4. Because of complexity, such procurements are a fit case for pre-qualification bidding.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 8.3 \u2014 all four correct:<\/b> <b>item-specific budgetary provision<\/b> (vs non-specific provision for consumables) makes it an <b>investment decision<\/b> requiring justification; alternatives include <b>hiring\/hire-purchase\/leasing\/functionality-as-a-service<\/b> (e.g., monthly vehicle hiring or wet leasing instead of buying staff cars); <b>initial spares for two years' maintenance<\/b>; and capital goods procurement is <b>fit for PQB<\/b> since supplier experience, capacity and financial strength determine quality and after-sales support.<br><br>\r\nOther features: <b>Total Cost of Ownership (TCO)<\/b> matters since life-cycle operation\/maintenance\/disposal costs may outweigh initial cost \u2014 addressed via initial spares cost and <b>NPV of AMC<\/b> for 3-5+ years in evaluation criteria; a <b>Schedule of Guaranteed Particulars<\/b> and a <b>statement of deviations<\/b> should be sought; systems working in tandem may suit an all-encompassing <b>Turnkey contract<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 208,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 8: Unique Features',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding Annual Maintenance Contracts:\\n1. The maintenance contract is to start after the expiry of the warranty period, during which the goods are maintained free of cost by the supplier.\\n2. The maintenance contract may be entered into only with the OEM manufacturer\/supplier of the goods.\\n3. If the maintenance contract is part of the equipment procurement tender, the cost component towards maintenance for the specified years is added to the evaluated tender value to decide the inter-se ranking.\\n4. When a separate AMC tender is floated, the OEM supplier may also quote, and his quotation is considered along with the others.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 1, 3 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1, 3, 4 CORRECT (Para 8.4):<\/b> AMC starts <b>after the warranty period<\/b> (goods maintained free during warranty); if AMC is part of the equipment tender, the maintenance cost is <b>added to the evaluated tender value<\/b> for ranking \u2014 equipment with a lower quoted price may carry a higher maintenance liability; and in a separate AMC tender, the <b>OEM may also quote<\/b>.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 2 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"The maintenance contract may be entered into <b>either with the OEM manufacturer\/supplier... or with a competent and eligible firm, NOT necessarily the manufacturer\/supplier<\/b>\"<\/i> \u2014 decided case-to-case. Where an OEM authorises a service provider, the provider must produce the OEM's <b>authorisation letter confirming technical and spares support<\/b>.<br><br>\r\nFor AMCs covering longer periods (3-5+ years), future-year maintenance prices are <b>discounted to NPV<\/b> for equitable comparison.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 209,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 8: Unique Features',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding terms of an AMC:\\n1. Payment for maintenance is generally made on a half-yearly or quarterly basis.\\n2. When the maintenance contractor takes goods or components valuing more than Rupees one lakh to his factory for repair, a suitable bank guarantee is to be obtained before handing them over.\\n3. The prices charged by the maintenance contractor should not exceed the prevailing rates charged by him from others for similar services, and the contractor gives a certificate to this effect in his bill.\\n4. The termination clause should provide a notice period (say one to three months), with the contractor entitled to compensation against such termination.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1, 2 and 3 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1-3 CORRECT (Para 8.4):<\/b> payment <b>half-yearly or quarterly<\/b>; a <b>bank guarantee before handing over goods\/components valuing more than Rs one lakh<\/b> for factory repairs; and a <b>no-higher-than-prevailing-rates certificate<\/b> with each bill.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 4 INCORRECT:<\/b> The model termination clause states \u2014 <i>\"The purchaser reserves its right to terminate the maintenance contract at any time after giving due notice without assigning any reason. <b>The contractor will NOT be entitled to claim any compensation against such termination<\/b>\"<\/i> \u2014 though payment due for services already performed is paid per contract terms.<br><br>\r\nAlso: <b>SLAs<\/b> in complex AMCs specify %age uptime, response\/escalation channels and LD for delays; tender documents must clarify whether charges include <b>visiting charges, spares and consumables<\/b> (with a guaranteed price list if spares are on the purchaser's account); PS may be taken for sophisticated\/costly goods.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 210,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 8: Unique Features',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the Net Present Value (NPV) technique in procurement evaluation:\\n1. NPV of equipment procurement is the sum of present values of net cash flows for all years of the equipment's economic life, discounted at a predetermined rate.\\n2. One possible discount rate to be used is the interest rate of the General Provident Fund (GPF).\\n3. The terminal disposal value of the equipment is invariably included in calculating NPV in procurement decisions.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1 and 2 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1 and 2 CORRECT (Para 8.5):<\/b> NPV = CF\u2080 + CF\u2081\/(1+r)\u00b9 + CF\u2082\/(1+r)\u00b2 + ... + CF\u2099\/(1+r)\u207f, where CF\u2080 is the quoted price and r the discount rate; <i>\"One possible rate to be used is the <b>interest rate of the General Provident Fund (GPF)<\/b>.\"<\/i> Excel's NPV function may be used instead of manual calculation.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"The terminal disposal value... is also to be taken as negative expenditure, but since these are most likely to be the <b>same for all bidders<\/b> and there is <b>uncertainty in estimating<\/b> this, it is <b>usually NOT included<\/b> in calculating NPV in procurement decisions.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 211,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 8: Unique Features',\r\n    question: \"In a solved Net Present Value evaluation example (discount rate 7%), three vehicle offers were evaluated over a 2-year free warranty plus 5-year AMC horizon: Offer 1 (initial \u20b94,00,000; operating \u20b91,50,000 p.a.; AMC \u20b940,000), Offer 2 (\u20b95,00,000; \u20b91,00,000; \u20b950,000) and Offer 3 (\u20b96,00,000; \u20b950,000; \u20b960,000). The evaluation concluded that:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Offer 1, having the lowest quoted price, is L1\",\r\n      \"Offer 2, being the middle path, is L1\",\r\n      \"Offer 3, with the highest quoted price, has the lowest NPV due to low operating costs and is therefore the L1 offer\",\r\n      \"All three offers have equal NPV\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: C) Offer 3 is L1 on NPV basis<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 8.5-5:<\/b> The computed NPVs were \u2014 Offer 1: <b>\u20b913,51,644.26<\/b>; Offer 2: <b>\u20b912,17,992.50<\/b>; Offer 3: <b>\u20b910,84,340.74<\/b>.<br><br>\r\n<i>\"It may be seen that <b>offer 3, with the highest quoted price, has the lowest NPV due to low operating costs despite a higher AMC Fee. This offer may, therefore, be considered an L1 offer<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nThis illustrates the <b>Total Cost of Ownership<\/b> principle \u2014 initial price alone can be misleading when life-cycle operating and maintenance costs differ significantly across offers.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 212,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 8: Unique Features',\r\n    question: \"In a Turnkey contract for procurement of goods, which of the following is correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"The purchase organization designs the plant, and the contractor merely supplies goods as per the design\",\r\n      \"The purchase organization specifies the performance and output required from the plant, and the contractor designs the plant, supplies, assembles, installs and commissions it to meet the required output\",\r\n      \"The contractor only installs equipment purchased separately by the organization\",\r\n      \"Turnkey contracts cannot include machines not manufactured by the supplier himself\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B)<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 8.6:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Generally, in the tender enquiry documents for a turnkey contract, the purchase organization <b>specifies the performance and output required from the plant<\/b>... and broadly outlines the various parameters... <b>The contractor will design the plant<\/b> and provide a quote accordingly. The responsibility of the contractor will include <b>supplying the required goods, machinery, equipment...; assembling, installing, and erecting the same at the site...; commissioning the plant to meet the required output<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nA turnkey contract may cover a group of machines working in tandem \u2014 <b>even though some machines may not be manufactured by the supplier himself<\/b> \u2014 plus incidental works\/services; the inputs\/facilities the purchaser will provide are also indicated in the tender.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 213,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 8: Unique Features',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding procurement of Books and Print Media:\\n1. Quotations may be solicited from vendors in the form of Net Discount over the published Price, with the vendor offering the most competitive discount chosen as L1.\\n2. The onboarding of the vendor should be for at least one year to ensure stability and continuity.\\n3. Rate Contracts cannot be utilized for such procurements.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1 and 2 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1 and 2 CORRECT (Para 8.7):<\/b> quotations in the form of <b>Net Discount over the (published) Price<\/b> \u2014 the most competitive discount is L1; vendor onboarding for <b>at least 1 year<\/b>.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"<b>Rate Contracts CAN be utilized<\/b> for these procurements, providing a framework for consistent pricing and terms over the specified duration.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nDecisions involve consideration of author, publisher, subject matter, content quality, edition and market availability \u2014 balancing quality, content and vendor stability.`\r\n  },\r\n\r\n  \/\/ ==================== CHAPTER 9: CONTRACT MANAGEMENT ====================\r\n  {\r\n    id: 214,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 9: Contract Management',\r\n    question: \"To simplify contract closure in cases of minor shortfall\/excess deliveries in the last consignment, the consignee can be authorised to treat the Contract as completed (with payment made without formal contract amendment) provided the deliveries are short\/excess up to:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"2 per cent of the total value of the Contract or Rs. 2 lakhs, whichever is less\",\r\n      \"5 per cent of the total value of the Contract or Rs. 5 lakhs, whichever is less\",\r\n      \"10 per cent of the total value of the Contract or Rs. 10 lakhs, whichever is more\",\r\n      \"5 per cent of the total value of the Contract or Rs. 5 lakhs, whichever is more\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 5% or Rs. 5 lakhs, whichever is LESS<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 9.2.1:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"...the consignee receiving the material can be authorised to treat the Contract as completed, provided the deliveries are short\/ excess <b>upto 5 per cent of the total value of the Contract or Rs. 5 Lakhs, whichever is less<\/b>. Payment will be made <b>without the issue of formal contract amendment<\/b> and reference to the ultimate user\/ indentor. Only the supplied quantity shall be paid for... This shall <b>NOT be applicable to indivisible items or machinery and plant<\/b>.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 215,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 9: Contract Management',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding operation of the Option Clause during contract management:\\n1. If the quantity has been increased under the option clause, the negative option clause should not be invoked thereafter, or vice versa.\\n2. There should be no declining trend in the price of the stores for exercising the (positive) option clause.\\n3. The option clause is normally exercised after receipt of 50 per cent quantity.\\n4. Where parallel contracts on multiple suppliers exist, other things being equal, the supplier with the lower rate should first be considered for the option quantity.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 9.2.2 \u2014 all four correct:<\/b> positive and negative options are mutually exclusive; no declining price trend (evidenced by no lower-rate orders\/opened tenders since); exercise <b>normally after receipt of 50% quantity<\/b> (earlier if the delivery period is expiring); and among parallel contractors, the <b>lower-rate supplier first<\/b> (without upsetting the original splitting decision).<br><br>\r\nOther points: the clause and percentage (ideally <b>not exceeding 25-30%<\/b>) must be in the tender and contract; approval of the <b>CA who originally approved the tender<\/b> (or the CA for the enhanced value if delegation is exceeded); exercisable during the currency of the contract <b>even if the original quantity is completed early<\/b>; delivery period for the additional quantity fixed on the lines of the original; exercisable in <b>PAC\/single-supplier OEM<\/b> cases too; on quantity decrease, the firm should fairly be allowed to supply <b>work-in-progress<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 216,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 9: Contract Management',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the Delivery Period:\\n1. The delivery period with definite dates shall be deemed to be the essence of the contract.\\n2. Terms such as 'immediate', 'ex-stock' and 'as early as possible' are legally binding and may be used in contracts.\\n3. For raw materials delivered throughout the year, variation in the periodic rate of supply within +\/- 10% in any calendar month, +\/- 7% cumulative in any calendar quarter, or +\/- 5% cumulative in any calendar year would not be considered a violation of the delivery schedule and would not attract LD.\\n4. Unless otherwise agreed, the buyer of goods is not bound to accept instalments or part deliveries.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 1, 3 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1, 3, 4 CORRECT (Para 9.3.1):<\/b> delivery period with definite dates is the <b>essence of the contract<\/b>; the tolerance bands <b>\u00b110% monthly\/\u00b17% quarterly\/\u00b15% yearly<\/b> attract no LD (excess beyond may be rejected if inconvenient to store\/use); and the buyer is <b>not bound to accept instalments<\/b> unless agreed.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 2 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Vague and ambiguous terms such as 1,000\/5,000 numbers per month, 2 to 16 weeks from the date of receipt of order, <b>'immediate', 'ex-stock', 'as early as possible', 'off the shelf', 'approximately'<\/b> and the like should be <b>scrupulously avoided as these will NOT be legally binding<\/b>.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 217,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 9: Contract Management',\r\n    question: \"Inexcusable delays of more than what proportion of the total completion period shall be treated as 'inordinate delays' (attracting treatment as breach, deficient-performance noting and an enhanced LD ceiling)?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"One-tenth (10%)\",\r\n      \"One-fifth (20%)\",\r\n      \"One-fourth (25%)\",\r\n      \"One-half (50%)\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: C) One-fourth (25%)<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 9.3.3-2:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Inexcusable delays of more than <b>one-fourth (25%) of the total completion period<\/b> shall be treated as <b>inordinate delays<\/b>. Such inordinate delays may be treated as a <b>breach of contract<\/b> and shall be noted as <b>deficient performance<\/b> and held against the contractor in future tenders. A <b>show-cause notice<\/b> shall be issued... before declaring it a deficient performance. In case Procuring Entity decides to allow performance of contract, after inordinate delays, <b>maximum limit on LD shall be 10% (instead of 5%)<\/b> of the total contract value.\"<\/i>`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 218,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 9: Contract Management',\r\n    question: \"In which of the following circumstances is the supplier normally NOT considered responsible for the delay (requiring re-fixing of the delivery period without LD and without the denial clause)?\\n1. Delay in approving the pre-production sample though submitted by the supplier in time\\n2. Extension granted on account of some omission on the part of the purchaser affecting due performance\\n3. Cases where the purchaser controls the entire production schedule of the supplier\\n4. Cases where production\/delivery has been affected by Force Majeure or statutory change\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 9.3.3-3 \u2014 all four circumstances.<\/b> In such cases, <i>\"the delivery period needs to be <b>re-fixed without imposing any penalty<\/b> on the supplier (i.e., <b>without LD and without a denial clause<\/b>).\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nWhere <b>both buyer and supplier<\/b> are responsible to different extents, the levy of LD and the Denial clause is decided <b>on merits<\/b>. (The \"re-fixed delivery period\" is the fresh delivery period arrived at by recasting the original period for the lost time not attributable to the supplier.)`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 219,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 9: Contract Management',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding extension of the delivery period:\\n1. Extension of the delivery date amounts to an amendment of the contract and can only be done with the consent of both parties.\\n2. When extension is granted subject to recovery of LD, it is sufficient to state that the extension is 'without prejudice to the rights of the purchaser under the terms and conditions of the contract'.\\n3. In PVC-linked raw material supplies, extension may be granted even in a falling price-index trend, but with the denial clause.\\n4. Correspondence with the supplier after expiry of the delivery period should end with a line clarifying it is issued without prejudice to the Procuring Entity's rights and remedies and without any commitment or obligation.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 1, 3 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1, 3, 4 CORRECT (Para 9.3.4):<\/b> extension = <b>amendment requiring both parties' consent<\/b> (no suo-motu extension unless the supplier asks; where administratively necessary, the supplier's clear acceptance must be obtained); PVC-linked supplies may be extended in a falling trend since the <b>price variation mechanism protects the purchaser<\/b> \u2014 but with the <b>denial clause<\/b>; and post-expiry correspondence must carry the without-prejudice line to avoid <b>condoning the breach<\/b>.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 2 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"It is <b>NOT correct<\/b> to grant an extension... by merely stating that the extension is granted 'without prejudice to the rights of the purchaser'... contractors must be given a <b>warning to this effect in writing<\/b> at the time of granting extensions\"<\/i> \u2014 the LD reservation must be explicit (format in Annexure 22). A <b>Performance Notice<\/b> (notice-cum-extension letter) is used when the defaulting supplier has not sought extension but the purchaser still needs the goods.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 220,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 9: Contract Management',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the Force Majeure (FM) clause:\\n1. FM means extraordinary events beyond human control, but does not include negligence, wrong-doing or predictable\/seasonal rain.\\n2. An FM clause entirely excuses a party's non-performance under the contract.\\n3. The firm must give notice of FM within a reasonable time (say, not later than 14 days after its occurrence), and it cannot be claimed ex-post facto.\\n4. If performance is prevented by FM for a period exceeding 90 days, either party may, at its option, seek to terminate the contract without any financial repercussion on either side.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 1, 3 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1, 3, 4 CORRECT (Para 9.3.6):<\/b> FM covers acts of God, war, strike, riots, crimes \u2014 <b>excluding negligence, wrong-doing and predictable\/seasonal rain<\/b>; notice within a reasonable time (<b>say 14 days<\/b>), never ex-post facto; and FM exceeding <b>90 days<\/b> allows either party to terminate <b>without financial repercussion<\/b>.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 2 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"An FM clause does <b>NOT entirely excuse<\/b> a party's non-performance but <b>only SUSPENDS it for the duration of the FM<\/b>.\"<\/i> The supplier is not liable for punitive sanctions so long as the delay\/failure results from an FM event; an FM affecting the purchaser is communicated to the supplier on similar lines.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 221,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 9: Contract Management',\r\n    question: \"Under the Denial Clause, where delay in delivery is due to the seller's default, during the extended delivery period:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Both increases and decreases in statutory duties, PVC and foreign exchange operate normally\",\r\n      \"Any increase in statutory duties, upward PVC rise and adverse foreign exchange fluctuation are borne by the seller, while the purchaser reserves the right to get the benefit of any downward revisions during such period\",\r\n      \"The purchaser bears increases while the seller retains benefits of decreases\",\r\n      \"The contract price is frozen with no adjustments in either direction\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B)<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 9.3.7:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"In the denial clause, wherever delay in delivery is due to a default by the seller, <b>any increase in statutory duties and\/or upward rise in prices due to the PVC clause and\/or any adverse fluctuation in foreign exchange are to be borne by the seller<\/b> during the extended delivery period, while the <b>purchaser reserves his right to get any benefit of downward revisions<\/b> in statutory duties, PVC, and foreign exchange rate during such period. Thus, PVC, other variations, and foreign exchange clauses, in such cases, <b>operate only during the original delivery period<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nThe denial clause is stipulated <b>over and above the levy of LD<\/b> in the extension letter (format in Annexure 22).`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 222,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 9: Contract Management',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding Liquidated Damages (LD):\\n1. LD is a pre-estimated and mutually agreed compensation for loss on account of late delivery, and there is no need to establish actual loss due to late supply.\\n2. The standard quantum is 0.5 per cent of the delivered price of the delayed goods for each week of delay or part thereof, subject to a maximum of 5% of the total contract value.\\n3. In contracts governed by PVC, LD (if a percentage of price) will be applicable on the original price unaffected by price variation.\\n4. Where no supplies have been made under a contract, upon cancellation, recovery of only the loss occasioned thereby can be made.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 1, 2 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1, 2, 4 CORRECT (Paras 9.3.8, 9.3.9):<\/b> LD is a <b>genuine pre-estimate of loss<\/b> recoverable without proving actual loss (though recording inconvenience\/loss strengthens the entity's position); quantum <b>0.5% per week<\/b> of the delivered price (<b>including GST, freight and variations<\/b>) of the delayed goods\/services, <b>max 5%<\/b> of total contract value (<b>10% after inordinate delay<\/b>); and where no supplies were made, on cancellation only the <b>actual loss occasioned<\/b> is recoverable \u2014 LD accrues only on delayed supplies.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"LDs (if a percentage of the price) will be applicable <b>on the price AS VARIED by the operation of the PVC<\/b>.\"<\/i> For GST purposes, LD is shown as a <b>deduction on the invoice value<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 223,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 9: Contract Management',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding waiver of LD and treatment of special contractors:\\n1. Waiver of LD should strictly be an exception, requiring CA approval with consultation of associated Finance and recorded justification.\\n2. Government establishments\/Departments executing contract work should not be dealt with as ordinary contractors \u2014 they should generally not be penalised for late delivery, and claims for loss on risk-purchase should not be enforced against them.\\n3. In development\/indigenisation contracts, LDs are levied at double the normal rate.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1 and 2 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1 and 2 CORRECT (Para 9.3.10):<\/b> no routine waiver \u2014 <b>CA approval + Finance consultation + recorded justification<\/b>; Government establishments (as distinct from PSUs) are not treated as ordinary contractors \u2014 no penalties for late delivery or risk-purchase loss claims, though serious defaults are reported to the Head of the Department concerned.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"In the case of <b>development\/indigenisation contracts, LDs are NOT levied<\/b>. However, the nature of such contracts should be declared at the time of placing them.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nAlso (Para 9.3.11): accepting stores after the delivery date <b>without granting an extension<\/b> amounts to <b>voluntary abrogation<\/b> of the right to LD; local late supplies may be provisionally retained under a <b>franking clause<\/b>; for imports, LC terms should deny payment on dispatches beyond the delivery period without full LD and formal extension.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 224,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 9: Contract Management',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding types of inspection:\\n1. Stage inspection (during the production process) may be used for highly technical goods whose manufacturing-process quality considerably affects final quality; even after pre-dispatch inspection, the materials should be inspected again on receipt.\\n2. The supplier should bear the testing charges for samples, and this should be made clear at the enquiry stage itself.\\n3. Contract clauses providing that suppliers will pay for the travel, stay and hospitality of the inspecting officials help reduce Government expenditure and should be encouraged.\\n4. Post-delivery inspection on receipt is typically done for goods available off-the-shelf and BIS-marked.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 1, 2 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1, 2, 4 CORRECT (Para 9.4.3):<\/b> stage inspection for highly technical goods with re-inspection on receipt <i>\"as a matter of abundant precaution\"<\/i>; supplier bears sample testing charges (special testing costs settled before order and forming part of evaluation); on-receipt inspection typically for <b>off-the-shelf, BIS-marked<\/b> goods.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"...clauses... that the suppliers or the vendors will pay for the travel, stay, hospitality and other expenses of the Inspecting officials... is <b>NOT in keeping with the need to safeguard the independence of the inspecting teams. Such provisions... need to be DISCOURAGED<\/b> so that Inspections are not compromised.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nWaiver of pre-dispatch inspection (accepting the supplier's internal test report\/self-certification) needs the <b>written approval of the HoD of the Indenting Department<\/b> with recorded reasons.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 225,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 9: Contract Management',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the rights of the consignee in inspections:\\n1. The consignee has the right to reject goods upon receipt during final inspection even though the goods have already been inspected and cleared at the pre-dispatch stage.\\n2. The consignee may adopt new conditions (not in the contract) while rejecting goods during the final inspection.\\n3. Goods accepted at initial and final inspections shall in no way dilute the purchaser's right to reject them later if found deficient in terms of the warranty clause.\\n4. The consignee's right of rejection of pre-inspected goods is exercisable within a reasonable time, usually within 90 days of the original Inspection Report.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 1, 3 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1, 3, 4 CORRECT (Paras 9.4.3-2(c)(d), 9.6.5-3):<\/b> right to reject at final inspection despite pre-dispatch clearance; acceptance does not dilute <b>warranty-based rejection rights<\/b>; and the right of rejecting pre-inspected goods runs <i>\"within a reasonable time (<b>usually within 90 days of original Inspection Report<\/b>) after actual delivery\"<\/i>.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 2 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"such rejection should be <b>strictly within the contractual terms and conditions, and NO NEW CONDITION should be adopted<\/b> when rejecting the goods during the final inspection.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nOn rejection, the <b>material rejection advice\/memo<\/b> goes to the firm, purchaser, pre-inspecting agency and paying authorities (recovery register noted); on acceptance of replacements, the memo is withdrawn under advice to all. Disputed rejections are examined by <b>joint inspection<\/b> (entity + inspecting agency + supplier representatives).`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 226,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 9: Contract Management',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the Goods Receipt and Inspection Report (GRIR):\\n1. A preliminary receipt is only an acknowledgement of the quantity received, while GRIR acknowledges receipt of correct quantity as well as quality of goods and forms the basis for the supplier to claim payment.\\n2. For goods with limited shelf life, the contractor shall ensure that at least 75% (or the stipulated percentage) of shelf life remains on the delivery date.\\n3. The rejection GRIR contains instructions for the supplier to take back rejected goods within a stipulated number of days (usually 21), during which the material lies at the supplier's risk and cost.\\n4. GRIR should be released without undue delay (say not later than 21 days), with a monthly review of delayed cases by the head of the procuring entity.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Paras 9.6.5 and 9.6.6 \u2014 all four correct:<\/b> preliminary receipt (on \"subject to inspection\" basis) = <b>quantity acknowledgement only<\/b>; GRIR = quantity + quality voucher forming the basis of the supplier's payment claim and inventory accounting; shelf life balance of <b>at least 75%<\/b> on delivery, with the right to reject products below it; rejected goods to be lifted <b>within ~21 days<\/b> at the supplier's risk and cost (with a <b>yellow paint\/chisel mark<\/b> to prevent resubmission, and removal only after recovering advances\/freight); and GRIR release <b>within ~21 days<\/b>, monitored monthly.<br><br>\r\nIf the supplier does not lift rejected goods, <b>ground rent (0.2% to 0.5% per day)<\/b> may be charged, and unresponsive cases may be treated as scrap and disposed of under intimation to recover dues.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 227,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 9: Contract Management',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the transfer of title and insurance of goods:\\n1. Unless otherwise stated, notwithstanding inspection\/approval at the contractor's premises or payments made, the title of goods passes to the Procuring Entity as specified by the terms of delivery, and till then the goods remain at the contractor's risk.\\n2. The contractor alone is entitled and responsible for making claims against any carrier in respect of loss or damage to goods entrusted to the carrier.\\n3. In FOB and CFR offers for import of goods, the contractor shall arrange the insurance.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1 and 2 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1 and 2 CORRECT (Para 9.6.2):<\/b> title passes per the <b>terms of delivery<\/b> regardless of inspection, dispatch or payments; till then the goods are at the <b>contractor's risk<\/b>, and the contractor alone claims against carriers.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 INCORRECT (Para 9.6.3):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"In FOB and CFR offers for the import of Goods, <b>the Procuring Entity shall arrange the insurance<\/b>\"<\/i> \u2014 the contractor must give sufficient notice before shipment so the insurance cover can be activated, and ensure the shipment sails only with cover in place. For domestic goods on CIF\/FOR destination, the contractor is responsible till arrival in good condition (insuring at his option and cost).<br><br>\r\nAlso: in FOB\/FAS contracts the entity makes shipping arrangements \u2014 the contractor gives <b>at least six weeks' notice<\/b> of the required dispatch date; dispatch details must be notified <b>within 24 hours of dispatch<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 228,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 9: Contract Management',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding amendments to the contract:\\n1. No amendment should be made that can lead to vitiation of the original tender decision or bestow undue advantage on the contractor.\\n2. No change in the quoted price shall be permitted after the purchase order is issued, except on account of price variation, ERV and statutory variations.\\n3. If the contractor does not raise objections within 14 days to any suo-moto modification made by the Procuring Entity, it shall be assumed that the contractor has consented to the amendment.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 9.7.2 \u2014 all three correct:<\/b> once concluded, contract terms should not be varied \u2014 no amendment vitiating the tender decision or conferring undue advantage; <b>no price change except PVC\/ERV\/statutory variations<\/b>; and for suo-moto amendments (where the purchaser's right is reserved, e.g., penalties), silence for <b>14 days = deemed consent<\/b>.<br><br>\r\nAmendments require <b>prior CA approval<\/b>, Finance concurrence for financial implications, indentor consultation on technical implications, and legal opinion if needed; no amendment binds the Procuring Entity unless <b>written and signed by a competent authority<\/b>. Common supply-contract amendments: quantity\/option clause changes, delivery schedule\/terms, inspection arrangements, payment terms and statutory levies.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 229,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 9: Contract Management',\r\n    question: \"When Procuring Entity stores, prototypes or sub-assemblies are issued to a contractor for guidance in fabrication, they should be issued against an appropriate bank guarantee. This stipulation of a bank guarantee may be waived (with an indemnity bond taken, if feasible) for:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Items of value less than Rs. 5,00,000\",\r\n      \"Low-value items of less than Rs. 1,00,000 or for sending spares for repairs to the OEMs\",\r\n      \"All items issued to registered contractors\",\r\n      \"No waiver is permissible under any circumstance\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) Below Rs. 1 lakh, or OEM repair spares<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 9.7.3:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Whenever stores or prototypes, or sub-assemblies are required to be issued to the firm\/contractor for guidance in fabrication, these should be issued against an appropriate <b>bank guarantee<\/b>... For <b>low-value items of less than Rs. 1,00,000<\/b> (Rupees One Lakh) or for <b>sending spares for repairs to the OEMs<\/b>, this stipulation of the bank guarantee may be waived and, if feasible, an <b>indemnity bond<\/b> may be taken.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nThe provision of such resources should have been announced in the tender document; before final payment\/PBG release, a certificate is taken that the contractor has <b>returned all loaned assets<\/b> (including ID cards, gate passes) and paid usage charges for electricity, water, cranes, accommodation, etc.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 230,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 9: Contract Management',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding sub-contracting and changes in the contractor's constitution:\\n1. The contractor shall not sublet, transfer or assign the contract or any part thereof without the previous written consent of the Procuring Entity.\\n2. The subcontract shall only be for items bought out and incidental works\/services, and notification of subcontracts shall not relieve the contractor of any liability under the contract.\\n3. In a partnership firm, a new partner may be introduced without the consent of the Procuring Entity, provided the firm's PAN remains unchanged.\\n4. A retiring partner continues to be liable under the contract for acts of the firm until a copy of the public notice under Section 32 of the Partnership Act has been sent to the Procuring Entity.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 1, 2 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1, 2, 4 CORRECT (Paras 9.7.5-1, 9.7.5-4):<\/b> no assignment\/subletting without <b>prior written consent<\/b> (unauthorised subletting = breach); subcontracts only for <b>bought-out items and incidental works\/services<\/b>, with no relief of liability; and the retiring partner's liability continues until the <b>Section 32 public notice<\/b> copy is sent to the entity.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"A new partner shall <b>NOT be introduced in the firm except with the prior consent in writing<\/b> of the Procuring Entity, which shall be granted only upon execution of a written undertaking by the new partner to perform the contract and accept all liabilities.\"<\/i> On death\/retirement of a partner, the entity may <b>terminate for default<\/b>, or continue against undertakings from remaining partners.<br><br>\r\nThe contractor must also <b>maintain the capability (equipment & manufacturing facilities)<\/b> on which the contract was awarded, reporting impacting changes <b>within 7 days<\/b> of knowledge.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 231,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 9: Contract Management',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding closure of contract:\\n1. Before releasing the bank guarantee, a 'no claim certificate' may be obtained from the contractor.\\n2. In large contracts above Rs. 50 lakhs, reconciliations of materials, user-department certifications and payments should be done before release of the bank guarantee\/final payment.\\n3. On completion of all activities against a contract, the purchase file should be preserved for a period of five years in the record room.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 9.7.6 \u2014 all three correct:<\/b> <b>'No Claim Certificate' (Annexure 24)<\/b> before BG release (with the contractor's acknowledgement of release); for contracts <b>above Rs. 50 lakh<\/b> \u2014 <b>materials reconciliation<\/b> (all ordered\/paid materials received, loaned raw materials\/scrap reconciled), <b>user-department certification<\/b> (performance standards, installation\/commissioning, warranty support, training, return of loaned assets, AMC support) and <b>payment reconciliation<\/b> (LD, price reductions, variations, overpayments, services availed, demurrage, etc.); and the purchase file preserved for <b>five years<\/b>, destroyed after the mandatory retention period with CA approval.<br><br>\r\nThe contract stands closed upon successful performance of all obligations (including warranty and final payment) or upon termination and consequent settlements.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 232,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 9: Contract Management',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding breach of contract and remedies:\\n1. As soon as a breach is noticed, a show-cause 'Notice of Default' shall be issued giving two weeks' notice, after which all payments to the contractor would be temporarily withheld.\\n2. On termination for default, the contract is terminated in whole or in part without compensation to the contractor, but warranty obligations for goods already supplied survive.\\n3. Remedies include calling back advances with levy of interest at the GPF rate prevailing on the date of release of advance, plus 2%, to be compounded quarterly.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Paras 9.8.1, 9.8.2 \u2014 all three correct:<\/b> show-cause <b>'Notice of Default' (two weeks)<\/b> with temporary withholding of payments to safeguard recoveries; <b>'Notice of Termination for Default'<\/b> \u2014 whole or part, <b>without compensation<\/b>, not extinguishing warranty obligations or accrued rights; remedies include withholding payments, calling back loaned property\/advances with <b>GPF-rate + 2% interest compounded quarterly<\/b>, recovering LD and invoking the denial clause, insurance claims, encashing\/forfeiting performance security, other contractual securities, and court proceedings.<br><br>\r\nBreach events include <b>default in performance\/obligations<\/b> (including the Code of Integrity and the obligation to maintain production capability), <b>insolvency<\/b> and <b>liquidation<\/b>. Legal advice is desirable before cancelling the contract.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 233,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 9: Contract Management',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding termination for convenience and frustration of contract:\\n1. Determining the contract by the Procuring Entity for its convenience is not its legal right \u2014 the contractor must be persuaded to acquiesce and may have to be suitably compensated on mutually agreed terms.\\n2. Goods that are complete and ready for delivery within thirty days after the contractor's receipt of the notice of termination shall be accepted by the Procuring Entity at contract terms.\\n3. Under frustration of contract, if the parties cannot reach mutual agreement within 60 days of the initial 'Notice of Frustration Event', the Procuring Entity shall terminate the contract without repercussions on either side.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Paras 9.8.3 and 9.8.4 \u2014 all three correct:<\/b> termination for convenience requires the contractor's acquiescence with possible <b>mutually agreed compensation<\/b> (suitable provisions in tender and contract); goods complete and ready <b>within 30 days<\/b> of the termination notice are accepted at contract terms (for the balance, the entity may get portions completed at contract prices or cancel with agreed compensation for costs incurred); and frustration (supervening cause including change in law, per <b>Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872<\/b>) \u2014 failing mutual amendment within <b>60 days<\/b>, the contract is determined without repercussions.<br><br>\r\nWarranty obligations <b>survive termination<\/b>; performance continues to the extent not terminated.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 234,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 9: Contract Management',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding limitation of liabilities in the contract:\\n1. Except in cases of criminal negligence or wilful misconduct, the aggregate liability of the parties shall not exceed the total Contract Price.\\n2. The limitation of aggregate liability also applies to the cost of repairing or replacing defective equipment under the warranty clause and to the contractor's IPR indemnity obligations.\\n3. Neither party is liable for indirect or consequential loss, loss of production or loss of profits, but this exclusion does not apply to the contractor's obligation to pay liquidated damages.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 2,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: C) 1 and 3 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1 and 3 CORRECT (Para 9.8.5):<\/b> aggregate liability capped at the <b>total Contract Price<\/b> (less payments already made, for the procuring entity), except criminal negligence\/wilful misconduct; and mutual exclusion of <b>indirect\/consequential losses<\/b> \u2014 not applying to the contractor's <b>LD obligation<\/b>.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 2 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"provided that this limitation shall <b>NOT apply<\/b> to the cost of repairing or replacing defective equipment\/ work under warranty Clause, Defect Liability clause or otherwise, or to any obligation of the contractor to <b>indemnify the Procuring Entity concerning IPR infringement<\/b>\"<\/i> \u2014 these stand outside the cap.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 235,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 9: Contract Management',\r\n    question: \"The dispute resolution mechanisms in the contract are to be invoked in a prescribed sequence, with the next mechanism not invoked unless the earlier one has failed. The correct sequence is:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Arbitration \u2192 Mediation \u2192 Adjudication\",\r\n      \"Adjudication \u2192 Mediation \u2192 Arbitration\",\r\n      \"Mediation \u2192 Adjudication \u2192 Arbitration\",\r\n      \"Adjudication \u2192 Arbitration \u2192 Mediation\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) Adjudication \u2192 Mediation \u2192 Arbitration<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 9.9.1:<\/b> After a <b>'Notice of Dispute'<\/b>, disputes are resolved through contract mechanisms in sequence \u2014 <b>(a) Adjudication, (b) Mediation, (c) Arbitration<\/b> \u2014 <i>\"and the next mechanism shall not be invoked unless the earlier mechanism has been invoked or has failed.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>Adjudication (Para 9.9.3):<\/b> 'Notice of Adjudication' to the <b>Head of Procurement<\/b> (Adjudicator), who decides <b>within 60 days<\/b>. <b>Mediation:<\/b> under the <b>Mediation Act 2023<\/b> (which replaced the conciliation part of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996). DoE's directive (OM dated 03.06.2024) stresses amicable settlement \u2014 <i>\"without shirking or avoiding responsibility or denying genuine claims of the other party.\"<\/i> Legal advice is taken at appropriate stages.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 236,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 9: Contract Management',\r\n    question: \"Which of the following are 'Excepted Matters' (not disputable\/arbitrable, with the Procuring Entity's decision final and binding)?\\n1. Third-party claims for bodily injury, death or property damage\\n2. Issues related to the pre-award tender process or conditions\\n3. Contractual termination by the Procuring Entity on account of fraud, corruption or debarment of contractors\\n4. Provisions in pursuance of Government policies such as Make in India restrictions, land-border-country restrictions, and MSE\/Startup purchase preference\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 9.9.2 \u2014 all four are excepted matters<\/b>, along with: issues of <b>ambiguity in contract terms<\/b> raised after signing (to be highlighted before signature) and issues already under <b>investigation by CBI\/Vigilance<\/b> or other agencies.<br><br>\r\n<i>\"Matters for which provision has been made in any clause of the contract shall be deemed as 'excepted matters'..., and decisions of the Procuring Entity thereon shall be <b>final and binding<\/b> on the contractor.\"<\/i> However, <b>where the Procuring Entity itself has raised the dispute, this exclusion does not apply<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 237,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 9: Contract Management',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding Mediation under the Mediation Act, 2023:\\n1. The mediator facilitates an amicable settlement but does not have authority to impose a settlement upon the parties.\\n2. The mediation process must be completed within 120 days, extendable by another 60 days through mutual consent.\\n3. A Mediated Settlement Agreement can be challenged within 90 days only on grounds of fraud, corruption, impersonation, or the subject matter being unfit for mediation.\\n4. In contracts having an Integrity Pact, Independent External Monitors (IEMs) can be appointed as mediators as per the CVC's SOP.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 9.9.4 \u2014 all four correct:<\/b> the mediator <b>facilitates, never imposes<\/b>; timeline <b>120 + 60 days<\/b> (non-settlement report without disclosing causes if it fails); MSA challengeable <b>within 90 days<\/b> on the four limited grounds \u2014 otherwise binding and enforceable <b>akin to a judgment\/decree<\/b>; and <b>IEMs as mediators<\/b> in Integrity Pact contracts per CVC SOP.<br><br>\r\nOther testable points: mediators must be registered with the <b>Mediation Council of India (MCI)<\/b> or empanelled by court-annexed centres\/MSPs; the Head of the Procuring Organisation proposes <b>three names within 30 days<\/b>; strict <b>confidentiality<\/b> (no audio\/video recording; mediation communications inadmissible as evidence); costs borne <b>equally<\/b>; <b>no interest claims<\/b> from notice of mediation till settlement\/termination; a <b>High-Level Committee<\/b> (e.g., retired judge + retired officer\/expert) may scrutinise high-value settlements.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 238,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 9: Contract Management',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding arbitration in domestic procurement contracts:\\n1. Arbitration should not be routinely or automatically included in procurement contracts, especially large ones.\\n2. As a norm, arbitration (if included) may be restricted to disputes with a value less than Rs. 10 crores \u2014 the figure refers to the value of the dispute, not the value of the contract.\\n3. Inclusion of arbitration clauses covering higher-value disputes requires recorded reasons and approval of the Secretary concerned (or a Joint Secretary-level delegate) or the Managing Director for CPSEs\/PSBs.\\n4. Where arbitration is resorted to, ad-hoc arbitration must be given preference over institutional arbitration.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1, 2 and 3 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1-3 CORRECT (Para 9.9.5-4, OM dated 03.06.2024):<\/b> no routine inclusion; restricted to disputes below <b>Rs. 10 crore<\/b> (dispute value, not contract value); higher coverage needs <b>careful application of mind, recorded reasons and Secretary\/JS-delegate or MD approval<\/b>.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 4 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"In matters where arbitration is to be resorted to, <b>INSTITUTIONAL arbitration may be given preference<\/b> (where appropriate, after considering the reasonableness of the cost of arbitration relative to the value involved).\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nAlso: the arbitration agreement <b>survives for 120 days<\/b> after termination\/completion\/closure; for MSE disputes, the <b>MSMED Act 2006 Facilitation Council provisions prevail<\/b>; foreign suppliers may choose the Indian A&C Act 1996 or <b>UNCITRAL rules<\/b>, with the venue in India or any neutral country.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 239,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 9: Contract Management',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding arbitral procedure and awards:\\n1. The seat of arbitration shall be the place from which the Letter of Award or the contract is issued.\\n2. The arbitral tribunal is statutorily bound to deliver an award within 12 months from entering reference, extendable by a maximum of six months with consent of all parties; further extension requires the court's approval.\\n3. Where a Ministry has challenged an arbitral award, 75% of the arbitral award shall be paid to the contractor against a Bank Guarantee.\\n4. Performance of the contract shall, unless otherwise directed, continue during arbitration proceedings, and no payment due shall be withheld on account of such proceedings.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Paras 9.9.10, 9.9.11 \u2014 all four correct:<\/b> seat\/venue = place of issue of <b>LoA\/contract<\/b>; award within <b>12 months + 6 months<\/b> (court approval beyond); on challenge, <b>75% of the award<\/b> paid against BG (Rule 227A of GFR 2017), preferably into an <b>escrow account<\/b> (lenders' dues first, then project completion); and performance\/payments <b>continue during arbitration<\/b>.<br><br>\r\nOther points: claims within 30 days, defence within 60 days, statements complete in <b>6 months<\/b>; day-to-day oral arguments; sole arbitrator gets <b>25% extra fee<\/b>, award within 6 months earns <b>50% extra<\/b>; <b>fast-track procedure<\/b> = written pleadings, 6-month award; 3-member awards by <b>majority<\/b> (else the Presiding Arbitrator's view prevails); <b>no interest<\/b> payable up to the award date; challenges\/appeals against awards should <b>not be routine<\/b> \u2014 statistics show most challenged awards go in the contractor's favour with heavy interest costs.`\r\n  },\r\n\r\n  \/\/ ==================== CHAPTER 10: DISPOSAL OF SCRAP GOODS ====================\r\n  {\r\n    id: 240,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 10: Disposal of Scrap',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding declaring materials as scrap:\\n1. Before any item of stores can be sold as scrap, it should be declared as such by the Survey Committee appointed by the Head of Office, with the sanction of the Competent Authority.\\n2. The CA may relax the need for a survey, as a standing order, for known items of scrap of small value (Rs. 15,000) like newspapers and containers.\\n3. The assessed value for determining the competent authority is based on Book Value, or if the Book Value is unavailable or negligible, 5% of the Original\/Market Value of new goods.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 10.3 \u2014 all three correct:<\/b> declaration by the <b>Survey Committee (SC)<\/b> appointed by the Head of Office + <b>CA sanction<\/b>; standing-order relaxation for known small-value scrap (<b>Rs. 15,000<\/b>) subject to a departmental officer's certificate of unserviceability; and assessed value = <b>Book Value, or 5% of Original\/Market Value<\/b> of new goods where Book Value is unavailable\/negligible.<br><br>\r\nItems may be identified as scrap considering completed useful life (with maintenance-cost and utilisation norms) or limited shelf life with surplus quantities and no future use; the SC records reasons (format in <b>Annexure 26<\/b>). This chapter does NOT apply to immovable assets, precious metals\/jewellery, works of art, or financial\/business assets.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 241,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 10: Disposal of Scrap',\r\n    question: \"Match the modes of disposal of scrap with their applicable value ranges:\\nA. Petty Sales (direct sale to local scrap dealers on summary quotation) \u2014 1. Above Rs. 4 lakh\\nB. LTE Mode (limited tender to locally known scrap dealers) \u2014 2. Up to Rs. 15,000 in each case\\nC. eAuction\/tender\/public auction mode \u2014 3. More than Rs. 15,000 up to Rs. 4 lakh\\nSelect the correct answer using the code given below:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"A-2, B-3, C-1\",\r\n      \"A-3, B-2, C-1\",\r\n      \"A-2, B-1, C-3\",\r\n      \"A-1, B-3, C-2\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) A-2, B-3, C-1<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 10.4:<\/b> <b>Petty sales up to Rs. 15,000<\/b> per case (wastepaper, industrial sweepings) directly to local scrap dealers; <b>LTE for above Rs. 15,000 up to Rs. 4 lakh<\/b>; and for value <b>above Rs. 4 lakh<\/b> \u2014 sale through e-auction portal, tender or traditional public auction, with <b>e-Auction as the preferred mode<\/b> (platforms of NIC, MSTC, Indian Railways etc.).<br><br>\r\n<b>Direct Sale<\/b> to other Ministries\/Departments\/PSEs of usable machinery is at <b>book value plus overheads @20% plus freight @7.5% plus handling charges @12.5%<\/b>. Security-risk scrap (stamps, negotiable instruments, security press items) is <b>destroyed eco-friendly<\/b> per CPCB\/SPCB guidelines before a committee, with a destruction certificate and preferably video recording.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 242,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 10: Disposal of Scrap',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding sale of hazardous waste items:\\n1. The sale of e-Waste is governed by the e-Waste (Management) Rules, 2016, as amended.\\n2. Bidders must submit a notarized copy of valid registration certificates issued by the State Pollution Control Board, failing which their bid is liable for rejection.\\n3. For lead-acid batteries, used\/waste oils and nonferrous metal wastes, registration from the SPCB alone is sufficient.\\n4. For inter-state movement of goods, the buyer shall submit an NOC from the concerned SPCB with whom the buyer is registered, before taking delivery.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 1, 2 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1, 2, 4 CORRECT (Para 10.4-7):<\/b> e-Waste per <b>e-Waste (Management) Rules 2016<\/b>; notarized <b>SPCB registration certificates<\/b> mandatory (produced at delivery); and an <b>SPCB NOC<\/b> for inter-state movement before delivery.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"In the case of lead-acid batteries, used\/waste oils, and nonferrous metal wastes, <b>in addition to<\/b> submitting necessary valid registration from the SPCB, the bidder must <b>ALSO submit a notarized copy of the valid registration certificate from CPCB (or MoEFCC)<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nOld batteries are governed by the <b>Batteries (Management & Handling) Rules 2001<\/b>; hazardous waste by the <b>Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management and Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2016<\/b>.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 243,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 10: Disposal of Scrap',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding determination of the Reserve Price for scrap disposal:\\n1. Material should not be sold at rates per lot; bids should be registered by rate per unit (number, length or weight) to enable a complete check on quantity delivered.\\n2. The reserve price should be recorded on a page-numbered register, sealed immediately, and opened just before the e-auction creation\/tender opening.\\n3. Where the Book Value is unavailable or insignificant, the reserve price may be based on 5% of the original or market cost of the new item.\\n4. Engagement of a registered valuer for valuation is mandatory in all cases.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1, 2 and 3 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1-3 CORRECT (Para 10.5-2):<\/b> bids by <b>rate per unit, not per lot<\/b>; the reserve price register is <b>sealed and kept in safe custody<\/b>, opened just before auction\/tender opening; and the <b>5% of original\/market cost<\/b> benchmark where the book value is unavailable\/insignificant. Other methods: last sale price (moderated for quantity\/quality\/location\/market trends), market survey, and costing analysis (discounted for melting losses).<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 4 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"the <b>use of a valuer is NOT mandatory and is optional<\/b>\"<\/i> \u2014 a registered valuer may be engaged only where the reserve price cannot be fixed by the normal procedure. The reserve price is set by the <b>Head of Office with Finance concurrence and CA approval<\/b>; a <b>Reserve Price Committee<\/b> may be appointed for large-value disposals.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 244,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 10: Disposal of Scrap',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the 'As-Is-Where-Is' basis of sale of scrap:\\n1. The principle of caveat emptor (let the buyer be aware) applies.\\n2. The description, quality and quantity indicated are approximate, and the seller gives no assurance that the material will strictly adhere to the advertised details.\\n3. A bidder may claim compensation on account of deficiency in quantity discovered after confirmation of the sale.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1 and 2 only\",\r\n      \"2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 1 and 2 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1 and 2 CORRECT (Para 10.6.1):<\/b> sale on <b>'as-is-where-is' basis<\/b> with <b>caveat emptor<\/b> applying; description\/quality\/quantity are approximate with no seller assurance.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 INCORRECT:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Neither can the sale be invalidated, <b>nor can the bidder make any claim\/compensation whatsoever<\/b> on account of any defect in description or deficiency in the quantity and quality. <b>No plea of misunderstanding or ignorance of conditions<\/b> put forth after confirmation of sale shall be accepted.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nHence bidders are advised to quote <b>only after inspecting<\/b> items at site (11 am - 4 pm on working days with prior permission). The seller also reserves the <b>right to accept\/reject\/cancel any bid or withdraw any lot at any stage<\/b> without assigning reasons, refunding the value if paid.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 245,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 10: Disposal of Scrap',\r\n    question: \"In disposal of scrap through tender, the amount of bid security (EMD) to be furnished by bidders should ordinarily be:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"2% of the assessed or reserved price of the goods\",\r\n      \"5% of the assessed or reserved price of the goods\",\r\n      \"10% of the assessed or reserved price of the goods\",\r\n      \"25% of the assessed or reserved price of the goods\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 5% of the assessed or reserved price<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 10.7-2(j)(iii):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Bidders should be asked to furnish bid security (EMD) along with their bids. The amount of bid security should ordinarily be <b>5% (five per cent) of the assessed or reserved price<\/b> of the goods.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\n<b>Contrast with procurement:<\/b> in procurement tenders, EMD is <b>2-5% of the estimated value<\/b>. In disposal: EMD forfeited on unilateral withdrawal\/amendment within validity; <b>late bids not considered<\/b>; the <b>highest acceptable responsive bidder (H1)<\/b> is normally accepted; negotiation is severely discouraged (exceptionally, only with that highest bidder); if the highest bidder cannot take the full quantity, the remainder is offered to next bidders <b>at the H1 price<\/b>; and in the disposal tender, the <b>General Conditions of Sale (GCS)<\/b> replace the GCC.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 246,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 10: Disposal of Scrap',\r\n    question: \"In disposal through tender, the successful bidder (purchaser) shall submit a Security Deposit and Balance Sale Value (BSV) within what timelines respectively?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"SD @10% within 3 days; BSV within 7 days\",\r\n      \"SD @25% of the total sale value within 7 calendar days of issue of the acceptance letter; BSV within 15 calendar days (including the date of the acceptance letter\/sale order)\",\r\n      \"SD @25% within 15 days; BSV within 30 days\",\r\n      \"SD @50% within 7 days; BSV within 21 days\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) SD 25% in 7 days; BSV in 15 days<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 10.7-2(j)(xi)(xii):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"Successful bidders... shall have to submit an <b>SD @ 25 (twenty-five) per cent of the total sale value<\/b> of the contract <b>within seven calendar days<\/b> of the issue of the acceptance letter\/sale order (excluding the date of issue)... The successful bidder... may be allowed <b>15 (fifteen) calendar days<\/b> (including the date of the acceptance letter\/sale order) for payment of BSV.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nExtension for BSV may be granted considering market rates, with <b>late payment charges @1% per week or part thereof up to two weeks only<\/b>, after which the <b>SD stands forfeited without notice<\/b>. The <b>Delivery Order<\/b> is issued after BSV deposit; no interest is paid on refundable amounts. In public auctions too, SD of <b>not less than 25%<\/b> of bid value is taken <b>on the spot<\/b> on the stroke of the hammer.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 247,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 10: Disposal of Scrap',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding the Forward Auction on the GeM portal:\\n1. The Government Agency Seller is called Forward Auction Seller\/Auctioneer (FA-SA), and bidders are called Forward Auction Buyer\/Bidder (FA-BB).\\n2. Post completion of the Forward Auction, the Additional Terms and Conditions (ATC) of the seller supersede the General Terms and Conditions (GTC) of GeM.\\n3. EMD may be asked when the item's estimated value exceeds Rs. 5,00,000, with the maximum rate of EMD generally being 5% of the estimated value.\\n4. The EMD of unsuccessful bidders shall be auto-refunded to their source account within 2 days after generation of the sale intimation letter.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 3,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 10.8.1 \u2014 all four correct:<\/b> roles <b>FA-SA<\/b> (GeM buyers auto-enrol; registration first as Secondary Buyer) and <b>FA-BB<\/b>; <b>ATC supersedes GTC post-auction<\/b>; EMD when estimated value <b>exceeds Rs. 5 lakh, max ~5%<\/b>, paid through GeM payment gateways; and <b>auto-refund of unsuccessful bidders' EMD within 2 days<\/b> of the sale intimation letter (H1's EMD auto-remitted to the auctioneer's account within 2 days).<br><br>\r\nGeM Forward Auction covers machines, agriculture\/forest produce, metal & non-metallic scrap, e-Waste, vehicles, lube\/waste oil, unused spares, coal, properties, plots etc. The <b>certificate of disposal for e-Waste<\/b> must be provided within <b>30 days<\/b> after disposal\/receipt.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 248,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 10: Disposal of Scrap',\r\n    question: \"In GeM Forward Auction, the balance sale value shall be paid by the successful bidder within what period from the date of bid acceptance (unless other timelines are prescribed)?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"10 days for lot value up to Rs. 5 lakh, and 15 days for lot value more than Rs. 5 lakh\",\r\n      \"15 days for lot value up to Rs. 5 lakh, and 10 days for lot value more than Rs. 5 lakh\",\r\n      \"7 days for all lot values\",\r\n      \"30 days for all lot values\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 0,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: A) 10 days (up to Rs. 5 lakh); 15 days (above Rs. 5 lakh)<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 10.8.1-4(f):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"The balance sale value (arrived at after adjusting EMD... but including all applicable taxes) shall have to be paid by the successful Bidder within <b>10 (ten) days for the lot value up to INR 5,00,000<\/b> and within <b>15 (fifteen) days for the lot value more than INR 5,00,000<\/b> from the date of bid acceptance.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nIn exceptional circumstances with FA-SA's prior permission, delayed payment with interest is allowed up to a maximum of <b>30 days (lots \u22645 lakh)\/40 days (lots >5 lakh)<\/b>; the interest rate on delayed payment is <b>7% above the Base Rate of State Bank of India<\/b>. Undelivered goods attract ground rent of <b>Rs 10 per lot per day or 0.5% of the value per day, whichever is higher<\/b>; non-removal within 30 days thereafter \u2192 contract termination, resale and forfeiture of all money paid.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 249,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 10: Disposal of Scrap',\r\n    question: \"Consider the following statements regarding delivery of sold scrap material:\\n1. Delivery must be taken within 30 calendar days (the free delivery period) from the date of the acceptance letter\/sale order.\\n2. Extensions beyond the free delivery period are generally granted after levying ground rent @ half per cent of the sale value per day.\\n3. The items remain at the seller's risk until physical delivery is taken by the buyer.\\n4. No picking, choosing, sorting, welding, cutting or breaking of goods sold will be permitted unless otherwise specified.\\nWhich of the statements given above are correct?\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"1, 2 and 3 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"2, 3 and 4 only\",\r\n      \"1, 2, 3 and 4\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B) 1, 2 and 4 only<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Statements 1, 2, 4 CORRECT (Paras 10.10.1, 10.10.3):<\/b> free delivery period of <b>30 calendar days<\/b>; ground rent <b>@\u00bd% of sale value per day<\/b> for extensions (waivable in genuine cases, recovered before delivery); and <b>no picking\/sorting\/cutting\/breaking<\/b> \u2014 in mixed lots the buyer may otherwise leave cheaper components behind, and cutting whole machinery risks removal of unsold material.<br><br>\r\n<b>Statement 3 INCORRECT (Para 10.10.2):<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"The items shall remain, in every aspect, <b>at the risk of the BUYER from the time of acceptance of his offer<\/b>. The seller will not undertake any liability whatsoever for the safe custody, protection or preservation after the sale has been confirmed.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nAlso: the buyer cannot <b>re-sell<\/b> material still lying in the seller's premises; delivery only to the buyer or a representative with a <b>notarised power of attorney\/authorisation per lot<\/b> and identity proof.`\r\n  },\r\n  {\r\n    id: 250,\r\n    chapter: 'Ch 10: Disposal of Scrap',\r\n    question: \"If a Ministry\/Department is unable to sell a surplus, obsolete or unserviceable item at the reserve price despite attempts through advertised tender or auction, it may:\",\r\n    options: [\r\n      \"Store the item indefinitely until market prices improve\",\r\n      \"Dispose it off at its scrap value with the approval of the CA in consultation with Associated\/Integrated Finance, and if it cannot be sold even at scrap value, adopt any other mode of disposal including eco-friendly destruction\",\r\n      \"Transfer it compulsorily to another Ministry\",\r\n      \"Donate it to any private party of its choice\"\r\n    ],\r\n    correct: 1,\r\n    explanation: `<b>Correct Answer: B)<\/b><br><br>\r\n<b>Para 10.9:<\/b><br>\r\n<i>\"If a ministry or Department is unable to sell any surplus or obsolete or unserviceable item at the reserve price, despite its attempts through an advertised tender or auction, it may <b>dispose it off at its scrap value with the approval of the CA in consultation with the Associated\/Integrated Finance<\/b>. In case the ministry or Department is unable to sell the item <b>even at its scrap value<\/b>, it may adopt <b>any other mode of disposal, including destruction of the item in an eco-friendly manner<\/b>.\"<\/i><br><br>\r\nThis provides the complete fallback hierarchy: reserve price sale \u2192 scrap value sale \u2192 other modes\/eco-friendly destruction.`\r\n  }\r\n];\r\n    \r\n\/\/ ==========================================\r\n\/\/ STATE MANAGEMENT\r\n\/\/ ==========================================\r\nlet state = {\r\n    currentMode: 'all',\r\n    selectedChapter: null,\r\n    filteredQuestions: [],\r\n    currentQuestionIndex: 0,\r\n    sessionAnswers: {},\r\n    sessionChecked: {},\r\n    isReviewMode: false,\r\n    progress: {\r\n        questionStats: {},\r\n        weakQuestions: [],\r\n        masteredQuestions: [],\r\n        totalCorrect: 0,\r\n        totalIncorrect: 0,\r\n        lastSession: null\r\n    }\r\n};\r\n\r\n\/\/ ==========================================\r\n\/\/ DOM ELEMENTS (cached for performance)\r\n\/\/ ==========================================\r\nconst DOM = {};\r\n\r\n\/\/ ==========================================\r\n\/\/ INITIALIZATION\r\n\/\/ ==========================================\r\nfunction initQuiz() {\r\n    console.log('\ud83d\ude80 Quiz Initializing...');\r\n    \r\n    \/\/ Cache DOM elements\r\n    cacheDOM();\r\n    \r\n    \/\/ Load saved progress\r\n    loadProgress();\r\n    \r\n    \/\/ Set initial filtered questions\r\n    state.filteredQuestions = [...allQuestions];\r\n    \r\n    \/\/ Populate filters\r\n    populateChapterList();\r\n    \r\n    \/\/ Setup event listeners (EVENT DELEGATION)\r\n    setupEventListeners();\r\n    \r\n    \/\/ Update UI\r\n    updateModeTabCounts();\r\n    updateProgressDisplay();\r\n    updateWeakAreasDisplay();\r\n    checkForResumableSession();\r\n    \r\n    \/\/ Load first question\r\n    loadQuestion(0);\r\n    \r\n    \/\/ Setup screenshot prevention\r\n    initScreenshotPrevention();\r\n    \r\n    console.log('\u2705 Quiz Initialized Successfully');\r\n}\r\n\r\nfunction cacheDOM() {\r\n    DOM.chapterList = document.getElementById('chapterList');\r\n    DOM.questionGrid = document.getElementById('questionGrid');\r\n    DOM.questionText = document.getElementById('questionText');\r\n    DOM.optionsList = document.getElementById('optionsList');\r\n    DOM.questionNumber = document.getElementById('questionNumber');\r\n    DOM.currentQuestionChapter = document.getElementById('currentQuestionChapter');\r\n    DOM.explanationBox = document.getElementById('explanationBox');\r\n    DOM.explanationText = document.getElementById('explanationText');\r\n    DOM.weakBadge = document.getElementById('weakBadge');\r\n    DOM.masteryIndicator = document.getElementById('masteryIndicator');\r\n    DOM.masteryStars = document.getElementById('masteryStars');\r\n    DOM.prevBtn = document.getElementById('prevBtn');\r\n    DOM.nextBtn = document.getElementById('nextBtn');\r\n    DOM.checkBtn = document.getElementById('checkBtn');\r\n    DOM.warningToast = document.getElementById('warningToast');\r\n    DOM.toastMessage = document.getElementById('toastMessage');\r\n    DOM.resultModal = document.getElementById('resultModal');\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/\/ ==========================================\r\n\/\/ EVENT LISTENERS - USING EVENT DELEGATION\r\n\/\/ ==========================================\r\nfunction setupEventListeners() {\r\n    console.log('\ud83d\udcce Setting up event listeners...');\r\n    \r\n    \/\/ Chapter filter using EVENT DELEGATION\r\n    document.getElementById('chapterList').addEventListener('click', function(e) {\r\n        const filterItem = e.target.closest('.filter-item');\r\n        if (filterItem) {\r\n            const chapter = filterItem.getAttribute('data-chapter');\r\n            console.log('\ud83d\udcd6 Chapter filter clicked:', chapter);\r\n            filterByChapter(chapter);\r\n        }\r\n    });\r\n    \r\n    \/\/ Mode tabs\r\n    document.querySelectorAll('.mode-tab').forEach(tab => {\r\n        tab.addEventListener('click', function() {\r\n            const mode = this.getAttribute('data-mode');\r\n            console.log('\ud83d\udd04 Mode changed to:', mode);\r\n            setMode(mode);\r\n        });\r\n    });\r\n    \r\n    \/\/ Navigation buttons\r\n    document.getElementById('prevBtn').addEventListener('click', previousQuestion);\r\n    document.getElementById('nextBtn').addEventListener('click', nextQuestion);\r\n    document.getElementById('checkBtn').addEventListener('click', checkAnswer);\r\n    \r\n    \/\/ Action buttons\r\n    document.getElementById('submitBtn').addEventListener('click', submitExam);\r\n    document.getElementById('resetBtn').addEventListener('click', resetQuiz);\r\n    document.getElementById('resumeBtn').addEventListener('click', resumeSession);\r\n    \r\n    \/\/ Result modal buttons\r\n    document.getElementById('reviewBtn').addEventListener('click', reviewAnswers);\r\n    document.getElementById('retryBtn').addEventListener('click', retryQuiz);\r\n    document.getElementById('practiceWeakBtn').addEventListener('click', practiceWeakAreas);\r\n    \r\n    \/\/ Weak areas buttons\r\n    document.getElementById('practiceWeakAreasBtn').addEventListener('click', practiceWeakAreas);\r\n    document.getElementById('weakBadgeHeader').addEventListener('click', practiceWeakAreas);\r\n    \r\n    \/\/ Question grid (event delegation)\r\n    document.getElementById('questionGrid').addEventListener('click', function(e) {\r\n        const gridItem = e.target.closest('.grid-item');\r\n        if (gridItem) {\r\n            const index = parseInt(gridItem.getAttribute('data-index'));\r\n            loadQuestion(index);\r\n        }\r\n    });\r\n    \r\n    \/\/ Options list (event delegation)\r\n    document.getElementById('optionsList').addEventListener('click', function(e) {\r\n        const optionItem = e.target.closest('.option-item');\r\n        if (optionItem && !optionItem.classList.contains('disabled')) {\r\n            const index = parseInt(optionItem.getAttribute('data-index'));\r\n            selectOption(index);\r\n        }\r\n    });\r\n    \r\n    \/\/ Weak question list (event delegation)\r\n    document.getElementById('weakQuestionList').addEventListener('click', function(e) {\r\n        const weakItem = e.target.closest('.weak-question-item');\r\n        if (weakItem) {\r\n            const qId = parseInt(weakItem.getAttribute('data-qid'));\r\n            goToQuestion(qId);\r\n        }\r\n    });\r\n    \r\n    console.log('\u2705 Event listeners setup complete');\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/\/ ==========================================\r\n\/\/ PROGRESS PERSISTENCE\r\n\/\/ ==========================================\r\nfunction loadProgress() {\r\n    const saved = localStorage.getItem(`quiz_progress_${quizConfig.quizId}`);\r\n    if (saved) {\r\n        state.progress = JSON.parse(saved);\r\n        console.log('\ud83d\udcc2 Progress loaded from localStorage');\r\n    }\r\n}\r\n\r\nfunction saveProgress() {\r\n    localStorage.setItem(`quiz_progress_${quizConfig.quizId}`, JSON.stringify(state.progress));\r\n    if (quizConfig.useWordPressSync) syncWithWordPress();\r\n}\r\n\r\nfunction syncWithWordPress() {\r\n    fetch(quizConfig.wpAjaxUrl, {\r\n        method: 'POST',\r\n        headers: { 'Content-Type': 'application\/x-www-form-urlencoded' },\r\n        body: new URLSearchParams({\r\n            action: 'save_quiz_progress',\r\n            quiz_id: quizConfig.quizId,\r\n            progress: JSON.stringify(state.progress)\r\n        })\r\n    }).catch(err => console.log('WordPress sync failed:', err));\r\n}\r\n\r\nfunction saveSessionPosition() {\r\n    state.progress.lastSession = {\r\n        questionIndex: state.currentQuestionIndex,\r\n        mode: state.currentMode,\r\n        selectedChapter: state.selectedChapter\r\n    };\r\n    saveProgress();\r\n}\r\n\r\nfunction checkForResumableSession() {\r\n    if (state.progress.lastSession && state.progress.lastSession.questionIndex > 0) {\r\n        document.getElementById('sessionInfo').style.display = 'flex';\r\n        document.getElementById('sessionText').textContent = `Last session: Q${state.progress.lastSession.questionIndex + 1}`;\r\n    }\r\n}\r\n\r\nfunction resumeSession() {\r\n    if (state.progress.lastSession) {\r\n        const session = state.progress.lastSession;\r\n        if (session.mode) {\r\n            state.currentMode = session.mode;\r\n            state.selectedChapter = session.selectedChapter;\r\n            applyFilters();\r\n        }\r\n        loadQuestion(session.questionIndex);\r\n        document.getElementById('sessionInfo').style.display = 'none';\r\n    }\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/\/ ==========================================\r\n\/\/ QUESTION STATS & MASTERY\r\n\/\/ ==========================================\r\nfunction updateQuestionStats(questionId, isCorrect) {\r\n    if (!state.progress.questionStats[questionId]) {\r\n        state.progress.questionStats[questionId] = { correct: 0, incorrect: 0, lastAttempt: null };\r\n    }\r\n    \r\n    const stats = state.progress.questionStats[questionId];\r\n    stats.lastAttempt = new Date().toISOString();\r\n    \r\n    if (isCorrect) {\r\n        stats.correct++;\r\n        state.progress.totalCorrect++;\r\n        if (stats.correct >= quizConfig.masteryThreshold) {\r\n            if (!state.progress.masteredQuestions.includes(questionId)) {\r\n                state.progress.masteredQuestions.push(questionId);\r\n            }\r\n            const weakIndex = state.progress.weakQuestions.indexOf(questionId);\r\n            if (weakIndex > -1) state.progress.weakQuestions.splice(weakIndex, 1);\r\n        }\r\n    } else {\r\n        stats.incorrect++;\r\n        state.progress.totalIncorrect++;\r\n        if (stats.incorrect >= quizConfig.weakThreshold && !state.progress.masteredQuestions.includes(questionId)) {\r\n            if (!state.progress.weakQuestions.includes(questionId)) {\r\n                state.progress.weakQuestions.push(questionId);\r\n            }\r\n        }\r\n    }\r\n    \r\n    saveProgress();\r\n    updateProgressDisplay();\r\n    updateWeakAreasDisplay();\r\n}\r\n\r\nfunction getQuestionMasteryLevel(questionId) {\r\n    const stats = state.progress.questionStats[questionId];\r\n    if (!stats) return 0;\r\n    return Math.min(stats.correct, 5);\r\n}\r\n\r\nfunction isQuestionWeak(questionId) {\r\n    return state.progress.weakQuestions.includes(questionId);\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/\/ ==========================================\r\n\/\/ PROGRESS DISPLAY\r\n\/\/ ==========================================\r\nfunction updateProgressDisplay() {\r\n    const total = allQuestions.length;\r\n    const mastered = state.progress.masteredQuestions.length;\r\n    const percentage = total > 0 ? Math.round((mastered \/ total) * 100) : 0;\r\n    \r\n    const circumference = 2 * Math.PI * 42;\r\n    const offset = circumference - (percentage \/ 100) * circumference;\r\n    document.getElementById('progressRingFill').style.strokeDashoffset = offset;\r\n    document.getElementById('progressPercentage').textContent = percentage + '%';\r\n    document.getElementById('totalCorrectProgress').textContent = state.progress.totalCorrect;\r\n    document.getElementById('totalWeakProgress').textContent = state.progress.weakQuestions.length;\r\n    document.getElementById('overallProgress').textContent = percentage + '% Mastered';\r\n}\r\n\r\nfunction updateWeakAreasDisplay() {\r\n    const weakCount = state.progress.weakQuestions.length;\r\n    \r\n    const weakBadgeHeader = document.getElementById('weakBadgeHeader');\r\n    if (weakCount > 0) {\r\n        weakBadgeHeader.style.display = 'flex';\r\n        document.getElementById('weakCountHeader').textContent = weakCount + ' Weak';\r\n    } else {\r\n        weakBadgeHeader.style.display = 'none';\r\n    }\r\n    \r\n    const weakCard = document.getElementById('weakAreasCard');\r\n    if (weakCount > 0) {\r\n        weakCard.style.display = 'flex';\r\n        weakCard.style.flexDirection = 'column';\r\n        const weakList = document.getElementById('weakQuestionList');\r\n        weakList.innerHTML = state.progress.weakQuestions.map(qId => {\r\n            const question = allQuestions.find(q => q.id === qId);\r\n            if (!question) return '';\r\n            const stats = state.progress.questionStats[qId] || { incorrect: 0 };\r\n            return `<div class=\"weak-question-item\" data-qid=\"${qId}\">\r\n                <span class=\"q-num\">Q${question.id}<\/span>\r\n                <span class=\"q-text\">${question.question.substring(0, 40)}...<\/span>\r\n                <span class=\"wrong-count\">${stats.incorrect}x<\/span>\r\n            <\/div>`;\r\n        }).join('');\r\n    } else {\r\n        weakCard.style.display = 'none';\r\n    }\r\n    \r\n    document.getElementById('weakModeCount').textContent = weakCount;\r\n}\r\n\r\nfunction updateModeTabCounts() {\r\n    document.getElementById('allCount').textContent = allQuestions.length;\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/\/ ==========================================\r\n\/\/ MODE & FILTERING\r\n\/\/ ==========================================\r\nfunction setMode(mode) {\r\n    console.log('\ud83d\udd04 setMode called with:', mode);\r\n    \r\n    state.currentMode = mode;\r\n    \r\n    \/\/ Reset filters when switching to 'all' or 'weak' modes\r\n    if (mode === 'all' || mode === 'weak') {\r\n        state.selectedChapter = null;\r\n    }\r\n    \r\n    \/\/ Update mode tab UI\r\n    document.querySelectorAll('.mode-tab').forEach(tab => tab.classList.remove('active'));\r\n    const modeTab = document.getElementById('mode' + mode.charAt(0).toUpperCase() + mode.slice(1));\r\n    if (modeTab) modeTab.classList.add('active');\r\n    \r\n    \/\/ Show\/hide filter cards based on mode\r\n    const chapterCard = document.getElementById('chapterFilterCard');\r\n    chapterCard.style.display = (mode === 'chapter' || mode === 'all') ? 'block' : 'none';\r\n    \r\n    applyFilters();\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/\/ filterByChapter function\r\nfunction filterByChapter(chapter) {\r\n    console.log('\ud83d\udcd6 filterByChapter called with:', chapter);\r\n    console.log('   Previous selectedChapter:', state.selectedChapter);\r\n    \r\n    \/\/ Toggle selection\r\n    state.selectedChapter = (state.selectedChapter === chapter) ? null : chapter;\r\n    state.currentMode = 'chapter';\r\n    \r\n    console.log('   New selectedChapter:', state.selectedChapter);\r\n    \r\n    \/\/ Update mode tab UI\r\n    document.querySelectorAll('.mode-tab').forEach(tab => tab.classList.remove('active'));\r\n    document.getElementById('modeChapter').classList.add('active');\r\n    \r\n    applyFilters();\r\n}\r\n\r\nfunction applyFilters() {\r\n    console.log('\ud83d\udd0d applyFilters called');\r\n    console.log('   Mode:', state.currentMode);\r\n    console.log('   Selected Chapter:', state.selectedChapter);\r\n    \r\n    state.currentQuestionIndex = 0;\r\n    state.sessionAnswers = {};\r\n    state.sessionChecked = {};\r\n    state.isReviewMode = false;\r\n    \r\n    \/\/ Apply filtering\r\n    if (state.currentMode === 'weak') {\r\n        state.filteredQuestions = allQuestions.filter(q => state.progress.weakQuestions.includes(q.id));\r\n        console.log('   Filtering by weak areas');\r\n    } else if (state.selectedChapter) {\r\n        state.filteredQuestions = allQuestions.filter(q => q.chapter === state.selectedChapter);\r\n        console.log('   Filtering by chapter:', state.selectedChapter);\r\n    } else {\r\n        state.filteredQuestions = [...allQuestions];\r\n        console.log('   No filter - showing all');\r\n    }\r\n    \r\n    console.log('   Filtered questions count:', state.filteredQuestions.length);\r\n    \r\n    \/\/ Refresh filter lists to show active state\r\n    populateChapterList();\r\n    updateQuestionGrid();\r\n    updateSessionStats();\r\n    \r\n    if (state.filteredQuestions.length > 0) {\r\n        loadQuestion(0);\r\n    } else {\r\n        document.getElementById('questionText').textContent = 'No questions available for this filter.';\r\n        document.getElementById('optionsList').innerHTML = '';\r\n    }\r\n}\r\n\r\nfunction practiceWeakAreas() {\r\n    document.getElementById('resultModal').classList.remove('show');\r\n    setMode('weak');\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/\/ ==========================================\r\n\/\/ FILTER LIST POPULATION - USING DATA ATTRIBUTES\r\n\/\/ ==========================================\r\nfunction populateChapterList() {\r\n    const chapters = [...new Set(allQuestions.map(q => q.chapter))].sort();\r\n    const chapterList = document.getElementById('chapterList');\r\n    \r\n    \/\/ Use data-chapter attribute instead of onclick\r\n    chapterList.innerHTML = chapters.map(chapter => {\r\n        const count = allQuestions.filter(q => q.chapter === chapter).length;\r\n        const isActive = state.selectedChapter === chapter;\r\n        return `<div class=\"filter-item ${isActive ? 'active' : ''}\" data-chapter=\"${chapter}\" title=\"${chapter}\">\r\n            <span class=\"filter-text\"><i class=\"fas fa-book\"><\/i> ${chapter}<\/span>\r\n            <span class=\"filter-count\">${count}<\/span>\r\n        <\/div>`;\r\n    }).join('');\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/\/ ==========================================\r\n\/\/ QUESTION LOADING & NAVIGATION\r\n\/\/ ==========================================\r\nfunction loadQuestion(index) {\r\n    if (index < 0 || index >= state.filteredQuestions.length) return;\r\n    \r\n    state.currentQuestionIndex = index;\r\n    const question = state.filteredQuestions[index];\r\n    \r\n    document.getElementById('questionNumber').textContent = `Question ${index + 1} of ${state.filteredQuestions.length}`;\r\n    document.getElementById('questionText').innerHTML = question.question;\r\n    document.getElementById('currentQuestionChapter').textContent = question.chapter;\r\n    \r\n    document.getElementById('weakBadge').style.display = isQuestionWeak(question.id) ? 'flex' : 'none';\r\n    \r\n    renderOptions(question);\r\n    \r\n    const isChecked = state.sessionChecked[index];\r\n    const explanationBox = document.getElementById('explanationBox');\r\n    if (isChecked || state.isReviewMode) {\r\n        document.getElementById('explanationText').innerHTML = question.explanation;\r\n        explanationBox.classList.add('show');\r\n    } else {\r\n        explanationBox.classList.remove('show');\r\n    }\r\n    \r\n    updateMasteryIndicator(question.id);\r\n    \r\n    document.getElementById('prevBtn').disabled = index === 0;\r\n    document.getElementById('nextBtn').disabled = index === state.filteredQuestions.length - 1;\r\n    document.getElementById('checkBtn').disabled = isChecked || state.isReviewMode;\r\n    \r\n    updateQuestionGrid();\r\n    saveSessionPosition();\r\n}\r\n\r\nfunction renderOptions(question) {\r\n    const optionsList = document.getElementById('optionsList');\r\n    const letters = ['A', 'B', 'C', 'D'];\r\n    const isChecked = state.sessionChecked[state.currentQuestionIndex];\r\n    const selectedAnswer = state.sessionAnswers[state.currentQuestionIndex];\r\n    \r\n    optionsList.innerHTML = question.options.map((option, i) => {\r\n        let classes = 'option-item';\r\n        let icon = '';\r\n        \r\n        if (isChecked || state.isReviewMode) {\r\n            classes += ' disabled';\r\n            if (i === question.correct) {\r\n                classes += ' correct';\r\n                icon = '<i class=\"fas fa-check-circle option-icon\"><\/i>';\r\n            } else if (i === selectedAnswer && i !== question.correct) {\r\n                classes += ' incorrect';\r\n                icon = '<i class=\"fas fa-times-circle option-icon\"><\/i>';\r\n            }\r\n        } else if (selectedAnswer === i) {\r\n            classes += ' selected';\r\n        }\r\n        \r\n        return `<div class=\"${classes}\" data-index=\"${i}\">\r\n            <span class=\"option-letter\">${letters[i]}<\/span>\r\n            <span class=\"option-text\">${option}<\/span>\r\n            ${icon}\r\n        <\/div>`;\r\n    }).join('');\r\n}\r\n\r\nfunction updateMasteryIndicator(questionId) {\r\n    const indicator = document.getElementById('masteryIndicator');\r\n    const stats = state.progress.questionStats[questionId];\r\n    \r\n    if (stats && (stats.correct > 0 || stats.incorrect > 0)) {\r\n        indicator.classList.add('show');\r\n        const level = getQuestionMasteryLevel(questionId);\r\n        document.getElementById('masteryStars').innerHTML = [1, 2, 3, 4, 5].map(i => \r\n            `<i class=\"fas fa-star ${i <= level ? 'filled' : ''}\"><\/i>`\r\n        ).join('');\r\n    } else {\r\n        indicator.classList.remove('show');\r\n    }\r\n}\r\n\r\nfunction selectOption(optionIndex) {\r\n    if (state.sessionChecked[state.currentQuestionIndex] || state.isReviewMode) return;\r\n    state.sessionAnswers[state.currentQuestionIndex] = optionIndex;\r\n    loadQuestion(state.currentQuestionIndex);\r\n    updateSessionStats();\r\n}\r\n\r\nfunction checkAnswer() {\r\n    const selectedAnswer = state.sessionAnswers[state.currentQuestionIndex];\r\n    if (selectedAnswer === undefined) {\r\n        showToast('Please select an option first!', 'error');\r\n        return;\r\n    }\r\n    \r\n    state.sessionChecked[state.currentQuestionIndex] = true;\r\n    const question = state.filteredQuestions[state.currentQuestionIndex];\r\n    const isCorrect = selectedAnswer === question.correct;\r\n    \r\n    updateQuestionStats(question.id, isCorrect);\r\n    loadQuestion(state.currentQuestionIndex);\r\n    updateSessionStats();\r\n    \r\n    showToast(isCorrect ? 'Correct! \ud83c\udf89' : 'Incorrect. Review the explanation.', isCorrect ? 'success' : 'error');\r\n}\r\n\r\nfunction previousQuestion() {\r\n    if (state.currentQuestionIndex > 0) loadQuestion(state.currentQuestionIndex - 1);\r\n}\r\n\r\nfunction nextQuestion() {\r\n    if (state.currentQuestionIndex < state.filteredQuestions.length - 1) loadQuestion(state.currentQuestionIndex + 1);\r\n}\r\n\r\nfunction goToQuestion(questionId) {\r\n    const index = state.filteredQuestions.findIndex(q => q.id === questionId);\r\n    if (index !== -1) loadQuestion(index);\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/\/ ==========================================\r\n\/\/ QUESTION GRID\r\n\/\/ ==========================================\r\nfunction updateQuestionGrid() {\r\n    const grid = document.getElementById('questionGrid');\r\n    grid.innerHTML = state.filteredQuestions.map((q, i) => {\r\n        let className = 'grid-item';\r\n        \r\n        if (i === state.currentQuestionIndex) {\r\n            className += ' current';\r\n        } else if (state.sessionChecked[i] || state.isReviewMode) {\r\n            if (state.sessionAnswers[i] === state.filteredQuestions[i].correct) {\r\n                className += ' correct-answered';\r\n            } else if (state.sessionAnswers[i] !== undefined) {\r\n                className += ' incorrect-answered';\r\n            } else {\r\n                className += ' unattempted';\r\n            }\r\n        } else if (state.sessionAnswers[i] !== undefined) {\r\n            className += ' attempted';\r\n        } else {\r\n            className += ' unattempted';\r\n        }\r\n        \r\n        if (isQuestionWeak(q.id)) className += ' weak-marked';\r\n        \r\n        return `<div class=\"${className}\" data-index=\"${i}\">${i + 1}<\/div>`;\r\n    }).join('');\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/\/ ==========================================\r\n\/\/ SESSION STATS\r\n\/\/ ==========================================\r\nfunction updateSessionStats() {\r\n    const total = state.filteredQuestions.length;\r\n    const attempted = Object.keys(state.sessionAnswers).length;\r\n    let correct = 0, incorrect = 0;\r\n    \r\n    Object.keys(state.sessionChecked).forEach(index => {\r\n        if (state.filteredQuestions[index] && state.sessionAnswers[index] === state.filteredQuestions[index].correct) correct++;\r\n        else if (state.sessionAnswers[index] !== undefined) incorrect++;\r\n    });\r\n    \r\n    document.getElementById('totalQuestions').textContent = total;\r\n    document.getElementById('attemptedCount').textContent = attempted;\r\n    document.getElementById('correctCount').textContent = correct;\r\n    document.getElementById('incorrectCount').textContent = incorrect;\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/\/ ==========================================\r\n\/\/ SUBMIT & RESULTS\r\n\/\/ ==========================================\r\nfunction submitExam() {\r\n    let correct = 0, incorrect = 0;\r\n    \r\n    state.filteredQuestions.forEach((q, i) => {\r\n        if (state.sessionAnswers[i] === q.correct) correct++;\r\n        else if (state.sessionAnswers[i] !== undefined) incorrect++;\r\n    });\r\n    \r\n    const percentage = state.filteredQuestions.length > 0 ? Math.round((correct \/ state.filteredQuestions.length) * 100) : 0;\r\n    \r\n    document.getElementById('resultCorrect').textContent = correct;\r\n    document.getElementById('resultIncorrect').textContent = incorrect;\r\n    document.getElementById('resultScore').textContent = percentage + '%';\r\n    \r\n    if (percentage >= 80) {\r\n        document.getElementById('resultIcon').textContent = '\ud83c\udf89';\r\n        document.getElementById('resultTitle').textContent = 'Excellent!';\r\n        document.getElementById('resultMessage').textContent = 'Outstanding performance!';\r\n    } else if (percentage >= 60) {\r\n        document.getElementById('resultIcon').textContent = '\ud83d\udc4d';\r\n        document.getElementById('resultTitle').textContent = 'Good Job!';\r\n        document.getElementById('resultMessage').textContent = 'Keep practicing!';\r\n    } else {\r\n        document.getElementById('resultIcon').textContent = '\ud83d\udcaa';\r\n        document.getElementById('resultTitle').textContent = 'Keep Learning!';\r\n        document.getElementById('resultMessage').textContent = 'Focus on weak areas.';\r\n    }\r\n    \r\n    document.getElementById('practiceWeakBtn').style.display = state.progress.weakQuestions.length > 0 ? 'flex' : 'none';\r\n    document.getElementById('resultModal').classList.add('show');\r\n}\r\n\r\nfunction reviewAnswers() {\r\n    document.getElementById('resultModal').classList.remove('show');\r\n    state.isReviewMode = true;\r\n    state.filteredQuestions.forEach((_, i) => { state.sessionChecked[i] = true; });\r\n    loadQuestion(0);\r\n    updateQuestionGrid();\r\n}\r\n\r\nfunction retryQuiz() {\r\n    document.getElementById('resultModal').classList.remove('show');\r\n    state.sessionAnswers = {};\r\n    state.sessionChecked = {};\r\n    state.isReviewMode = false;\r\n    updateQuestionGrid();\r\n    updateSessionStats();\r\n    loadQuestion(0);\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/\/ resetQuiz - RESETS WEAK AREAS\r\nfunction resetQuiz() {\r\n    if (confirm('Reset this session?\\n\\nThis will clear:\\n\u2022 Current answers\\n\u2022 Weak areas\\n\u2022 All progress')) {\r\n        \r\n        \/\/ Reset session data\r\n        state.sessionAnswers = {};\r\n        state.sessionChecked = {};\r\n        state.isReviewMode = false;\r\n        \r\n        \/\/ Reset ALL progress including weak areas\r\n        state.progress = {\r\n            questionStats: {},\r\n            weakQuestions: [],\r\n            masteredQuestions: [],\r\n            totalCorrect: 0,\r\n            totalIncorrect: 0,\r\n            lastSession: null\r\n        };\r\n        \r\n        \/\/ Save reset progress\r\n        saveProgress();\r\n        \r\n        \/\/ Reset filters\r\n        state.currentMode = 'all';\r\n        state.selectedChapter = null;\r\n        state.filteredQuestions = [...allQuestions];\r\n        \r\n        \/\/ Update mode tabs UI\r\n        document.querySelectorAll('.mode-tab').forEach(tab => tab.classList.remove('active'));\r\n        document.getElementById('modeAll').classList.add('active');\r\n        \r\n        \/\/ Update all UI\r\n        populateChapterList();\r\n        updateProgressDisplay();\r\n        updateWeakAreasDisplay();\r\n        updateQuestionGrid();\r\n        updateSessionStats();\r\n        loadQuestion(0);\r\n        \r\n        \/\/ Hide session info\r\n        document.getElementById('sessionInfo').style.display = 'none';\r\n        \r\n        showToast('Session reset successfully!', 'success');\r\n    }\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/\/ ==========================================\r\n\/\/ TOAST\r\n\/\/ ==========================================\r\nfunction showToast(message, type = 'error') {\r\n    const toast = document.getElementById('warningToast');\r\n    document.getElementById('toastMessage').textContent = message;\r\n    toast.classList.remove('success');\r\n    if (type === 'success') toast.classList.add('success');\r\n    toast.classList.add('show');\r\n    setTimeout(() => toast.classList.remove('show'), 3000);\r\n}\r\n\r\n\/\/ ==========================================\r\n\/\/ SCREENSHOT PREVENTION\r\n\/\/ ==========================================\r\nfunction initScreenshotPrevention() {\r\n    document.addEventListener('keydown', function(e) {\r\n        if (e.key === 'PrintScreen' || (e.ctrlKey && e.key === 'p') || (e.ctrlKey && e.shiftKey && e.key === 'S')) {\r\n            e.preventDefault();\r\n            showToast('Screenshots and printing are not allowed!');\r\n            return false;\r\n        }\r\n    });\r\n    \r\n    document.addEventListener('contextmenu', function(e) {\r\n        e.preventDefault();\r\n        showToast('Right-click is disabled!');\r\n        return false;\r\n    });\r\n}\r\n\r\nfunction switchMobileTab(tab, btn) {\r\n  document.querySelectorAll('.mobile-tab-btn').forEach(b => b.classList.remove('active'));\r\n  btn.classList.add('active');\r\n  document.querySelector('.left-sidebar').classList.toggle('mobile-active', tab === 'chapters');\r\n  document.querySelector('.question-panel').classList.toggle('mobile-active', tab === 'questions');\r\n  document.querySelector('.dashboard-sidebar').classList.toggle('mobile-active', tab === 'navigator');\r\n}\r\n\/\/ Show questions tab by default on load\r\ndocument.querySelector('.question-panel').classList.add('mobile-active');\r\n\r\n\/\/ Initialize when DOM is ready\r\ndocument.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', initQuiz);\r\n<\/script>\t\t\t\t<\/div>\n\t\t\t\t<\/div>\n\t\t\t\t<\/div>\n\t\t","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"<p>Message \ud83c\udf89 Great Job! You have completed the quiz. 0 Correct 0 Incorrect 0% Score Review Practice Weak Try Again [&hellip;]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"parent":0,"menu_order":0,"comment_status":"closed","ping_status":"closed","template":"","meta":{"site-sidebar-layout":"no-sidebar","site-content-layout":"","ast-site-content-layout":"full-width-container","site-content-style":"default","site-sidebar-style":"default","ast-global-header-display":"disabled","ast-banner-title-visibility":"disabled","ast-main-header-display":"","ast-hfb-above-header-display":"","ast-hfb-below-header-display":"","ast-hfb-mobile-header-display":"","site-post-title":"","ast-breadcrumbs-content":"","ast-featured-img":"disabled","footer-sml-layout":"disabled","ast-disable-related-posts":"","theme-transparent-header-meta":"","adv-header-id-meta":"","stick-header-meta":"","header-above-stick-meta":"","header-main-stick-meta":"","header-below-stick-meta":"","astra-migrate-meta-layouts":"default","ast-page-background-enabled":"default","ast-page-background-meta":{"desktop":{"background-color":"var(--ast-global-color-5)","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""},"tablet":{"background-color":"","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""},"mobile":{"background-color":"","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""}},"ast-content-background-meta":{"desktop":{"background-color":"var(--ast-global-color-4)","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""},"tablet":{"background-color":"var(--ast-global-color-4)","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""},"mobile":{"background-color":"var(--ast-global-color-4)","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""}},"footnotes":""},"categories":[],"tags":[],"class_list":["post-13049","page","type-page","status-publish","hentry"],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/promotionexams.com\/index.php?rest_route=\/wp\/v2\/pages\/13049","targetHints":{"allow":["GET"]}}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/promotionexams.com\/index.php?rest_route=\/wp\/v2\/pages"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/promotionexams.com\/index.php?rest_route=\/wp\/v2\/types\/page"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/promotionexams.com\/index.php?rest_route=\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/promotionexams.com\/index.php?rest_route=%2Fwp%2Fv2%2Fcomments&post=13049"}],"version-history":[{"count":16,"href":"https:\/\/promotionexams.com\/index.php?rest_route=\/wp\/v2\/pages\/13049\/revisions"}],"predecessor-version":[{"id":13066,"href":"https:\/\/promotionexams.com\/index.php?rest_route=\/wp\/v2\/pages\/13049\/revisions\/13066"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/promotionexams.com\/index.php?rest_route=%2Fwp%2Fv2%2Fmedia&parent=13049"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/promotionexams.com\/index.php?rest_route=%2Fwp%2Fv2%2Fcategories&post=13049"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/promotionexams.com\/index.php?rest_route=%2Fwp%2Fv2%2Ftags&post=13049"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}